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Test your basic knowledge |
Cardiology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What kind of dysfunction ensues in restrictive cardiomyopathy
Dressler's - autoimmune
Liver
Diastolic
Sensironeural deafness - defects in sodium and potassium channels - jervell and lange - neilsen syndrome
2. highly lethal malignancy of the liver - associated with vinyl chloride - arsenic - and thorosrast exposure
Heart - 02 extraction is always around 100%
3rd degree block - pacemaker - Lyme disease
Buerger's disease
Angiosarcoma
3. congenital heart defect with 22q11
Truncus - tet of fallot
Inc TPR and LA return (expiration)
Yes
Hypotension - inc venous pressure - distant heart sounds - inc HR - pulsus paradoxus
4. What does prolonged QT predispose to?
Mitral>aortic>>tricuspid - high pressure valves affected most
Torsades de pointes
140/90
MAP
5. What can cause mitral prolapse?
Changes in CO as a function of preload
Holosystolic - harsh sounding murmur - loudest over tricuspid area
7 weeks
Myxomatous degeneration - RF - chordae rupture
6. Where are pacemaker cells?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Turners
SA and AV nodes
Medullary vasomotor center senses baroreceptors and JGA
7. congenital heart defect with turner's
Pulmonic stenosis and RBBB
PDA
Kidney
Coarcation of aorta
8. with what heart sounds do ASD usually present?
2nd degree AV block - mobitz type 1
Rapid repol - massive K influx - opening of voltage gated slow K channels and closure of Ca channels
Chordae rupture - GN - suppurative pericarditis - emboli
Pulmonary flow murmur and diastolic rumble
9. which medications are used to maintain patency or close the ductus arteriosus?
Indomethacin closes - and pge keeps it open
SV/ EDV
10%
Decrease in activity of Na/Ca exhanger and increase in contractility
10. How does acidosis affect contractility?
Pulsus parvus and tardus - weak - can lead to syncope
Arrhythmia - LV failure and pulm edema - cardiogenic shock - free wall rupture - aneurysm - postinfarcation fibrinous pericarditis - dressler's
Decreased
Myxoma
11. In an anterior wall infarct - which artery is effected and which leads show Q waves
Stroke volume affected by contractility - afterload - and preload
Endothelial cell dysfxn - mac and LDL accum - foam cell - fatty streaks - smooth muscle cell migration - fibrous plaque - comlex atheromas
LAD - V1 - V4
Pulmonic stenosis and RBBB
12. Which channel accounts for automaticity of the SA and AV nodes?
ANP
2nd degree AV block - mobitz type 1
Hyperlipidemia
If sodium channel
13. What is the difference between the fetal and neonatal direction of blood flow in a patent ductus arteriosus
Libman - sacks endocarditis
Fetal right to left - neonate left to right leading to RVH and failure
Vasodilators
SA>AV>bundle of His>ventricles
14. disease of elastic arteries and large and medium sized muscular arteries
EtOh - wet Beriberi - Coxsackie B - cocaine - chagas - doxorubicin - hemochromatosis - peripartum cardiomyopathy
Aburpt halting of valve leaflets
Atherosclerosis
Aortic insuffic - late
15. Rank the following by speed of conduction - av node - atria - purkinjee - ventricles
Mitral stenosis
Aortic/pulmonic regurg and mitral/tricuspid stenosis
Purkingee>atria>ventricles>AV node
Afterload (proportional to peripheral resistance)
16. CO x Total peripheral resistance
Mean arterial pressure
Inc afterload - inc contractility - inc heart rate - inc heart size (inc wall tension)
Myxoma
Ventricular depolarization - nl < 120 msec
17. What causes the early cyanosis in Tet of Fallot?
R to L shunt caused by stenoic pulmonic valve
Vagus to medulla
Subendocardial - fewer collaterals and higher pressure
Beta 1 inc HR and cont - alpha 1 venocxn - alpha 1 arteriolar vascxn
18. What channels do the the pacemaker cells lack?
Aburpt halting of valve leaflets
MI
Turners
Fast volatge gated Na channels
19. 2/3 diastolic + 1/3 systolic
MAP
CHF
Tricuspid atresia - requires ASD and VSD
Arrhythmia - LV failure and pulm edema - cardiogenic shock - free wall rupture - aneurysm - postinfarcation fibrinous pericarditis - dressler's
20. PCWP is an estimate of...
Non
During diastole
Left atrial pressure
Cardiac tamponade - asthma - obstructive sleep apnea - pericarditis and croup
21. Given P = QR - what factors influence resistance?
Proportional to viscosity and inversely proportional to the radius to the 4th power
Transfusion
Late in diastole - high atrial pressure - pushing against a stiff LV wall - associated with ventricular hypertrophy
CO
22. What is the gold standard for dx of MI in the first 6 hours
EKG
Tricuspid atresia - requires ASD and VSD
LAD > RCA > circumflex
Cardiac tamponade - asthma - obstructive sleep apnea - pericarditis and croup
23. What does FEVERSS stand for in rheumatic heart disease
Transfusion
Fever - erythema marginatum - valvular damage - ESR - red hot joints - subQ nodules - St. vitus dance (chorea)
Atrial fiutter - identical back to back atrial depol's - convert to sinus - cal IA - IC or III antiarrhythmics
Kussmaul's sign - cardiac tamponade - pulsus paradoxus
24. What is a normal EF
Decrease in cAMP
At least 55%
Squat. Compression of femoral arteries - inc TPR - dec
Tetralogy of fallot - transposition of great vessels - truncus arteriosus - tricuspid atresia - TAPVR
25. What is the effect on the slope of phase 4 in pacemaker cells by Ach or adenosine?
Vagus to medulla
Decreases
Inc interstitial osmotic pressure pulling fliud out of capillaries
2nd degree AV block - mobitz type 1
26. What is the definition of HTN?
140/90
Arteriolosclerosis in malignant hypertension
Pulmonic stenosis and RBBB
MI
27. fibrinous pericarditis several weeks post MI
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28. What causes the murmur heard in MR to enhance?
The first 4 days
Rapid upstroke - voltage gated Na channels open
In series
Inc TPR and LA return (expiration)
29. What murmur is heard with aortic regurg?
Chordae rupture - GN - suppurative pericarditis - emboli
Dec P02 - inc PC02 and dec pH
Immediate high pitched blowing diasystolic murmur with a wide pulse pressure
V fib arrhythima
30. thrombosis w/o necrosis - ST elevation - worsening chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion
Inc venous return exaccerbates pulm vasc congestion
Unstable/crescendo angina
Fick principle
Abdominal aorta>coronary artery>popliteal artery>carotid artery ACoPCa
31. What happens in phase 3 of the cardiac ventricular action potential?
Temporal arteritis
Pos inotropy - exercise
Rapid repol - massive K influx - opening of voltage gated slow K channels and closure of Ca channels
Atrial contraction
32. tearing chest pain radiation to the back - associated with marfan
RCA - II - III - aVF
Metastasis from melanoma or lymphoma
Aortic disecction - intraluminal tear forming false lumen
Fetal right to left - neonate left to right leading to RVH and failure
33. Which vessels account for the most total peripheral resistance
Cardiac tamponde
Arteriorles
LAD - V1 - V4
Immediate high pitched blowing diasystolic murmur with a wide pulse pressure
34. Which valve is most commonly involved in bacterial endocarditis?
Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
ANP
Mitral valve
CK- MB
35. On the cardiac cycle graph - on which corners do the opening and closing of the aortic and mitral valves occur?
Transmural
Hypertrophied cardiomyopathy
Pulmonic stenosis and RBBB
Lower right - MC - upper right - AO - upper right AC - lower left MO
36. Why is there edema after burns or during infection
HTN - bradycardia - and respiratory depression
Inc Kf - capillary perm
ASD - VSD - AV septal defect (endocardial cushion defect)
SA>AV>bundle of His>ventricles
37. Left to right shunts are more common in babies or kids?
Increase - increase the chance the If are open
Kids
Fluid movement through capillaries
Decrease in cAMP
38. port wine stains on face - intracerebral AVM - siezures - early onset glaucoma - congenital
Calcification in media of arteries esp radial and ulnar - does not obstruct blood flow - intima not involved
Sturge weber - vasculitis of caps
Angiosarcoma
Libman - sacks endocarditis
39. EDV is also known as
Preload
Late systolic crescendo murmur with a midsystolic click
TAPVR
Aortic/pulmonic regurg and mitral/tricuspid stenosis
40. What happends in phase 1 of the ventricular cardiac action potential?
Inc ICP - cerebral ischemia - inc SANS tone (HTN) and reflex bradycardia
Chordae rupture - GN - suppurative pericarditis - emboli
Dilation
Initial repol - inactivation of of voltage gated Na channels - voltage gated K channels begin to open
41. What is the progression of atherosclerosis?
Takayasu's arteritis
Aortic dilation - bicuspid aortic valve - RF -
Endothelial cell dysfxn - mac and LDL accum - foam cell - fatty streaks - smooth muscle cell migration - fibrous plaque - comlex atheromas
MAP
42. Expiration causes an increase in which sided heart sounds
Left sided
Ventricular repolarization
Aortic/pulmonic regurg and mitral/tricuspid stenosis
Mitral and tricuspid closure
43. What does increasing intracellular Ca do?
Increase contractility
Squat. Compression of femoral arteries - inc TPR - dec
Kaposi's sarcoma
Cherry hemangioma
44. What other sign is often present with congenital long QT syndrome - why?
Stroke volume
Sensironeural deafness - defects in sodium and potassium channels - jervell and lange - neilsen syndrome
Infantile is proximal to ductus arteriosus and adult is distal. Infantile In and aDult is Distal to Ductus
Beta 1 inc HR and cont - alpha 1 venocxn - alpha 1 arteriolar vascxn
45. What does FROM JANE stand for in bacterial endocarditis?
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46. In an EKG - What is the QT interval?
Hypertrophied cardiomyopathy
Mechanican contraction of the ventricles
Subendocardial - fewer collaterals and higher pressure
Libman - sacks endocarditis
47. What do the carotid and aortic bodies respond to?
Ventricular depolarization - nl < 120 msec
Dec P02 - inc PC02 and dec pH
Volatage gated Ca channels
Chordae rupture - GN - suppurative pericarditis - emboli
48. When is the scar completely formed in an MI?
7 weeks
Ischemic heart dz - mitral valve prolapse - LV dilation
Microscopic polyangiitis - like wegener's without granulomas
V fib
49. systolic - diastolic
Acute thrombosis of coronary artery
In RA return (inspiration)
No - no pressure gradient
Pulse pressure
50. what happens to capillaries in lymphatic blockage
Buerger's disease
Raynaud's
Inc interstitial osmotic pressure pulling fliud out of capillaries
During diastole