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CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. A technique that is used to select a portion of a population when it is not feasible to test an entire population.






2. The party that performs strategic planning - addresses near-term and long-term requirements aligning business objectives - and technology strategies.






3. Information is arranged in frames and transported across the medium. Collision detection. Checksum verification of delivery.






4. (1.) Developers (2.) Architects (3.) Analysts (4.) Users






5. An auditor has discovered several errors in user account management: many terminated employees' computer accounts are still active. The best course of action - To improve the _________________ to reduce the number of exceptions. For a time - the proc






6. Used to schedule and sequence activities in a waterfall-type representation. Planned activities are shown flowing downward to completion. More simplistic than a PERT Diagram.






7. Used to estimate the effort required to develop a software program.






8. Contains programs that communicate directly with the end user.






9. Risk Mitigation Risk Avoidance Risk Transfer Risk Acceptance






10. The set of activities that is concerned with the ability of the organization to continue to provide services - primarily in the event that a natural or man made disaster has occurred.






11. What three elements allow validation of business practices against acceptable measures of regulatory compliance - performance - and standard operational guidelines.






12. Gantt: used to display ______________.






13. What type of testing is performed to verify the accuracy and integrity of transactions as they flow through a system?






14. A dynamically scalable and usually virtualized computing environment that is provided as a service. Clout computing services may be rented or leased so that an organization can have a scalable application without the need for supporting hardware.






15. Consists of main chassis component that is equipped with slots are fitted with individual cpu modules. Main advantage is lower cost per unit.






16. An external IS auditor has discovered a _______________________ - The external auditor can only document the finding in the audit report. An external auditor is not in a position to implement controls.






17. Consists of two main packet transport protocols: TCP and UDP.






18. (1.) General (2.) Application






19. A four-step quality control process known as PDSA - or PDCA. Steps: (1.) Plan (2.) Do (3.) Study (4.) Act






20. A computation of the variance of sample values from the sample mean. This is a measurement of the spread of values in a sample






21. A sampling technique where items are chosen based upon the auditor's judgment - usually based on risk or materiality.






22. ITIL term used to describe the SDLC.






23. (1.) IP (2.) ICMP (3.) RRC (Radio Resource Control) (4.) AppleTalk






24. An audit to determine the level and degree of compliance to a law - regulation - standard - contract provision - or internal control.






25. A programmer is updating an application that saves passwords in plaintext. In this case - Passwords should be stored in a _____. This makes it impossible for any person to retrieve a password - which could lead to account compromise.






26. An auditor has detected potential fraud while testing a control objective - He should ___________________. Because Audit committee members are generally not involved in business operations - they will be sufficiently remove from the matter - and they






27. What type of testing is performed to determine if control procedures have proper design and are operating properly?






28. The process to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes.






29. (1.) Executive Summary (2.) Framework (3.) Reporting to External Parties (4.) Evaluation Tools






30. An organization is building a data center in an area frequented by power outages. The organization cannot tolerate power outages. The best _________________solution is an electric generator and an uninterruptible power supply. The UPS responds to the






31. The risk that a material error exists that will not be prevented or detected by the organization's control framework - The possibility that a process or procedure will be unable to prevent or deter serious errors and wrongdoing.






32. (1.) Operational (2.) Financial (3.) Integrated (4.) IS (5.) Administrative (6.) Compliance (7.) Forensic (8.) Service Provider






33. A quantitative risk analysis is __________________ because: It is difficult to get accurate figures on the frequency of specific threats. It is difficult to determine the probability that a threat will be realized. It is relatively easy to determine






34. The delivery of messages from one station to another via one or more networks.. Routes packets between networks.






35. A facility that is used to store and manage access to an organization's application source and object code. It consists of 5 parts: (1.) Access and authorization controls (2.) Program checkout (3.) Program Check-in (4.) Version Control (5.) Code Ana






36. The primary source for test plans in a software development project is: ________________ that are developed for a project should be the primary source for detailed tests.






37. A computer uses RAM for several purposes: (1.) Operating System - to store info regarding running processes (2.) ____________ - that are used to temporarily store information retrieved from hard disks (3.) Storage of program code (4.) Storage of prog






38. An audit that combines an operational audit and a financial audit.






39. The process of recording the configuration of IT systems. Each configuration setting is known in ITSM parlance as a Configuration Item.






40. A sampling technique used to study the characteristics of a population to determine how many samples possess a specific characteristic.






41. What activity involves the identification of potential risk and the appropriate response for each threat based on impact assessment using qualitative and/or quantitative measures for an enterprise-wide risk management strategy?






42. A Fire sprinkler system has water in its pipes - and sprinkler heads emit water only if the ambient temperature reaches 220 deg. F. This is a ________________. The system is charged with water and will discharge water out of any sprinkler head whose






43. An audit of an IS department's operations and systems.






44. A technique that is used to identify the most critical path in a project to understand which tasks are most likely to affect the project schedule.






45. (1.) LAN protocols (2.) 80 (2.) 11 MAC/LLC (WiFi) (3.) Common Carrier packet networks (4.) ARP (5.) PPP and SLIP (6.) Tunneling - PPTP - L2TP






46. An active - instance of a server operating system running on a machine that is designed to house two or more such virtual servers.






47. An audit of an accounting system - accounting department processes - and procedures to determine if business controls are sufficient to ensure the integrity of financial statements.






48. A condition often identified as a result of multiple incidents that exhibit common symptoms. Problems can also be identified from a single significant incident for which the impact is significant.






49. The memory locations in the CPU where arithmetic values are stored.






50. Must be tested to validate effectiveness through: (1.) Document Review (2.) Walkthrough (3.) Simulation (4.) Parallel testing (5.) Cutover testing practices