Test your basic knowledge |


Subject : health-sciences
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. S3 - dilated heart on US - balloon appearance on CXR - eccentric hypertrophy

2. What does mitral prolapse predeispose to?

3. What is the S1 sound?

4. In the evolution of an MI - when the risk for free wall rupture - tamponade - papillary muscle rupture - or interventricular septal rupture the hightest? Why?

5. What is the early and late lesion in rheumatic heart disease

6. congenital heart defect in an infant with a diabetic mother?

7. Which organ has the largest arteriovenous difference

8. In an EKG - What is the PR interval?

9. Weak pulses - notching of the ribs on xray - HTN in upper extremeties and weak peripheral pulses

10. What masks atrial repolarization?

11. polypoid capillary hemangioma that can ulcerate and bleed

12. Which bacteria causes rheumatic heart disease

13. In an EKG - What is the T wave?

14. What cardiac change occurs in pregnancy?

15. In what disease states is blood viscosity increased?

16. In an EKG - What is the p wave?

17. dilated tortous veins due to chronically inc venous pressure - poor wound healing - varicose ulcers

18. no relation between p waves and QRS intervals - treatment and predisposing factor

19. What causes the murmur heard in MR to enhance?

20. What can cause mitral prolapse?

21. diaphoresis - N/V - severe retrosternal pain - pain in left arm/jaw - SOB - fatigue - adrenergic symptoms

22. What is the gold standard for dx of MI in the first 6 hours

23. What is the characteristic pulse in aortic stenosis?

24. Given P = QR - what factors influence resistance?

25. Do you see elevaged ASO titers in rheumatic heart disease

26. Which enzyme rises after 4 hours and is elevated for 7 to 10 days after an MI?

27. What does TAPVR stand for

28. benign cap hemangioma of infancy - spont regresses

29. segmental thrombosing vasculitis of small and medium vessels in smokers with intermittent claudication - superficial nodular phlebitis - raynaud's - gangrene and severe pain - autoamputation of digits is possible

30. In a lateral wall infarct - which artery is effected - and which leads show Q waves?

31. Fatal arrhythmia

32. fibrinous pericarditis several weeks post MI

33. Equilibration of diastolic pressures in all 4 chambers - decreased CO from compression of heart by fluid in pericardium

34. Which enzymes are useful for diagnosing reinfarction

35. exaggerated decrease in pulse during inspiration.

36. On the cardiac cycle graph - on which corners do the opening and closing of the aortic and mitral valves occur?

37. lymphatic malignancy associated with persistant lymphadema - post radical mastectomy

38. What does the U wave indicated?

39. In an acute MI - are there any visible changes via LM in the first 2-4 hours

40. failure of truncus arteriosus to divide?

41. Rank the pacemakers cells

42. CO x Total peripheral resistance

43. When does extracellular calcium enter the cardiac muscle cells during contraction?

44. Which class of drugs decrease preload

45. In the cardiac and vascular function curves - In what instance is the vascular curve shifted to the left?

46. acute - self limiting necrotizing vasculitis in children associated with fever - conjunctivitis - strawberry tongue - desquamatous skin rash - lymphadenitis - coronary sinus aneurysms. Seen in asians

47. What happens in phase 2 of the cardiac ventricular action potential?

48. Central chemoreceptors do not respond directly to which parameter?

49. wartiike - sterile vegetations occur on both sides of the valve - commonly causes mitral regurg. SLE causes it

50. Which channel accounts for automaticity of the SA and AV nodes?