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CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. (1.) Automatic (2.) Manual






2. A CMM helps an organization to _______________ - which is an important first step to any large-scale process improvement effort.






3. An IS auditor has discovered a high-risk exception during control testing. The best course of action for the IS auditor to take - The IS auditor should immediately ________________ when any high-risk situation is discovered.






4. Used to control connections that are established between systems (1.) TCP (2.) IPC (3.) SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) (4.) RPC (Remote Procedure Call) (5.) NetBIOS






5. Risk Mitigation Risk Avoidance Risk Transfer Risk Acceptance






6. The probability that a sample selected actually represents the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage.






7. Critical Path Methodology helps a project manager determine which activities are on a project's critical list - ________________________.






8. The CPU has: (1.) Arithmetic Logic Unit (2.) ______________ (3.) a small amount of memory (usually in to form of registers)






9. A sampling technique where a population is divided into classes or strata - based upon the value of one of the attributes. Samples are then selected from each class.






10. The set of activities that is concerned with the ability of the organization to continue to provide services - primarily in the event that a natural or man made disaster has occurred.






11. In Release Management - _________________ means that each step of the release process undergoes formal review and approval before the next step is allowed to begin.






12. The process to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes.






13. Used to determine which business processes are the most critical - by ranking them in order of criticality






14. Information is arranged in frames and transported across the medium. Collision detection. Checksum verification of delivery.






15. A database administrator has been asked to configure a database management system so that it records all changes made by users - The DBA should implement ___________. This will cause the database to record every change that is made to it.






16. The memory locations in the CPU where arithmetic values are stored.






17. During an audit - the auditor should obtain 6 types of documents - (1.) Org charts (2.) ___________ (3.) third-party contracts (4.) policies and procedures (5.) standards (6.) system documentation






18. Delivery of packets from one station to another - on the same network or on different networks.






19. Individual events may often create combined threats to enterprise operations: A tornado might also spawn ____________________.






20. An organization wants to reduce the number of user IDs and passwords that its employees need to remember. The best available solution to this - _______________. This provides a single authentication service (such as LDAP or AD) that many applications






21. ITIL term used to describe the SDLC.






22. (1.) Statistical (2.) Judgmental (3.) Attribute (4.) Variable (5.) Stop-or-Go (6.) Discovery (7.) Stratified






23. (1.) Hardware Complement (physical specifications) (2.) Hardware Configuration (firmware settings) (3.) Operating system version and configuration (4.) Software versions and configuration






24. PERT: shows the ______________ critical path.






25. A critical application is backed up once per day. The recovery point objective (RPO) for an application that is backed up once per day cannot be ________.






26. Subjective sampling is used when the auditor wants to _________________________.






27. Used for several types of system changes: (1.) Incidents and problem resolution (bug fixes.) (2.) Enhancements (new functionality.) (3.) Subsystem patches and changes (require testing similar to when changes are made to the application itself.)






28. An audit of operational efficiency.






29. The sum of all samples divided by the number of samples.






30. (1.) Observations (2.) Written Notes (3.) Correspondence (4.) Process and Procedure documentation (5.) Business records






31. Handle application processing






32. A collection of two or more servers that is designed to appear as a single server.






33. An organization experiences frequent malware infections on end-user workstations that are received through email - despite the tact that workstations have anti-virus software. To reducing malware - Implementing ________________ will provide an effect






34. (1.) Financial (2.) Customer (3.) Internal processes (4.) Innovation / Learning






35. Used to schedule and sequence activities in a waterfall-type representation. Planned activities are shown flowing downward to completion. More simplistic than a PERT Diagram.






36. (1.) Developers (2.) Architects (3.) Analysts (4.) Users






37. A quantitative risk analysis is __________________ because: It is difficult to get accurate figures on the frequency of specific threats. It is difficult to determine the probability that a threat will be realized. It is relatively easy to determine






38. A technique that is used to identify the most critical path in a project to understand which tasks are most likely to affect the project schedule.






39. A maturity model that represents the aggregations of other maturity models.






40. Must be tested to validate effectiveness through: (1.) Document Review (2.) Walkthrough (3.) Simulation (4.) Parallel testing (5.) Cutover testing practices






41. The risk that there are material weaknesses in existing business processes and no compensating controls to detect or prevent them






42. (1.) Executive Summary (2.) Framework (3.) Reporting to External Parties (4.) Evaluation Tools






43. What activity involves the identification of potential risk and the appropriate response for each threat based on impact assessment using qualitative and/or quantitative measures for an enterprise-wide risk management strategy?






44. 1.) Executive Support (2.) Well-defined roles and responsibilities.






45. A condition often identified as a result of multiple incidents that exhibit common symptoms. Problems can also be identified from a single significant incident for which the impact is significant.






46. Who is responsible for imposing an IT governance model encompassing IT strategy - information security - and formal enterprise architectural mandates?






47. Defines internal controls and provides guidance for assessing and improving internal control systems.






48. An audit that combines an operational audit and a financial audit.






49. Consists of main chassis component that is equipped with slots are fitted with individual cpu modules. Main advantage is lower cost per unit.






50. Gantt: used to display ______________.