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CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. An audit of an accounting system - accounting department processes - and procedures to determine if business controls are sufficient to ensure the integrity of financial statements.






2. The primary source for test plans in a software development project is: ________________ that are developed for a project should be the primary source for detailed tests.






3. IS auditors can _____________________ through the following means: (1.) training courses (2.) webinars (3.) ISACA chapter training events (4.) Industry conferences






4. Contains programs that communicate directly with the end user.






5. To review and approve proposed changes to systems and infrastructure. This helps to reduce the risk of unintended events and unplanned downtime.






6. Used to determine which business processes are the most critical - by ranking them in order of criticality






7. An IS auditor is examining the IT standards document for an organization that was last reviewed two years earlier. The best course of action for the IS auditor is: Report that the ____________________________. Two years is far too long between revie






8. A database term - which means that the database will not permit a program (or user) to deleted rows from a table if there are records in other tables whose foreign keys reference the row to be deleted.






9. Consists of 11 distinct activities: (1.) Service Desk (2.) Incident Management (3.) Problem Management (4.) Change Management (5.) Configuration Management (6.) Release Management (7.) Service-level Management (8.) Financial Management (9.) Capacity






10. A software developer has informed the project manager that a portion of the application development is going to take five additional days to complete. The project manager make a __________________ to document the reason for the change.






11. PERT: shows the ______________ critical path.






12. (1.) Requirements (2.) Design (3.) Development (4.) Testing (5.) Release preparation (packaging) (6.) Release Deployment






13. A sampling technique where a population is divided into classes or strata - based upon the value of one of the attributes. Samples are then selected from each class.






14. A CMM helps an organization to _______________ - which is an important first step to any large-scale process improvement effort.






15. Aids in the coordinating of business processes using a sequence of three events -(1.) Business process creation (2.) Implementation (3.) Maintenance 3a. Benchmarking: Facilitates continuous improvement within the BPLC






16. (1.) Feasibility Study (2.) Definition of Requirements (3.) Design (4.) Development (5.) Testing (6.) Implementation (7.) Post-implementation phase






17. (1.) Avoidance (2.) Transfer (3.) Mitigation (4.) Acceptance






18. An external IS auditor has discovered a _______________________ - The external auditor can only document the finding in the audit report. An external auditor is not in a position to implement controls.






19. A tightly coupled collection of computers that are used to solve a common task. One or more actively perform tasks - while zero or more may be in a standby state.






20. Guide program execution through organization of resources and development of clear project objectives.






21. Used to measure the relative maturity of an organization and its processes.






22. Use of a set of monitoring and review activities that confirm whether IS operations is providing service to its customers.






23. An audit of an IS department's operations and systems.






24. (1.) Reliable delivery (2.) Connection oriented (persistent connection) (3.) Order of Delivery (4.) Flow Control (transfer rate is throttled) (5.) Port Number






25. Disasters are generally grouped in terms of type: ______________.






26. (1.) Operational (2.) Financial (3.) Integrated (4.) IS (5.) Administrative (6.) Compliance (7.) Forensic (8.) Service Provider






27. Concerns the reliability of data transfer between systems. (1.) Connection Oriented (2.) Guaranteed Delivery (3.) Order of Delivery






28. Consists of two main packet transport protocols: TCP and UDP.






29. An audit of a third-party organization that provides services to other organizations.






30. An organization has chosen to open a business office in another country where labor costs are lower and has hired workers to perform business functions there. - The organization is ___________ - while they may have opened the office in a foreign coun






31. Must be tested to validate effectiveness through: (1.) Document Review (2.) Walkthrough (3.) Simulation (4.) Parallel testing (5.) Cutover testing practices






32. A quantitative risk analysis is __________________ because: It is difficult to get accurate figures on the frequency of specific threats. It is difficult to determine the probability that a threat will be realized. It is relatively easy to determine






33. (1.) Access controls (2.) Encryption (3.) Audit logging






34. (1.) Physical (2.) Technical (4.) Administrative






35. Framework for auditing and measuring IT Service Management Processes.






36. A facility that is used to store and manage access to an organization's application source and object code. It consists of 5 parts: (1.) Access and authorization controls (2.) Program checkout (3.) Program Check-in (4.) Version Control (5.) Code Ana






37. The IS auditor should conduct a risk assessment first to determine which areas have highest risk. She should devote more testing resources to those high-risk areas.






38. An estimate that expresses the percent of errors or exceptions that may exist in an entire population






39. What activity involves the identification of potential risk and the appropriate response for each threat based on impact assessment using qualitative and/or quantitative measures for an enterprise-wide risk management strategy?






40. (1.) MPLS (2.) SONET (3.) T-Carrier (4.) Frame Relay (5.) ISDN (6.) X.25






41. An audit report usually includes the following 10 elements: (1.) Cover letter (2.) Introduction (3.) Summary (4.) Audit description (5.) _______________ (6.) Interviewees (7.) Evidence (8.) Explanation of sampling techniques (9.) Findings (10.) Recom






42. The process of recording the configuration of IT systems. Each configuration setting is known in ITSM parlance as a Configuration Item.






43. An audit of IS controls - security controls - or business controls to determine control existence and effectiveness.






44. (1.) Observations (2.) Written Notes (3.) Correspondence (4.) Process and Procedure documentation (5.) Business records






45. Used to control connections that are established between systems (1.) TCP (2.) IPC (3.) SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) (4.) RPC (Remote Procedure Call) (5.) NetBIOS






46. One of a database table's fields - whose value is unique.






47. An organization that has experienced a sudden increase in its long-distance charges has asked an auditor to investigate. The auditor is most likely to suspect that intruders have discovered a ______________________and is committing toll fraud.

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48. (1.) Access Control (2.) Change Management (3.) Security Controls (4.) Incident Management (5.) SDLC (6.) Source code and versioning controls (7.) Monitoring and logging (8.) Event Management






49. The CPU has: (1.) Arithmetic Logic Unit (2.) ______________ (3.) a small amount of memory (usually in to form of registers)






50. 1.) Executive Support (2.) Well-defined roles and responsibilities.