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CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. A programmer is updating an application that saves passwords in plaintext. In this case - Passwords should be stored in a _____. This makes it impossible for any person to retrieve a password - which could lead to account compromise.






2. Guide program execution through organization of resources and development of clear project objectives.






3. A software developer has informed the project manager that a portion of the application development is going to take five additional days to complete. The project manager make a __________________ to document the reason for the change.






4. An IS auditor has discovered a high-risk exception during control testing. The best course of action for the IS auditor to take - The IS auditor should immediately ________________ when any high-risk situation is discovered.






5. IT Service Management is defined in ___________________ framework.






6. A sampling technique where items are chosen at random; each item has a statistically equal probability of being chosen.






7. A condition often identified as a result of multiple incidents that exhibit common symptoms. Problems can also be identified from a single significant incident for which the impact is significant.






8. (1.) LAN protocols (2.) 80 (2.) 11 MAC/LLC (WiFi) (3.) Common Carrier packet networks (4.) ARP (5.) PPP and SLIP (6.) Tunneling - PPTP - L2TP






9. Any event which is not part of the standard operation of service and which causes or may cause an interruption to or reduction in quality of that service. Includes THREE incident types: (1.) Service Outage (2.) Service Slowdown (3.) Software Bug






10. (1.) Utility (DNS - SNMP - DHCP (2.) Messaging protocols (SMTP) (3.) Data Transfer protocols (NFS - FTP) (4.) Interactive protocols (Telnet)






11. IS auditors can _____________________ through the following means: (1.) training courses (2.) webinars (3.) ISACA chapter training events (4.) Industry conferences






12. The memory locations in the CPU where arithmetic values are stored.






13. To review and approve proposed changes to systems and infrastructure. This helps to reduce the risk of unintended events and unplanned downtime.






14. A computation of the variance of sample values from the sample mean. This is a measurement of the spread of values in a sample






15. (1.) Executive Summary (2.) Framework (3.) Reporting to External Parties (4.) Evaluation Tools






16. An audit report usually includes the following 10 elements: (1.) Cover letter (2.) Introduction (3.) Summary (4.) Audit description (5.) _______________ (6.) Interviewees (7.) Evidence (8.) Explanation of sampling techniques (9.) Findings (10.) Recom






17. Should include 4 steps: (1.) Emergency Approval (2.) Implementation (3.) Verification (4.) Review






18. (1.) Develop a BC Policy (2.) Conduct BIA (3.) Perform critical analysis (4.) Establish recovery targets (5.) Develop recovery and continuity strategies and plans (6.) Test recovery and continuity plans and procedures Train personnel Maintain strateg






19. During the development phase - Developers should only be performing Unit Testing - to verify that the individual sections of code they have written are performing properly.






20. Aids in the coordinating of business processes using a sequence of three events -(1.) Business process creation (2.) Implementation (3.) Maintenance 3a. Benchmarking: Facilitates continuous improvement within the BPLC






21. Use of a set of monitoring and review activities that confirm whether IS operations is providing service to its customers.






22. An auditor has detected potential fraud while testing a control objective - He should ___________________. Because Audit committee members are generally not involved in business operations - they will be sufficiently remove from the matter - and they






23. The portion of IT management that tracks the financial value of IT services that support organizational objectives. It includes 4 activities: (1.) Budgeting (2.) Capital Investment (3.) Expense Management (4.) Project accounting and project ROI (Ret






24. Consists of two main packet transport protocols: TCP and UDP.






25. Used to translate or transform data from lower layers into formats that the application layer can work with.






26. (1.) Physical (2.) Technical (4.) Administrative






27. (1.) Requirements (2.) Design (3.) Development (4.) Testing (5.) Release preparation (packaging) (6.) Release Deployment






28. Outsourcing is an opportunity for the organization to focus on core competencies. When an organization oursources a business function - it no longer needs to be concerned about training employees in that function. Outsources does not always reduce co






29. PERT: shows the ______________ critical path.






30. Subjective sampling is used when the auditor wants to _________________________.






31. Describes the effect on the business if a process is incapacitated for any appreciable time






32. Handle application processing






33. Disasters are generally grouped in terms of type: ______________.






34. An organization has chosen to open a business office in another country where labor costs are lower and has hired workers to perform business functions there. - The organization is ___________ - while they may have opened the office in a foreign coun






35. (1.) Access controls (2.) Encryption (3.) Audit logging






36. An audit that is performed in support of an anticipated or active legal proceeding.






37. An audit of IS controls - security controls - or business controls to determine control existence and effectiveness.






38. Framework for auditing and measuring IT Service Management Processes.






39. Collections of Controls that work together to achieve an entire range of an organization's objectives.






40. Who is responsible for imposing an IT governance model encompassing IT strategy - information security - and formal enterprise architectural mandates?






41. A facility that is used to store and manage access to an organization's application source and object code. It consists of 5 parts: (1.) Access and authorization controls (2.) Program checkout (3.) Program Check-in (4.) Version Control (5.) Code Ana






42. A sampling technique used to study the characteristics of a population to determine the numeric total of a specific attribute from the entire population.






43. Governed by: (1.) Effective Change Management (2.) Effective Application Testing (3.) Resilient Architecture (4.) Serviceable Components






44. (1.) MPLS (2.) SONET (3.) T-Carrier (4.) Frame Relay (5.) ISDN (6.) X.25






45. A dynamically scalable and usually virtualized computing environment that is provided as a service. Clout computing services may be rented or leased so that an organization can have a scalable application without the need for supporting hardware.






46. During an audit - the auditor should obtain 6 types of documents - (1.) Org charts (2.) ___________ (3.) third-party contracts (4.) policies and procedures (5.) standards (6.) system documentation






47. Used to measure the relative maturity of an organization and its processes.






48. Consists of main chassis component that is equipped with slots are fitted with individual cpu modules. Main advantage is lower cost per unit.






49. Concerned with electrical and physical specifications for devices. No frames or packets involved.






50. A computer uses RAM for several purposes: (1.) Operating System - to store info regarding running processes (2.) ____________ - that are used to temporarily store information retrieved from hard disks (3.) Storage of program code (4.) Storage of prog







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