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Test your basic knowledge |
Cardiology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. in the JVP - What is the v wave?
Inc RA pressure - due to filling against closed tricupsid valve
R to L shunt caused by stenoic pulmonic valve
Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
Mean arterial pressure
2. prolonged PR interval
Liver
Kaposi's sarcoma
Fetal right to left - neonate left to right leading to RVH and failure
1st degree AV blodck
3. machine murmer
PDA
Inc afterload - inc contractility - inc heart rate - inc heart size (inc wall tension)
CK- MB
Inc RA pressure - due to filling against closed tricupsid valve
4. Which class of drugs decrease preload
Venodilators (nitrogylcerine)
Fever - erythema marginatum - valvular damage - ESR - red hot joints - subQ nodules - St. vitus dance (chorea)
Shunt - VSD - PDA or patent foramen ovale - due to failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral
Rhabdomyomas
5. with what heart sounds do ASD usually present?
Viridans streptococci
140/90
RCA
Pulmonary flow murmur and diastolic rumble
6. What does the LAD supply?
Greater ventricular EDV
Apex and anterior interventricular septum
ANP
Cardiac tamponade - asthma - obstructive sleep apnea - pericarditis and croup
7. failure of truncus arteriosus to divide?
If sodium channel
Cardiac tamponade - asthma - obstructive sleep apnea - pericarditis and croup
Persistant truncus arteriosus
Slow conduction velocity - used by AV node prolongs transmission from atria to ventrical
8. SV CAP means?
Adult type aortic coarctation
Stroke volume affected by contractility - afterload - and preload
C - ANCA
LAD
9. Which area of the endocardium is especially vulnerable to infarction? Why?
In RA return (inspiration)
Subendocardial - fewer collaterals and higher pressure
Tetralogy of fallot - transposition of great vessels - truncus arteriosus - tricuspid atresia - TAPVR
Crescendo - decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following ejection click
10. congenital heart defect with congenital rubella
Unstable/crescendo angina
Inc central venous pressure - inc resistance to portal flow
Postinfarction fibrinous pericarditis
Septal defects - PDA - pulm art stenosis
11. In the cardiac and vascular function curves - In what instance is the vascular curve shifted to the right?
Transfusion
Fever - erythema marginatum - valvular damage - ESR - red hot joints - subQ nodules - St. vitus dance (chorea)
Troponin I
Pyogenic granuloma - associated with trauma and pregnancy
12. acute - self limiting necrotizing vasculitis in children associated with fever - conjunctivitis - strawberry tongue - desquamatous skin rash - lymphadenitis - coronary sinus aneurysms. Seen in asians
Angiosarcoma
Kawasaki
Myxoma
Septal defects - PDA - pulm art stenosis
13. What kind of dysfunction ensues in restrictive cardiomyopathy
MI
Varicose veins - thromboembolism rare
Plateau - influx of calcium through voltage gated ca channels - ca release from SR and contraction
Diastolic
14. Wegener's tx
RV contraction (closed tricuspid valve bulding into atrium
CHF
Aortic/pulmonic stenosis and mitral/tricuspid regurg
Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
15. What does autoregulation do?
Maintain blood flow to organ over wide range of perfussion pressures
ASD
Hemoptysis - hematuria - perforation of nasal septum - chronic sinusitis - otitis media - mastoiditis - cough dyspnea
Initial repol - inactivation of of voltage gated Na channels - voltage gated K channels begin to open
16. in the JVP - What is the a wave?
Mitral valve
Arteriorles
Decrease in activity of Na/Ca exhanger and increase in contractility
Atrial contraction
17. What is the classic X ray finding for tet of fallot?
Aortic/pulmonic regurg and mitral/tricuspid stenosis
Endothelial cell dysfxn - mac and LDL accum - foam cell - fatty streaks - smooth muscle cell migration - fibrous plaque - comlex atheromas
Hemorrhage
Boot shaped heart
18. Which bacteria causes rheumatic heart disease
Group a beta hemolytic strep
Heart - 02 extraction is always around 100%
Vasodilators - (hydrAlAzine)
Raynaud's
19. What is sudden cardiac death most commonly due to...
In HF
Angiosarcoma
V fib arrhythima
S. aureus
20. Which channel accounts for automaticity of the SA and AV nodes?
If sodium channel
Late systolic crescendo murmur with a midsystolic click
Stable angina
R to L shunt caused by stenoic pulmonic valve
21. Which artery supplies the SA and AV nodes?
HTN - bradycardia - and respiratory depression
140/90
Ventricular repolarization
RCA
22. In an EKG - What is the QT interval?
Mechanican contraction of the ventricles
Septal defects - PDA - pulm art stenosis
Hyperlipidemia
Ventricles are depolarized
23. In an anteroseptal infarct - which artery is effected - and which leads show Q waves?
Atherosclerosis
Increase in Pc
Arteriolosclerosis in malignant hypertension
LAD - V1- V2
24. What are the complications from bacterial endocarditis?
Chordae rupture - GN - suppurative pericarditis - emboli
Anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum
Babies
During diastole
25. What is the early and late lesion in rheumatic heart disease
Mitral valve prolapse
Polyarteritis nodosum
Heart - 02 extraction is always around 100%
Unstable/crescendo angina
26. Endothelial malignancy of the skin assocated with HHV-8 and HIV
27. What is the danger of torsades to pointes?
Unstable/crescendo angina
Can progess to V fib
Glossopharyngeal to soliary nucleus of medulla
Posterior descending (80% off the RCA - 20% off the circumflex)
28. What happens in phase 4 of the cardiac ventricular action potential?
Inc TPR and LA return (expiration)
Resting potential high K perm
Ventricles are depolarized
Diastolic
29. Which organ has ht highest blood flow per gram of tissue
Kidney
Resting potential high K perm
Increased SV
Ischemic heart dz - mitral valve prolapse - LV dilation
30. Does eccentric hypertrophy or concentric hypertrophy cause systolic disfunction
Mitral valve prolapse
Eccentric - concentric hypertrophy causes diastolic disfunction
Cardiac tamponde
During diastole
31. What causes aortic regurg
Slow conduction velocity - used by AV node prolongs transmission from atria to ventrical
Angiosarcoma
LV failure - pulm venous distention transudation of fluid
Aortic dilation - bicuspid aortic valve - RF -
32. What happens in phase 0 of the cardiac ventricular action potential?
Increase contractility
ANP
Rapid upstroke - voltage gated Na channels open
Wegener's
33. What is the time frame for arrhythmia risk in the evolution of MI
EKG
The first 4 days
RV failure - in venous pressure
Fever - roth's spots - osler's nodes - murmur - janeway lesions - anemia - nail - bed hemorrhages - emboli
34. The aortic arch receptors transmit along which nerve?
2nd degree AV block - mobitz type 2 - may progess to 3rd degree block
S. bovis
Vagus to medulla
Decrease in activity of Na/Ca exhanger and increase in contractility
35. How does acidosis affect contractility?
Glomus tumor
In series
Decreased
V fib
36. PCWP is an estimate of...
Left atrial pressure
Unstable/crescendo angina
Greater ventricular EDV
Preload
37. benign cap hemangioma of infancy - spont regresses
Decrease in cAMP
Strawberry hemangioma
Neg inotropy - HF - narcotic overdose
Purkingee>atria>ventricles>AV node
38. bacterial endocarditis - previously normal valves - rapid onset - Which bacteria?
Raynaud's
S. aureus
During diastole
Hypertrophied cardiomyopathy
39. In terms of starling forces - why does nephrotic syndrome or liver failure cause edems
Pos inotropy - exercise
S. epidermidis
V fib
Dec plasma proteins
40. congenital heart defect in an infant with a diabetic mother?
MI
Increase contractility
Increased efferent SANS and decreased efferent PANS
Transposition of great vessels
41. Which organ has the largest arteriovenous difference
Infantile is proximal to ductus arteriosus and adult is distal. Infantile In and aDult is Distal to Ductus
C - ANCA
Non
Heart - 02 extraction is always around 100%
42. On the cardiac cycle graph - on which corners do the opening and closing of the aortic and mitral valves occur?
Afterload (proportional to peripheral resistance)
Aneurysms - ischemia - infarcts - peripheral vasc dz - thromboemboli
Lower right - MC - upper right - AO - upper right AC - lower left MO
Slow conduction velocity - used by AV node prolongs transmission from atria to ventrical
43. What channels do the the pacemaker cells lack?
Stroke volume affected by contractility - afterload - and preload
ASD
Fast volatge gated Na channels
Tetrology of fallot - pulmonary stenosis - RVH - overiding aorta - VSD
44. Which organ gets the largest share of systemic cardiac output
Increasing activity of Ca pump in SR
Liver
Preload
Pulmonary flow murmur and diastolic rumble
45. What causes aortic stenosis
QRS complex
Dressler's - autoimmune
Slow conduction velocity - used by AV node prolongs transmission from atria to ventrical
Age related calcifications or bicuspid aortic valve
46. What is the S1 sound?
Atrial contraction
Angiosarcoma
Posterior descending (80% off the RCA - 20% off the circumflex)
Mitral and tricuspid closure
47. bening capillary hemangioma of elderly - does not regress
Atherosclerosis - LVH - stroke - CHF - renal failure - retinopathy - aortic dissection
Cherry hemangioma
Babies
Holosystoiic
48. In the cardiac cycle - which period has the highest 02 consumption?
LAD
Purkingee>atria>ventricles>AV node
Aortic/pulmonic stenosis and mitral/tricuspid regurg
Isovolumetric contraction
49. benign - painful - red - blue tumor under fingernails from smooth muscle cells
No
Glomus tumor
Buerger's disease
10%
50. Exercise - overtransfusiion and excitiment causes and increase in...?
Preload
SV/ EDV
Patent ductus arteriosus - congenital rubella or prematurity
Tricuspid - don't tri drugs - S. aureus - pseudomonas - candida