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CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Define 10 elements of an Audit - (1.) Subject of audit (2.) Audit Objective (3.) Type of audit (4.) Audit scope (5.) Pre-audit planning (6.) Audit procedures (7.) Communication plan (8.) Report Preparation (9.) Wrap-up (10.) Post-audit follow-up






2. Used to determine which business processes are the most critical - by ranking them in order of criticality






3. A sampling technique used to permit sampling to stop at the earliest possible time. This technique is used when the auditor feels that there is a low risk or low rate of exceptions in the population.






4. The IS auditor should act as a SME in the control self-assessment - but should not play a major role in the process.






5. An auditor has discovered that several administrators in an application share an administrative account. The auditor should recommend that - Several __________________ should be used. This will enforce accountability for each administrator's actions.






6. A condition often identified as a result of multiple incidents that exhibit common symptoms. Problems can also be identified from a single significant incident for which the impact is significant.






7. Lowest layer. Delivers messages (frames) from one station to another vial local network.






8. (1.) Requirements (2.) Design (3.) Development (4.) Testing (5.) Release preparation (packaging) (6.) Release Deployment






9. The inventory of all in-scope business processes and systems






10. An active - instance of a server operating system running on a machine that is designed to house two or more such virtual servers.






11. The party that performs strategic planning - addresses near-term and long-term requirements aligning business objectives - and technology strategies.






12. Support the functioning of the application controls






13. An alternate processing center that contains no information processing equipment.






14. (1.) Feasibility Study (2.) Definition of Requirements (3.) Design (4.) Development (5.) Testing (6.) Implementation (7.) Post-implementation phase






15. What three elements allow validation of business practices against acceptable measures of regulatory compliance - performance - and standard operational guidelines.






16. Who is responsible for imposing an IT governance model encompassing IT strategy - information security - and formal enterprise architectural mandates?






17. The annual expected loss to an asset. It is calculated as the single loss expectancy (SLE) X the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO.)






18. A sampling technique where items are chosen based upon the auditor's judgment - usually based on risk or materiality.






19. An organization has chosen to open a business office in another country where labor costs are lower and has hired workers to perform business functions there. - The organization is ___________ - while they may have opened the office in a foreign coun






20. (1.) Reliable delivery (2.) Connection oriented (persistent connection) (3.) Order of Delivery (4.) Flow Control (transfer rate is throttled) (5.) Port Number






21. An organization that has experienced a sudden increase in its long-distance charges has asked an auditor to investigate. The auditor is most likely to suspect that intruders have discovered a ______________________and is committing toll fraud.


22. ITIL term used to describe the SDLC.






23. An external IS auditor has discovered a _______________________ - The external auditor can only document the finding in the audit report. An external auditor is not in a position to implement controls.






24. (1.) Observations (2.) Written Notes (3.) Correspondence (4.) Process and Procedure documentation (5.) Business records






25. The probability that a sample selected does not represent the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage - as the numeric inverse of the confidence coefficient.






26. Critical Path Methodology helps a project manager determine which activities are on a project's critical list - ________________________.






27. To ensure that input values are within established ranges - of the correct character types - and free of harmful contents.






28. The process of recording the configuration of IT systems. Each configuration setting is known in ITSM parlance as a Configuration Item.






29. Framework for auditing and measuring IT Service Management Processes.






30. A computer uses RAM for several purposes: (1.) Operating System - to store info regarding running processes (2.) ____________ - that are used to temporarily store information retrieved from hard disks (3.) Storage of program code (4.) Storage of prog






31. The probability that a sample selected actually represents the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage.






32. Focuses on: maintaining service availability with the least disruption to standard operating parameters during an event






33. (1.) Utility (DNS - SNMP - DHCP (2.) Messaging protocols (SMTP) (3.) Data Transfer protocols (NFS - FTP) (4.) Interactive protocols (Telnet)






34. The means by which management establishes and measures processes by which organizational objectives are achieved






35. An organization has discovered that some of its employees have criminal records. The best course of action for the organization to take - The organization should have ___________________ on all of its existing employees and also begin instituting bac






36. What activity involves the identification of potential risk and the appropriate response for each threat based on impact assessment using qualitative and/or quantitative measures for an enterprise-wide risk management strategy?






37. (1.) Statistical (2.) Judgmental (3.) Attribute (4.) Variable (5.) Stop-or-Go (6.) Discovery (7.) Stratified






38. The 5 types of risks that are related to audits include: (1.) Control Risk (2.) Detection Risk (3.) Inherent risk (4.) _____________ (5.) Sampling risk






39. When several incidents have occurred that appear to have the same or a similar root cause - a PROBLEM is occurring.






40. The probability that a sample selected does not represent the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage - the numeric inverse of the confidence coefficient






41. A representation of how closely a sample represents an entire population.






42. Guide program execution through organization of resources and development of clear project objectives.






43. The risk that an IS auditor will overlook errors or exceptions during an audit.






44. An audit that is performed in support of an anticipated or active legal proceeding.






45. Used to schedule and sequence activities in a waterfall-type representation. Planned activities are shown flowing downward to completion. More simplistic than a PERT Diagram.






46. An audit to determine the level and degree of compliance to a law - regulation - standard - contract provision - or internal control.






47. An IS auditor is examining the IT standards document for an organization that was last reviewed two years earlier. The best course of action for the IS auditor is: Report that the ____________________________. Two years is far too long between revie






48. (1.) Automatic (2.) Manual






49. Information is arranged in frames and transported across the medium. Collision detection. Checksum verification of delivery.






50. An auditor has reviewed access privileges of some employees and has discovered that employees with longer terms of service have excessive privileges. This means User privileges are not being removed from their old position when they transfer to a new