Test your basic knowledge |

CCNA - 2

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
Static
A. is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain b. varies in length c. is used to forward packet
OTDR
Twisting of the cables

2. What kind of problems are caused by excessive broadcast traffic on network segments?
A. larger address space b. data types and classes of service c. authentication and encryption
A. consumes network bandwidth b. increases overhead on network c. interrupts other host functions
It reduces unnecessary broadcasts.
0 to 1023

3. 3 statements about the role of routers in the network
Destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
Twisting of the cables
A backbone cable.
A. they segment broadcast domains b. they interconnect different network technologies c. each router interface requires a separate network or subnet

4. What is the proper order of the OSI Layers?
A. application b. presentation c. session d. transmision e. network f. data link g. physical
A. copied into RAM during system startup b. contains a 3 byte OUI c. is 6 bytes long
When connecting a host to a switch.
Any device whose backoff timer expires first.

5. What is the function of the DLL?
OTDR
Source and Destination Ports
2046
It provides for the exchange of data over a common local media.

6. There are 4 different hosts connected to a hub - media is being transfered between 2 of them but the other 2 will also like to transfer media. What must the latest hosts do to transfer the media?
A. define structure of layer specific PDUs b. outline the functions necessary for communication between layers c. require layer dependent capsulations
It reduces unnecessary broadcasts.
They must wait until the first hosts finish transfering the media.
Collisions can decrease network performance.

7. What is the primary reason for developing IPv6?
80 (HTTP)
It has expanded adressing capabilities.
A. the router will discard the packet b. the router will send a time exceeded message to the source host
Show Interfaces

8. 2 functions of encapsulation
A. show startup-config b. show running-config
Collisions can decrease network performance.
A. identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication b. ensures the data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
A. perform degradation b. security issues c. host identification

9. Which 2 options represent Layer 4 addressing?
A. identifies the communicating applications b. identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
It provides for the exchange of data over a common local media.
Any device whose backoff timer expires first.
Rollover cable

10. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
32 bits
To facilitate the entry and exit of data on media.
A. they segment broadcast domains b. they interconnect different network technologies c. each router interface requires a separate network or subnet
A. copper UTP b. optical fiber

11. If there are potential electrical and/or electromagnetic hazards - what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
When connecting a host to a switch.
A. HTTP b. HTTPS
A. they segment broadcast domains b. they interconnect different network technologies c. each router interface requires a separate network or subnet
Fiber

12. What is a benefit of a WAN?
Host mobility
Console interface
A default gateway (router).
A. Physical b. Data Link

13. If there is a graphic representation of a company network wiring and equipment - What is this called?
A physical topology.
80 (HTTP)
As the commands are entered.
Time-to-live (TTL)

14. What correctly describes a MAC address?
A. copied into RAM during system startup b. contains a 3 byte OUI c. is 6 bytes long
A backbone cable.
Is used by the server to resolve names.
A. media sharing b. logical topology

15. If the router says: 'Switch-East4#' What identifies the CLI mode represented?
A. hot keys b. context-sensitive c. command syntax check
UTP
A. enable mode b. priviledge executive mode
A. identifies network layer protocol b. makes the connection w/ the upper layers c. insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment

16. What 2 type of cables would most commonly be used for new runs?
A. acts as both client and server w/ same communication b. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files c. can be used in client-server networks
A. Cat5 UTP b. Cat6 UTP
Hosts return to listen-before-transmit mode.
Network Layer

17. Which type of cable is most often associated w/ fiber-optic cable?
A backbone cable.
A. identifies the communicating applications b. identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
Twisting of the cables
Network Layer

18. What layer encapsulates segments into packets?
Network Layer
A. MTA b. SMTP
UDP
A. provide routers w/ up-to-date routing tables b. consume bandwidth to exchange route info

19. When do changes take effect in a Cisco router?
Binary ANDing
As the commands are entered.
It reduces unnecessary broadcasts.
A. purpose b. geographic location c. ownership

20. After a browser makes a request to a web server in the standard port - what will be the port number in the TCP header?
A. DB 60 b. Winchester 15-pin c. smart serial
80 (HTTP)
It is used for timing synchronization w/ alternating patterns of 1s and 0s.
A backbone cable.

21. What do you need to use for an initial configuration on a Cisco router?
Console interface
Network
UTP
A. DB 60 b. Winchester 15-pin c. smart serial

22. What command is used to change the default name to 'Costas'?
Router(config)# hostname Costas
A. HTTP b. HTTPS
A. located in a single geographical area b. administered by a single organization c. each end is connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP)
Switch

23. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Application Layer?
Next-Hop Address
UTP
Network Media Control
Is a layer of specific encapsulation.

24. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
A. DB 60 b. Winchester 15-pin c. smart serial
A. performance degradation b. security issues c. host identification
The MAC protocol can be very simple.
Network Layer Packet

25. What makes fiber preferable to copper for interconnecting buildings?
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
Originate data flow.
A. perform degradation b. security issues c. host identification
Minimal delays in data delivery.

26. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 sent a SYN message to begin establishment - what happens next?
Host2 sends a segment to Host1 with: ACK flag = 1 SYN flag = 1
A. MTA b. SMTP
A. show startup-config b. show running-config
2046

27. On a ethernet segment - why do hosts that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit?
Router(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
A. the router will discard the packet b. the router will send a time exceeded message to the source host
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during transmission.
A. identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication b. ensures the data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device

28. What are 3 common problems w/ large networks?
A. copied into RAM during system startup b. contains a 3 byte OUI c. is 6 bytes long
A. larger address space b. data types and classes of service c. authentication and encryption
A. perform degradation b. security issues c. host identification
A. non-deterministic b. less overhead c. collisions exist

29. What are 2 email components used to forward mail between servers?
Source and Destination IP address
Is a layer of specific encapsulation.
It uses support from the lower layers to distinguish between connections to the service.
A. MTA b. SMTP

30. Network Protocols
A. define structure of layer specific PDUs b. outline the functions necessary for communication between layers c. require layer dependent capsulations
A. located in a single geographical area b. administered by a single organization c. each end is connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP)
A. larger address space b. data types and classes of service c. authentication and encryption
Flash

31. Intermediary devices used to implement security between networks
It does not support encryption.
32 bits
A. router b. firewall
OTDR

32. Where is the IOS file stored at?
Source and Destination Ports
Flash
DNS
Console

33. What do end devices do?
Originate data flow.
A. located in a single geographical area b. administered by a single organization c. each end is connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP)
Source Port
A. show startup-config b. show running-config

34. In a connectionless system - What is correct?
A. if destination network is directly connected - router forwards packet to destination host b. if no route exists for the destination and the default route is present - packet if fowarded to the next-hop c. if the originating host has a default gate
A. next-hop b. metric/interface c. destination network address
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
Destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

35. 3 functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model
A. identifies network layer protocol b. makes the connection w/ the upper layers c. insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
Source and Destination Ports
Network
Rollover cable

36. What are 2 common characteristics associated w/ dynamic routing protocols?
A. MTA b. SMTP
A. netstat -r b. route PRINT
A. provide routers w/ up-to-date routing tables b. consume bandwidth to exchange route info
A. the device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address (the address it had before) b. Layer 3 address must me reassigned for it to communicate w/ the network

37. What is the role of MTA in handling email?
Network Media Control
A. receives emails from clients MUA b. uses SMTP to route email between servers c. passes email to MDA for final delivery
It provides for the exchange of data over a common local media.
A. flow control b. session establishment c. numbering and sequencing

38. At which layers of the OSI model does ethernet operate?
A. private addresses are blocked from public internet by routers b. the ip address 127.0.0.1 is the loopback - directs traffic to itself
Transport
A. physical layer b. DLL layer
A. application b. services

39. What is the primary function of encapsulating packets into frames?
To facilitate the entry and exit of data on media.
A. they segment broadcast domains b. they interconnect different network technologies c. each router interface requires a separate network or subnet
A. geographic scope of the network b. physical layer implementation c. number of hosts to be interconnected
Twisting of the cables

40. What is the primary rope of the physical layer in transmitting data?
A. computers are allowed to transmit data only when they posses a token b. electronic tokens are passes sequentially to each other
A. router discards the packet b. router forwards the packet out the interface indicated in the route entry
Minimal delays in data delivery.
Create signals that represent the bits in each frame for the media.

41. 2 characteristics of clients in data networks
A. they initiate data exchanges b. they may upload data to servers
Source and Destination Ports
A. application b. services
A. minimizing of collisions b. division into broadcast domains

42. What device can check for faults - integrity and performance of media?
A. media sharing b. logical topology
OTDR
It reduces unnecessary broadcasts.
A. DB 60 b. Winchester 15-pin c. smart serial

43. 3 protocols that operate in the application layer
A. DNS b. SMTP c. POP
Hub
32 bits
A. application b. services

44. What is a default gateway address?

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45. 2 most commonly used media types in ethernet networks
A. they initiate data exchanges b. they may upload data to servers
It provides for the exchange of data over a common local media.
A. copper UTP b. optical fiber
Network address

46. When a collision occurs using CSMA/CD - how do hosts w/ data to transmit respond after the backoff period expires?
A. is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain b. varies in length c. is used to forward packet
IP is not properly installed
Hosts return to listen-before-transmit mode.
When connecting a host to a switch.

47. 3 statements of media acess control
A. ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD b. defined as placement of data frames on the media c. DLL protocols define the rules for access to different media
Router(config)# hostname Costas
A. the device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address (the address it had before) b. Layer 3 address must me reassigned for it to communicate w/ the network
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at destination.

48. 3 features that allow TCP to realibly and accurately track the transmission of data
A. determine pathways for data b. retrieve and retransmit data signals c. manage data flows
A. physical layer b. DLL layer
A. flow control b. session establishment c. numbering and sequencing
Transport

49. Important characteristic of UDP
Minimal delays in data delivery.
The address of the router that the host will use to 'get to the other side'.
It does not support encryption.
Hub

50. What do the intermediary devices in the network do?
Is a layer of specific encapsulation.
The destination host address.
A. determine pathways for data b. retrieve and retransmit data signals c. manage data flows
A. ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD b. defined as placement of data frames on the media c. DLL protocols define the rules for access to different media