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CCNA - 2

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4?
A. computers are allowed to transmit data only when they posses a token b. electronic tokens are passes sequentially to each other
Console interface
Identify processes or services that are communicating with end devices.
Physical

2. What is a disadvantage of Telnet?
A backbone cable.
It reduces unnecessary broadcasts.
It does not support encryption.
Destination Network Address

3. 3 terms that define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS
A. hot keys b. context-sensitive c. command syntax check
Network address
Logical Link Control sublayer
A physical topology.

4. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
Next-Hop Address
Static
It provides interface between applications on either end of the network.
172.16.192.160

5. At which layers of the OSI model does ethernet operate?
A. automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port b. enabling the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
Network address
A. performance degradation b. security issues c. host identification
A. physical layer b. DLL layer

6. 3 common problems w/ a large network
The MAC protocol can be very simple.
Is a layer of specific encapsulation.
A. performance degradation b. security issues c. host identification
Host A

7. In business LANs - which connector is used w/ twisted-pair networking cable?
Originate data flow.
No collisions will occur on this link.
RJ-45
Ctrl + Shift + 6

8. Statements that describe LAN
Binary ANDing
A. geographic scope of the network b. physical layer implementation c. number of hosts to be interconnected
It provides for the exchange of data over a common local media.
A. located in a single geographical area b. administered by a single organization c. each end is connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP)

9. 3 facts about the network portion of an IPv4 address
Rollover cable
Source and Destination IP address
Hosts return to listen-before-transmit mode.
A. is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain b. varies in length c. is used to forward packet

10. After a routers ends its boot sequence - the admin wants to check the routers config. From the EXEC mode - which commands can the admin use?
A. consumes network bandwidth b. increases overhead on network c. interrupts other host functions
A. hot keys b. context-sensitive c. command syntax check
A. ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD b. defined as placement of data frames on the media c. DLL protocols define the rules for access to different media
A. show startup-config b. show running-config

11. 2 most commonly used media types in ethernet networks
A. define structure of layer specific PDUs b. outline the functions necessary for communication between layers c. require layer dependent capsulations
Signal loss can be experienced.
A. copper UTP b. optical fiber
Is a layer of specific encapsulation.

12. After an ethernet collision - which device has priority to transmit data?
A. next-hop b. metric/interface c. destination network address
Logical Link Control sublayer
Any device whose backoff timer expires first.
SMB

13. What are 2 layers of the OSI model that have the same functions as the TCP/IP Network Application Layer?
Source and Destination Ports
Host A
A. Physical b. Data Link
Physical

14. What determines the method of media access control?
Source and Destination IP address
A. media sharing b. logical topology
A. receives emails from clients MUA b. uses SMTP to route email between servers c. passes email to MDA for final delivery
2046

15. Given IP 172.16.134.64 and S/M 255.255.255.224 - this IP is an...?
Ctrl + Shift + 6
Router(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
Rollover cable
Network address

16. If you have a full-duplex operational network - what can happen?
DNS
No collisions will occur on this link.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during transmission.
Router(config)# hostname Costas

17. What is an automated service that matches resource names w/ required IP addresses?
A. copied into RAM during system startup b. contains a 3 byte OUI c. is 6 bytes long
DNS
Source and Destination IP address
SSH

18. There are 4 different hosts connected to a hub - media is being transfered between 2 of them but the other 2 will also like to transfer media. What must the latest hosts do to transfer the media?
As the commands are entered.
Source and Destination IP address
Ctrl + Shift + 6
They must wait until the first hosts finish transfering the media.

19. An admin wants to evaluate all traffic in a network. To ensure that all packets are captured - what network device should be used?
Twisting of the cables
Hub
A. provide routers w/ up-to-date routing tables b. consume bandwidth to exchange route info
A. receives emails from clients MUA b. uses SMTP to route email between servers c. passes email to MDA for final delivery

20. What are 2 common characteristics associated w/ dynamic routing protocols?
A. it has centralized administration b. security is easier to enforce
80 (HTTP)
A. identifies the communicating applications b. identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
A. provide routers w/ up-to-date routing tables b. consume bandwidth to exchange route info

21. What is an effect of improperly applying a network cable connector?
A. provide routers w/ up-to-date routing tables b. consume bandwidth to exchange route info
Signal loss can be experienced.
UDP
A. HTTP b. HTTPS

22. Default Gateway is incorrect on the host - What is the impact on the communications?
Logical Link Control sublayer
Transport
The host can communicate w/ other hosts in the local network but is unable to communicate w/ hosts on the other networks.
It reduces unnecessary broadcasts.

23. What are 2 commands used to view a host routing table?
A. replace a switch w/ a router b. subnet the new networks
A. netstat -r b. route PRINT
Binary ANDing
Host mobility

24. What describes the purpose of default route?
Console interface
A. automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port b. enabling the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
Host uses a default route to transfer data to host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
A. 48 binary bits in length b. physical addresses c. represented in a hexadecimal format

25. When a network service fails - which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
Console
IP is not properly installed
UTP
A. private addresses are blocked from public internet by routers b. the ip address 127.0.0.1 is the loopback - directs traffic to itself

26. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
Network portion
Rollover cable
A. if destination network is directly connected - router forwards packet to destination host b. if no route exists for the destination and the default route is present - packet if fowarded to the next-hop c. if the originating host has a default gate
Logical Link Control sublayer

27. Intermediary devices used to implement security between networks
Source and Destination IP address
A. router b. firewall
As the commands are entered.
It provides for the exchange of data over a common local media.

28. If you have an Ethernet Frame w/ a Header - Data and a Trailer. It is a...?
A. automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port b. enabling the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
Network Layer Packet
A. they segment broadcast domains b. they interconnect different network technologies c. each router interface requires a separate network or subnet
To facilitate the entry and exit of data on media.

29. What command can be used to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
OTDR
Show Interfaces
Hub

30. In a connectionless system - What is correct?
Twisting of the cables
Destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
Host A
A. automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port b. enabling the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

31. What correctly describes a MAC address?
FTP
Time-to-live (TTL)
A. copied into RAM during system startup b. contains a 3 byte OUI c. is 6 bytes long
A. application b. presentation c. session d. transmision e. network f. data link g. physical

32. There are too many broadcasts on switches - what can be done?
A. physical layer b. DLL layer
Is used by the server to resolve names.
A. replace a switch w/ a router b. subnet the new networks
To prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data.

33. What command will you use to place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropiate interface to connect a LAN?
A. media sharing b. logical topology
A. acts as both client and server w/ same communication b. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files c. can be used in client-server networks
A. not affected by EMI of RFI b. most expensive type of LAN cabling
Router(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

34. If you have a small network w/ 3 computers...
Twisting of the cables
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
A. security is difficult to enforce b. if one of the computers is responding to file sharing requests - that computer is functioning as a server
A. servers b. routers c. network printers

35. Which layer supplies services and allows user interface?
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
A. application b. presentation c. session d. transmision e. network f. data link g. physical
As the commands are entered.
Application Layer

36. Which 2 options represent Layer 4 addressing?
Flash
Network
A. identifies the communicating applications b. identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
Network address

37. An admin needs to keep contents private - which access method should he use?
A. receives emails from clients MUA b. uses SMTP to route email between servers c. passes email to MDA for final delivery
Source Port
SSH
Fiber

38. What networking devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses?
Create signals that represent the bits in each frame for the media.
A. servers b. routers c. network printers
Wireless
A. decentralized resources b. resource sharing w/o a dedicated server

39. If you have a PC - 3 routers and a Laptop... How many unique CRC calculation will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the Laptop?
A. larger address space b. data types and classes of service c. authentication and encryption
As the commands are entered.
A. physical layer b. DLL layer
8

40. What are 3 properties of contention-based media access for a shared media?
A. non-deterministic b. less overhead c. collisions exist
It uses lasers as the light source.
Host mobility
The destination host address.

41. How many host addresses can be assigned to a subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address w/ a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
2046
A. greater distances per cable run b. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI c. greater bandwidth potential
Hosts return to listen-before-transmit mode.
MAC

42. What is a default gateway address?

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43. If there are potential electrical and/or electromagnetic hazards - what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
A. show startup-config b. show running-config
UTP
Fiber
Host mobility

44. 3 features that allow TCP to realibly and accurately track the transmission of data
Source and Destination IP address
A. flow control b. session establishment c. numbering and sequencing
A. computers are allowed to transmit data only when they posses a token b. electronic tokens are passes sequentially to each other
A. 48 binary bits in length b. physical addresses c. represented in a hexadecimal format

45. What connectors are commonly associated w/ Cisco's V.35 serial cables?
Time-to-live (TTL)
A. DB 60 b. Winchester 15-pin c. smart serial
A. the device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address (the address it had before) b. Layer 3 address must me reassigned for it to communicate w/ the network
A. enable mode b. priviledge executive mode

46. What are 2 forms of application layer software?
A. the router will discard the packet b. the router will send a time exceeded message to the source host
A. application b. services
A. replace a switch w/ a router b. subnet the new networks
A. receives emails from clients MUA b. uses SMTP to route email between servers c. passes email to MDA for final delivery

47. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 sent a SYN message to begin establishment - what happens next?
Host2 sends a segment to Host1 with: ACK flag = 1 SYN flag = 1
No collisions will occur on this link.
A. define structure of layer specific PDUs b. outline the functions necessary for communication between layers c. require layer dependent capsulations
A. automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port b. enabling the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

48. 3 measures of data transfer
RJ-45
A. Physical b. Data Link
A. goodput b. throughput c. bandwidth
A. located in a single geographical area b. administered by a single organization c. each end is connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP)

49. What is the role of the OSI Application Layer?
It provides interface between applications on either end of the network.
A. identifies the communicating applications b. identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
A. enable mode b. priviledge executive mode
A. goodput b. throughput c. bandwidth

50. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Application Layer?
Network Media Control
A. addressing b. error detection c. frame delimiting
To facilitate the entry and exit of data on media.
It uses lasers as the light source.

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CCNA - 2

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