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CCNA - 2

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. An admin wants to evaluate all traffic in a network. To ensure that all packets are captured - what network device should be used?
Host2 sends a segment to Host1 with: ACK flag = 1 SYN flag = 1
A. acts as both client and server w/ same communication b. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files c. can be used in client-server networks
A. 48 binary bits in length b. physical addresses c. represented in a hexadecimal format
Hub

2. What info is found in the TCP and UDP header info?
Switch
Source and Destination Ports
A. physical layer b. DLL layer
Source and Destination IP address

3. After a routers ends its boot sequence - the admin wants to check the routers config. From the EXEC mode - which commands can the admin use?
A. show startup-config b. show running-config
Switch
Network Layer Packet
A. located in a single geographical area b. administered by a single organization c. each end is connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP)

4. If you want to connect 4 hosts in a home network - what would be the best deviced to be used?
A. located in a single geographical area b. administered by a single organization c. each end is connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP)
Switch
Network
A. replace a switch w/ a router b. subnet the new networks

5. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
The host can communicate w/ other hosts in the local network but is unable to communicate w/ hosts on the other networks.
A. HTTP b. HTTPS
Resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses.
Window Size

6. At which layers of the OSI model does ethernet operate?
A. determine pathways for data b. retrieve and retransmit data signals c. manage data flows
Rollover cable
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
A. physical layer b. DLL layer

7. When a collision occurs using CSMA/CD - how do hosts w/ data to transmit respond after the backoff period expires?
When connecting a host to a switch.
Hosts return to listen-before-transmit mode.
DNS
Originate data flow.

8. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission - cable specification - and physical aspects of network communication?
Physical
Collisions can decrease network performance.
A. purpose b. geographic location c. ownership
Ctrl + Shift + 6

9. 3 common problems w/ a large network
A. receives emails from clients MUA b. uses SMTP to route email between servers c. passes email to MDA for final delivery
A. performance degradation b. security issues c. host identification
A. they initiate data exchanges b. they may upload data to servers
Transport

10. What do end devices do?
Originate data flow.
SSH
A. ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD b. defined as placement of data frames on the media c. DLL protocols define the rules for access to different media
A. hot keys b. context-sensitive c. command syntax check

11. 3 measures of data transfer
Network Layer
A. is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain b. varies in length c. is used to forward packet
A. goodput b. throughput c. bandwidth
A. hot keys b. context-sensitive c. command syntax check

12. 3 facts about the network portion of an IPv4 address
Wireless
A. if destination network is directly connected - router forwards packet to destination host b. if no route exists for the destination and the default route is present - packet if fowarded to the next-hop c. if the originating host has a default gate
A. 48 binary bits in length b. physical addresses c. represented in a hexadecimal format
A. is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain b. varies in length c. is used to forward packet

13. What command is used to change the default name to 'Costas'?
A. non-deterministic b. less overhead c. collisions exist
Host uses a default route to transfer data to host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
A. security is difficult to enforce b. if one of the computers is responding to file sharing requests - that computer is functioning as a server
Router(config)# hostname Costas

14. After an ethernet collision - which device has priority to transmit data?
8
Hosts return to listen-before-transmit mode.
Identify the device that allows local network computers to communicate w/ devices in other networks.
Any device whose backoff timer expires first.

15. Where is the IOS file stored at?
Network Layer
Flash
A. not affected by EMI of RFI b. most expensive type of LAN cabling
Rollover cable

16. In a connectionless system - What is correct?
Destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
A. physical layer b. DLL layer
Network Layer
The destination host address.

17. An admin needs to keep contents private - which access method should he use?
Create signals that represent the bits in each frame for the media.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during transmission.
Host A
SSH

18. What are 2 common characteristics associated w/ dynamic routing protocols?
A. netstat -r b. route PRINT
A. replace a switch w/ a router b. subnet the new networks
A. provide routers w/ up-to-date routing tables b. consume bandwidth to exchange route info
A. physical layer b. DLL layer

19. 3 factors that should be considered when implementing Layer 2 protocols
A. larger address space b. data types and classes of service c. authentication and encryption
Window Size
A. geographic scope of the network b. physical layer implementation c. number of hosts to be interconnected
A. the device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address (the address it had before) b. Layer 3 address must me reassigned for it to communicate w/ the network

20. Which combination of keys can be used to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl + Shift + 6
A. enable mode b. priviledge executive mode
Transport
A. identifies the communicating applications b. identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

21. When a network service fails - which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
When connecting a host to a switch.
A. the device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address (the address it had before) b. Layer 3 address must me reassigned for it to communicate w/ the network
Next-Hop Address
Console

22. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
A. replace a switch w/ a router b. subnet the new networks
To enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application.
Console interface
Console

23. 3 protocols that operate in the application layer
A physical topology.
A. DNS b. SMTP c. POP
It does not support encryption.
0 to 1023

24. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
8
A. netstat -r b. route PRINT
Router
172.16.192.160

25. A company is planning to subnet a network w/ 27 hosts. What would be the subnet mask used for this?
A. flow control b. session establishment c. numbering and sequencing
Host A
Router(config)# hostname Costas
255.255.255.224

26. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination - reliably and accurately?
A. application b. services
Transport
Identify processes or services that are communicating with end devices.
Collisions can decrease network performance.

27. What networking devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses?
Logical Link Control sublayer
Host2 sends a segment to Host1 with: ACK flag = 1 SYN flag = 1
A. servers b. routers c. network printers
Window Size

28. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
A. it has centralized administration b. security is easier to enforce
It provides interface between applications on either end of the network.
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
Network Media Control

29. 3 features that allow TCP to realibly and accurately track the transmission of data
To prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data.
A. router b. firewall
A. flow control b. session establishment c. numbering and sequencing
Show Interfaces

30. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Application Layer?
A. private addresses are blocked from public internet by routers b. the ip address 127.0.0.1 is the loopback - directs traffic to itself
A. netstat -r b. route PRINT
Network Media Control
A. ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD b. defined as placement of data frames on the media c. DLL protocols define the rules for access to different media

31. What is a component of a routing table entry?
Next-Hop Address
Network
A. router discards the packet b. router forwards the packet out the interface indicated in the route entry
Collisions can decrease network performance.

32. What is the primary rope of the physical layer in transmitting data?
It does not support encryption.
Originate data flow.
Create signals that represent the bits in each frame for the media.
Source Port

33. What are key considering factors when grouping hosts into common networks?
2046
A. purpose b. geographic location c. ownership
A. it has centralized administration b. security is easier to enforce
Twisting of the cables

34. What kind of problems are caused by excessive broadcast traffic on network segments?
Flash
UTP
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at destination.
A. consumes network bandwidth b. increases overhead on network c. interrupts other host functions

35. What is a protocol that provides connectionless network layer services?
IP Protocol
Network Layer Packet
Flash
To facilitate the entry and exit of data on media.

36. What is a characteristic of a single-mode fiber-optic cable?
A. consumes network bandwidth b. increases overhead on network c. interrupts other host functions
It uses lasers as the light source.
Signal loss can be experienced.
UTP

37. On a ethernet segment - why do hosts that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit?
255.255.255.224
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during transmission.
8
Router(config)# hostname Costas

38. Statements that describe LAN
A. located in a single geographical area b. administered by a single organization c. each end is connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP)
Window Size
Minimal delays in data delivery.
A. identifies the communicating applications b. identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

39. If you have a full-duplex operational network - what can happen?
A. Cat5 UTP b. Cat6 UTP
The destination host address.
No collisions will occur on this link.
Wireless

40. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.192.160
A. performance degradation b. security issues c. host identification
UTP
A. HTTP b. HTTPS

41. What is the role of the OSI Application Layer?
Source Port
A. purpose b. geographic location c. ownership
A. the device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address (the address it had before) b. Layer 3 address must me reassigned for it to communicate w/ the network
It provides interface between applications on either end of the network.

42. What are 2 layers of the OSI model that have the same functions as the TCP/IP Network Application Layer?
UTP
A. Physical b. Data Link
A. enable mode b. priviledge executive mode
Transport

43. 2 characteristics of clients in data networks
Identify the device that allows local network computers to communicate w/ devices in other networks.
A. replace a switch w/ a router b. subnet the new networks
A. they initiate data exchanges b. they may upload data to servers
Network address

44. What are 2 features of User Diagram Protocol (UDP)?
Destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
To facilitate the entry and exit of data on media.
Hosts return to listen-before-transmit mode.
A. low overhead b. connectionless

45. There are too many broadcasts on switches - what can be done?
SSH
A. provide routers w/ up-to-date routing tables b. consume bandwidth to exchange route info
A. replace a switch w/ a router b. subnet the new networks
A. router discards the packet b. router forwards the packet out the interface indicated in the route entry

46. What command will you use to place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropiate interface to connect a LAN?
A. if destination network is directly connected - router forwards packet to destination host b. if no route exists for the destination and the default route is present - packet if fowarded to the next-hop c. if the originating host has a default gate
A. perform degradation b. security issues c. host identification
The address of the router that the host will use to 'get to the other side'.
Router(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

47. What is the primary funcion of the trailer in the Data Link Layer encapsulation?
Source and Destination Ports
Supports error detection.
MAC
A. provide routers w/ up-to-date routing tables b. consume bandwidth to exchange route info

48. Which 2 options represent Layer 4 addressing?
A. HTTP b. HTTPS
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
The host can communicate w/ other hosts in the local network but is unable to communicate w/ hosts on the other networks.
A. identifies the communicating applications b. identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

49. What is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Physical
A. low overhead b. connectionless
Collisions can decrease network performance.
No collisions will occur on this link.

50. What 2 type of cables would most commonly be used for new runs?
A. is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain b. varies in length c. is used to forward packet
Network Media Control
A. receives emails from clients MUA b. uses SMTP to route email between servers c. passes email to MDA for final delivery
A. Cat5 UTP b. Cat6 UTP