Test your basic knowledge |

CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Should include 4 steps: (1.) Emergency Approval (2.) Implementation (3.) Verification (4.) Review






2. (1.) Financial (2.) Customer (3.) Internal processes (4.) Innovation / Learning






3. The delivery of messages from one station to another via one or more networks.. Routes packets between networks.






4. Defines internal controls and provides guidance for assessing and improving internal control systems.






5. Contains programs that communicate directly with the end user.






6. (1.) Develop a BC Policy (2.) Conduct BIA (3.) Perform critical analysis (4.) Establish recovery targets (5.) Develop recovery and continuity strategies and plans (6.) Test recovery and continuity plans and procedures Train personnel Maintain strateg






7. To measure organizational performance and effectiveness against strategic goals.






8. (1.) TCP (2.) UDP






9. An active - instance of a server operating system running on a machine that is designed to house two or more such virtual servers.






10. A sampling technique where a population is divided into classes or strata - based upon the value of one of the attributes. Samples are then selected from each class.






11. Change Management includes a _____________ of six steps: (1.) Proposal or Request (2.) Review (3.) Approval (4.) Implementation (5.) Verification (6.) Post-change Review






12. To ensure that input values are within established ranges - of the correct character types - and free of harmful contents.






13. An auditor is examining a key management process and has found that the IT department is not following its split-custody procedure. As a result - Someone may be in possession of the _________________.






14. Application controls limit ___________ in three ways: (1.) Point of Entry (Input Controls) (2.) During consumption (process controls) (3.) At the point of expression (Output Controls)






15. An IS auditor is examining the IT standards document for an organization that was last reviewed two years earlier. The best course of action for the IS auditor is: Report that the ____________________________. Two years is far too long between revie






16. An estimate that expresses the percent of errors or exceptions that may exist in an entire population






17. Used to determine which business processes are the most critical - by ranking them in order of criticality






18. Describes the effect on the business if a process is incapacitated for any appreciable time






19. Aids in the coordinating of business processes using a sequence of three events -(1.) Business process creation (2.) Implementation (3.) Maintenance 3a. Benchmarking: Facilitates continuous improvement within the BPLC






20. An audit of an accounting system - accounting department processes - and procedures to determine if business controls are sufficient to ensure the integrity of financial statements.






21. The inventory of all in-scope business processes and systems






22. A critical application is backed up once per day. The recovery point objective (RPO) for an application that is backed up once per day cannot be ________.






23. (1.) Hardware Complement (physical specifications) (2.) Hardware Configuration (firmware settings) (3.) Operating system version and configuration (4.) Software versions and configuration






24. Must be tested to validate effectiveness through: (1.) Document Review (2.) Walkthrough (3.) Simulation (4.) Parallel testing (5.) Cutover testing practices






25. (1.) Statistical (2.) Judgmental (3.) Attribute (4.) Variable (5.) Stop-or-Go (6.) Discovery (7.) Stratified






26. ITIL term used to describe the SDLC.






27. In Release Management - _________________ means that each step of the release process undergoes formal review and approval before the next step is allowed to begin.






28. The probability that a sample selected actually represents the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage.






29. Disasters are generally grouped in terms of type: ______________.






30. A sampling technique where at least one exception is sought in a population






31. The party that performs strategic planning - addresses near-term and long-term requirements aligning business objectives - and technology strategies.






32. (1.) Observations (2.) Written Notes (3.) Correspondence (4.) Process and Procedure documentation (5.) Business records






33. The CPU has: (1.) Arithmetic Logic Unit (2.) ______________ (3.) a small amount of memory (usually in to form of registers)






34. The result of strategic planning - process development - and systems development - which all contribute towards a launch of business operations to reach a set of business objectives.






35. (1.) Reliable delivery (2.) Connection oriented (persistent connection) (3.) Order of Delivery (4.) Flow Control (transfer rate is throttled) (5.) Port Number






36. An organization that has experienced a sudden increase in its long-distance charges has asked an auditor to investigate. The auditor is most likely to suspect that intruders have discovered a ______________________and is committing toll fraud.


37. When several incidents have occurred that appear to have the same or a similar root cause - a PROBLEM is occurring.






38. (1.) Access controls (2.) Encryption (3.) Audit logging






39. A four-step quality control process known as PDSA - or PDCA. Steps: (1.) Plan (2.) Do (3.) Study (4.) Act






40. Any event which is not part of the standard operation of service and which causes or may cause an interruption to or reduction in quality of that service. Includes THREE incident types: (1.) Service Outage (2.) Service Slowdown (3.) Software Bug






41. Guide program execution through organization of resources and development of clear project objectives.






42. Subjective sampling is used when the auditor wants to _________________________.






43. The highest number of errors that can exist without a result being materially misstated.






44. Used to control connections that are established between systems (1.) TCP (2.) IPC (3.) SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) (4.) RPC (Remote Procedure Call) (5.) NetBIOS






45. A sampling technique used to permit sampling to stop at the earliest possible time. This technique is used when the auditor feels that there is a low risk or low rate of exceptions in the population.






46. Used to illustrate the relationship between planned activities. PERT diagrams show multiple routes through the project activities - as necessary for accomplishing a goal.






47. IT Governance is most concerned with ________.






48. To communication security policies - procedures - and other security-related information to an organization's employees.






49. PERT: shows the ______________ critical path.






50. Who is responsible for imposing an IT governance model encompassing IT strategy - information security - and formal enterprise architectural mandates?