Test your basic knowledge |

CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Any event which is not part of the standard operation of service and which causes or may cause an interruption to or reduction in quality of that service. Includes THREE incident types: (1.) Service Outage (2.) Service Slowdown (3.) Software Bug






2. A technique that is used to select a portion of a population when it is not feasible to test an entire population.






3. (1.) MPLS (2.) SONET (3.) T-Carrier (4.) Frame Relay (5.) ISDN (6.) X.25






4. A sampling technique where items are chosen based upon the auditor's judgment - usually based on risk or materiality.






5. An IS auditor is examining the IT standards document for an organization that was last reviewed two years earlier. The best course of action for the IS auditor is: Report that the ____________________________. Two years is far too long between revie






6. (1.) Hardware Complement (physical specifications) (2.) Hardware Configuration (firmware settings) (3.) Operating system version and configuration (4.) Software versions and configuration






7. The means by which management establishes and measures processes by which organizational objectives are achieved






8. PERT: shows the ______________ critical path.






9. Contains programs that communicate directly with the end user.






10. An audit to determine the level and degree of compliance to a law - regulation - standard - contract provision - or internal control.






11. A database term - which means that the database will not permit a program (or user) to deleted rows from a table if there are records in other tables whose foreign keys reference the row to be deleted.






12. Focuses on: post-event recovery and restoration of services






13. The delivery of messages from one station to another via one or more networks.. Routes packets between networks.






14. In Release Management - _________________ means that each step of the release process undergoes formal review and approval before the next step is allowed to begin.






15. One of a database table's fields - whose value is unique.






16. (1.) Executive Summary (2.) Governance and control framework (3.) Control Objectives (4.) Management Guidelines (5.) Implementation Guide (6.) IT Assurance Guide






17. (1.) Statistical (2.) Judgmental (3.) Attribute (4.) Variable (5.) Stop-or-Go (6.) Discovery (7.) Stratified






18. The process of recording the configuration of IT systems. Each configuration setting is known in ITSM parlance as a Configuration Item.






19. A software developer has informed the project manager that a portion of the application development is going to take five additional days to complete. The project manager make a __________________ to document the reason for the change.






20. (1.) TCP (2.) UDP






21. Requires that a password be broken into two or more parts - with each part in the possession of a separate person.






22. (1.) Develop a BC Policy (2.) Conduct BIA (3.) Perform critical analysis (4.) Establish recovery targets (5.) Develop recovery and continuity strategies and plans (6.) Test recovery and continuity plans and procedures Train personnel Maintain strateg






23. (1.) Utility (DNS - SNMP - DHCP (2.) Messaging protocols (SMTP) (3.) Data Transfer protocols (NFS - FTP) (4.) Interactive protocols (Telnet)






24. The party that performs strategic planning - addresses near-term and long-term requirements aligning business objectives - and technology strategies.






25. A quantitative risk analysis is __________________ because: It is difficult to get accurate figures on the frequency of specific threats. It is difficult to determine the probability that a threat will be realized. It is relatively easy to determine






26. A representation of how closely a sample represents an entire population.






27. The purpose of an auditor doing interviews - To observe personnel to better understand their discipline - as well as ______________.






28. A sampling technique used to study the characteristics of a population to determine how many samples possess a specific characteristic.






29. (1.) Monitoring (2.) Control Environment (3.) Risk Assessment and Control (4.) Information and Communication






30. A facility that is used to store and manage access to an organization's application source and object code. It consists of 5 parts: (1.) Access and authorization controls (2.) Program checkout (3.) Program Check-in (4.) Version Control (5.) Code Ana






31. The risk that there are material weaknesses in existing business processes and no compensating controls to detect or prevent them






32. (1.) Feasibility (2.) Requirements (3.) Design (4.) Development (5.) Testing (6.) Implementation (7.) Post-implementation






33. Lowest layer. Delivers messages (frames) from one station to another vial local network.






34. An external IS auditor has discovered a _______________________ - The external auditor can only document the finding in the audit report. An external auditor is not in a position to implement controls.






35. IS auditors can _____________________ through the following means: (1.) training courses (2.) webinars (3.) ISACA chapter training events (4.) Industry conferences






36. During an audit - the auditor should obtain 6 types of documents - (1.) Org charts (2.) ___________ (3.) third-party contracts (4.) policies and procedures (5.) standards (6.) system documentation






37. Used for several types of system changes: (1.) Incidents and problem resolution (bug fixes.) (2.) Enhancements (new functionality.) (3.) Subsystem patches and changes (require testing similar to when changes are made to the application itself.)






38. The memory locations in the CPU where arithmetic values are stored.






39. Used to measure the relative maturity of an organization and its processes.






40. A CMM helps an organization to _______________ - which is an important first step to any large-scale process improvement effort.






41. An IS auditor is auditing the change management process for a financial application. The auditor has two primary pieces of evidence: change logs and a written analysis of the change logs performed by a business analyst. The change log is best because






42. An audit of IS controls - security controls - or business controls to determine control existence and effectiveness.






43. Outsourcing is an opportunity for the organization to focus on core competencies. When an organization oursources a business function - it no longer needs to be concerned about training employees in that function. Outsources does not always reduce co






44. The 5 types of risks that are related to audits include: (1.) Control Risk (2.) Detection Risk (3.) Inherent risk (4.) _____________ (5.) Sampling risk






45. An IS auditor has discovered a high-risk exception during control testing. The best course of action for the IS auditor to take - The IS auditor should immediately ________________ when any high-risk situation is discovered.






46. A maturity model that represents the aggregations of other maturity models.






47. Guide program execution through organization of resources and development of clear project objectives.






48. (1.) Financial (2.) Customer (3.) Internal processes (4.) Innovation / Learning






49. A four-step quality control process known as PDSA - or PDCA. Steps: (1.) Plan (2.) Do (3.) Study (4.) Act






50. Aids in the coordinating of business processes using a sequence of three events -(1.) Business process creation (2.) Implementation (3.) Maintenance 3a. Benchmarking: Facilitates continuous improvement within the BPLC