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Test your basic knowledge |
Cardiology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What do the starling forces determine
Increase in Pc
Fluid movement through capillaries
Transposition of great vessels
Black > white > asian
2. What is the formula for EF?
Hyperlipidemia
Patent ductus arteriosus - congenital rubella or prematurity
SV/ EDV
Right sided
3. What causes the early cyanosis in Tet of Fallot?
Stroke volume affected by contractility - afterload - and preload
Left heart failure
C - ANCA
R to L shunt caused by stenoic pulmonic valve
4. In an EKG - What is the QT interval?
Dressler's - autoimmune
Fetal right to left - neonate left to right leading to RVH and failure
Mechanican contraction of the ventricles
LCX - V4- V6
5. PCWP > LV diastolic pressure
Non
Truncus - tet of fallot
Mitral stenosis
Aneurysms - ischemia - infarcts - peripheral vasc dz - thromboemboli
6. rate of 02 consumption/ arterial 02 - venous 02 ccontent=CO
CFX
Fick principle
V fib arrhythima
Ischemic heart dz - mitral valve prolapse - LV dilation
7. what happens to capillaries in lymphatic blockage
Inc interstitial osmotic pressure pulling fliud out of capillaries
Glomus tumor
Aortic stenosis or LBBB
Mean arterial pressure
8. cavernous lymphangioma of the neck - associated with turner's
In HF
Aortic/pulmonic stenosis and mitral/tricuspid regurg
Cystic hygroma
Left sided
9. Do you see elevaged ASO titers in rheumatic heart disease
Ventricular repolarization
Yes
Dressler's - autoimmune
Cardiac tamponde
10. On the cardiac cycle graph - on which corners do the opening and closing of the aortic and mitral valves occur?
Increasing activity of Ca pump in SR
If sodium channel
Indomethacin closes - and pge keeps it open
Lower right - MC - upper right - AO - upper right AC - lower left MO
11. Most common vasculitis affecting medium and large arteries
Temporal arteritis
RCA
Activated histiocytes
Yes
12. What is the S1 sound?
Mitral and tricuspid closure
Diastolic
Myxoma
3rd degree syphillus - syphillit heart disease can lead to aortic valve incompetence
13. When is the scar completely formed in an MI?
Purkingee>atria>ventricles>AV node
Stroke volume affected by contractility - afterload - and preload
7 weeks
Arrhythmia - LV failure and pulm edema - cardiogenic shock - free wall rupture - aneurysm - postinfarcation fibrinous pericarditis - dressler's
14. what percentage of HTN is secondary to renal disease?
CHF
3rd degree block - pacemaker - Lyme disease
Vasocxn - while other tissues it causes vasodilation
10%
15. What does the atria release in response to inc blood volume and atrial pressure
Pos inotropy - exercise
ANP
Vagus to medulla
Viridans streptococci
16. What masks atrial repolarization?
Tricuspid - don't tri drugs - S. aureus - pseudomonas - candida
Increased SV
Inc blood volume
QRS complex
17. What stimulates release of calcium from the SR?
Extracellular calcium - calcium induced calcium release
Angiosarcoma
Left atrial pressure
Non
18. Which lab value indicates blood viscosity?
10%
Extracellular calcium - calcium induced calcium release
Transposition of great vessels
Hematocrit
19. Where is the most posterior portion of the heart and What can it cause?
Kussmaul's sign - cardiac tamponade - pulsus paradoxus
Mean arterial pressure
Increased efferent SANS and decreased efferent PANS
The LA - can cause dysphagia because of compression of the esophageal nerve or hoarseness by compressing the the recurrent laryngeal nerve
20. in the JVP - What is the v wave?
Aortic/pulmonic stenosis and mitral/tricuspid regurg
Inc RA pressure - due to filling against closed tricupsid valve
Strawberry hemangioma
Dec P02 - inc PC02 and dec pH
21. What happens in phase 0 of the cardiac ventricular action potential?
Rapid upstroke - voltage gated Na channels open
Atherosclerosis
Vasodilators - (hydrAlAzine)
PDA
22. highly lethal malignancy of the liver - associated with vinyl chloride - arsenic - and thorosrast exposure
Angiosarcoma
LAD > RCA > circumflex
Hypotension - inc venous pressure - distant heart sounds - inc HR - pulsus paradoxus
Eccentric - concentric hypertrophy causes diastolic disfunction
23. What do the carotid and aortic bodies respond to?
Beta 1 inc HR and cont - alpha 1 venocxn - alpha 1 arteriolar vascxn
Dec P02 - inc PC02 and dec pH
Babies
S. epidermidis
24. What does HTN predispose to?
Atherosclerosis - LVH - stroke - CHF - renal failure - retinopathy - aortic dissection
Takayasu's arteritis
LCX - I - aVL
Myxoma
25. How does angiotensin II raise MAP
Hypotension - inc venous pressure - distant heart sounds - inc HR - pulsus paradoxus
Late systolic crescendo murmur with a midsystolic click
Greater ventricular EDV
Vasocxn
26. What does an isoelectric ST segment indicate?
Ventricles are depolarized
Inc TPR and LA return (expiration)
Inc blood volume
Henoch - Schlonlein purpura
27. What constitues the upstroke in pacemaker cells?
Subendocardial - fewer collaterals and higher pressure
Volatage gated Ca channels
PDA
At least 55%
28. What is the S2 sound?
Ischemic heart dz - mitral valve prolapse - LV dilation
Aortic and pulmonary closing
Henoch - Schlonlein purpura
Hypertrophied cardiomyopathy
29. pulmonary veins drain into right heart circulation (SVC - coronary sinus)
Vasodilators - (hydrAlAzine)
Mitral and tricuspid closure
TAPVR
Left atrial pressure
30. What does FROM JANE stand for in bacterial endocarditis?
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31. Which valve is most commonly involved in bacterial endocarditis?
MI
Extracellular calcium - calcium induced calcium release
Holosystoiic
Mitral valve
32. stroke volume x HR =?
2-4 day - early coag necrosis on the first day
140/90
ASD - VSD - AV septal defect (endocardial cushion defect)
CO
33. Which enzymes are useful for diagnosing reinfarction
Ventricular repolarization
LAD > RCA > circumflex
CK- MB
Atherosclerosis
34. What 4 things drive myocardial 02 demand?
Inc afterload - inc contractility - inc heart rate - inc heart size (inc wall tension)
Granulomatous vasculitis with eosinophilia. Asthma - sinusitis - skin lesions and periphereal neuropathy (wrist/foot drop) heart - GI - kidneys
HTN - bradycardia - and respiratory depression
Postinfarction fibrinous pericarditis
35. Mitral stenosis is most often secondary to which condition?
Yes
CO
Boot shaped heart
RF
36. What is the time frame for arrhythmia risk in the evolution of MI
Total anomalous pulmonary trunk venous return
The first 4 days
Purkingee>atria>ventricles>AV node
Atherosclerosis
37. lymphatic malignancy associated with persistant lymphadema - post radical mastectomy
Granulomatous vasculitis with eosinophilia. Asthma - sinusitis - skin lesions and periphereal neuropathy (wrist/foot drop) heart - GI - kidneys
Adult type aortic coarctation
During diastole
Lymphangiosarcoma
38. What kind of dysfunction ensues in restrictive cardiomyopathy
Aneurysms - ischemia - infarcts - peripheral vasc dz - thromboemboli
Diastolic
Kussmaul's sign - cardiac tamponade - pulsus paradoxus
Myxoma
39. Wegener's tx
Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
Squat. Compression of femoral arteries - inc TPR - dec
Filling is incomplete and CO falls
Ventricular repolarization
40. In a lateral wall infarct - which artery is effected - and which leads show Q waves?
Turners
A fib - beta block or ca channel block - warfarin - thromboembolism prophylaxis
LCX - I - aVL
Age related calcifications or bicuspid aortic valve
41. What causes the midsystolic click
Preload
Myxoma
2nd degree AV block - mobitz type 1
Sudden tensing of chordae tendinae
42. How are cadiac myocytes eltrically coupled?
Hematocrit
Granuloma with giant cells
Prinzmetal angina
Gap junctions
43. Weak pulses - notching of the ribs on xray - HTN in upper extremeties and weak peripheral pulses
LCX - V4- V6
Non
Adult type aortic coarctation
Hyperlipidemia
44. p - anca
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45. systolic - diastolic
The plateau period
Plateau - influx of calcium through voltage gated ca channels - ca release from SR and contraction
Pulse pressure
Age related calcifications or bicuspid aortic valve
46. polypoid capillary hemangioma that can ulcerate and bleed
EtOh - wet Beriberi - Coxsackie B - cocaine - chagas - doxorubicin - hemochromatosis - peripartum cardiomyopathy
Yes
Holosystoiic
Pyogenic granuloma - associated with trauma and pregnancy
47. Which organ has ht highest blood flow per gram of tissue
Immediate high pitched blowing diasystolic murmur with a wide pulse pressure
Kidney
Increase contractility
Volatage gated Ca channels
48. What does mitral prolapse predeispose to?
Infective endocarditis
Left heart failure
Inc venous return exaccerbates pulm vasc congestion
Aortic disecction - intraluminal tear forming false lumen
49. What does TAPVR stand for
Aortic/pulmonic regurg and mitral/tricuspid stenosis
Total anomalous pulmonary trunk venous return
Ventricular repolarization
Increased SV
50. congenital heart defect with 22q11
Truncus - tet of fallot
Inc central venous pressure - inc resistance to portal flow
Aortic stenosis or LBBB
PDA