Test your basic knowledge |

CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. An auditor has detected potential fraud while testing a control objective - He should ___________________. Because Audit committee members are generally not involved in business operations - they will be sufficiently remove from the matter - and they






2. The risk that a material error exists that will not be prevented or detected by the organization's control framework - The possibility that a process or procedure will be unable to prevent or deter serious errors and wrongdoing.






3. A four-step quality control process known as PDSA - or PDCA. Steps: (1.) Plan (2.) Do (3.) Study (4.) Act






4. The party that performs strategic planning - addresses near-term and long-term requirements aligning business objectives - and technology strategies.






5. Handle application processing






6. Outsourcing is an opportunity for the organization to focus on core competencies. When an organization oursources a business function - it no longer needs to be concerned about training employees in that function. Outsources does not always reduce co






7. The highest number of errors that can exist without a result being materially misstated.






8. A technique that is used to identify the most critical path in a project to understand which tasks are most likely to affect the project schedule.






9. A sampling technique used to study the characteristics of a population to determine the numeric total of a specific attribute from the entire population.






10. The probability that a sample selected does not represent the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage - the numeric inverse of the confidence coefficient






11. An estimate that expresses the percent of errors or exceptions that may exist in an entire population






12. Define 10 elements of an Audit - (1.) Subject of audit (2.) Audit Objective (3.) Type of audit (4.) Audit scope (5.) Pre-audit planning (6.) Audit procedures (7.) Communication plan (8.) Report Preparation (9.) Wrap-up (10.) Post-audit follow-up






13. PERT: shows the ______________ critical path.






14. Used to determine which business processes are the most critical - by ranking them in order of criticality






15. An active - instance of a server operating system running on a machine that is designed to house two or more such virtual servers.






16. A programmer is updating an application that saves passwords in plaintext. In this case - Passwords should be stored in a _____. This makes it impossible for any person to retrieve a password - which could lead to account compromise.






17. A tightly coupled collection of computers that are used to solve a common task. One or more actively perform tasks - while zero or more may be in a standby state.






18. Use of a set of monitoring and review activities that confirm whether IS operations is providing service to its customers.






19. The probability that a sample selected does not represent the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage - as the numeric inverse of the confidence coefficient.






20. A sampling technique where items are chosen at random; each item has a statistically equal probability of being chosen.






21. Used to schedule and sequence activities in a waterfall-type representation. Planned activities are shown flowing downward to completion. More simplistic than a PERT Diagram.






22. Aids in the coordinating of business processes using a sequence of three events -(1.) Business process creation (2.) Implementation (3.) Maintenance 3a. Benchmarking: Facilitates continuous improvement within the BPLC






23. (1.) Develop a BC Policy (2.) Conduct BIA (3.) Perform critical analysis (4.) Establish recovery targets (5.) Develop recovery and continuity strategies and plans (6.) Test recovery and continuity plans and procedures Train personnel Maintain strateg






24. Deliver messages from one station to another on the same network or on different networks. Messaging at this layer is not guaranteed.






25. Subjective sampling is used when the auditor wants to _________________________.






26. Used for several types of system changes: (1.) Incidents and problem resolution (bug fixes.) (2.) Enhancements (new functionality.) (3.) Subsystem patches and changes (require testing similar to when changes are made to the application itself.)






27. An audit that is performed in support of an anticipated or active legal proceeding.






28. (1.) Physical (2.) Technical (4.) Administrative






29. ____________________ of the hot site is most important consideration for site selection. IF they are too close together then a single event may involve both locations






30. An organization has discovered that some of its employees have criminal records. The best course of action for the organization to take - The organization should have ___________________ on all of its existing employees and also begin instituting bac






31. A dynamically scalable and usually virtualized computing environment that is provided as a service. Clout computing services may be rented or leased so that an organization can have a scalable application without the need for supporting hardware.






32. IT Service Management is defined in ___________________ framework.






33. A condition often identified as a result of multiple incidents that exhibit common symptoms. Problems can also be identified from a single significant incident for which the impact is significant.






34. (1.) Objectives (2.) Components (3.) Business Units / Areas






35. To communication security policies - procedures - and other security-related information to an organization's employees.






36. Support the functioning of the application controls






37. IT Governance is most concerned with ________.






38. The inventory of all in-scope business processes and systems






39. In Release Management - _________________ means that each step of the release process undergoes formal review and approval before the next step is allowed to begin.






40. A technique that is used to select a portion of a population when it is not feasible to test an entire population.






41. When several incidents have occurred that appear to have the same or a similar root cause - a PROBLEM is occurring.






42. A condition that is the result of multiple incidents that exhibit common symptoms e.g. A web application is displaying information incorrectly and many users have contacted the IT service desk.






43. A sampling technique where at least one exception is sought in a population






44. The process to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes.






45. Focuses on: post-event recovery and restoration of services






46. Lowest layer. Delivers messages (frames) from one station to another vial local network.






47. The 5 types of risks that are related to audits include: (1.) Control Risk (2.) Detection Risk (3.) Inherent risk (4.) _____________ (5.) Sampling risk






48. An auditor has reviewed access privileges of some employees and has discovered that employees with longer terms of service have excessive privileges. This means User privileges are not being removed from their old position when they transfer to a new






49. (1.) IP (2.) ICMP (3.) RRC (Radio Resource Control) (4.) AppleTalk






50. Who is responsible for imposing an IT governance model encompassing IT strategy - information security - and formal enterprise architectural mandates?