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CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Use of a set of monitoring and review activities that confirm whether IS operations is providing service to its customers.






2. An organization that has experienced a sudden increase in its long-distance charges has asked an auditor to investigate. The auditor is most likely to suspect that intruders have discovered a ______________________and is committing toll fraud.

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3. One of a database table's fields - whose value is unique.






4. Handle application processing






5. Lowest layer. Delivers messages (frames) from one station to another vial local network.






6. An IS auditor needs to perform an audit of a financial system and needs to trace individual transactions through the system. What type of testing should the auditor perform?






7. The risk that a material error exists that will not be prevented or detected by the organization's control framework - The possibility that a process or procedure will be unable to prevent or deter serious errors and wrongdoing.






8. (1.) Feasibility (2.) Requirements (3.) Design (4.) Development (5.) Testing (6.) Implementation (7.) Post-implementation






9. A four-step quality control process known as PDSA - or PDCA. Steps: (1.) Plan (2.) Do (3.) Study (4.) Act






10. A representation of how closely a sample represents an entire population.






11. Concerned with electrical and physical specifications for devices. No frames or packets involved.






12. (1.) Access Control (2.) Change Management (3.) Security Controls (4.) Incident Management (5.) SDLC (6.) Source code and versioning controls (7.) Monitoring and logging (8.) Event Management






13. Information is arranged in frames and transported across the medium. Collision detection. Checksum verification of delivery.






14. The first major task in a disaster recovery or business continuity planning project.






15. The portion of IT management that tracks the financial value of IT services that support organizational objectives. It includes 4 activities: (1.) Budgeting (2.) Capital Investment (3.) Expense Management (4.) Project accounting and project ROI (Ret






16. A field in a record in one table that can reference a primary key in another table that can reference a primary key in another table.






17. The party that performs strategic planning - addresses near-term and long-term requirements aligning business objectives - and technology strategies.






18. An auditor is examining a key management process and has found that the IT department is not following its split-custody procedure. As a result - Someone may be in possession of the _________________.






19. (1.) Requirements (2.) Design (3.) Development (4.) Testing (5.) Release preparation (packaging) (6.) Release Deployment






20. A sampling technique where at least one exception is sought in a population






21. An organization is building a data center in an area frequented by power outages. The organization cannot tolerate power outages. The best _________________solution is an electric generator and an uninterruptible power supply. The UPS responds to the






22. (1.) LAN protocols (2.) 80 (2.) 11 MAC/LLC (WiFi) (3.) Common Carrier packet networks (4.) ARP (5.) PPP and SLIP (6.) Tunneling - PPTP - L2TP






23. Aids in the coordinating of business processes using a sequence of three events -(1.) Business process creation (2.) Implementation (3.) Maintenance 3a. Benchmarking: Facilitates continuous improvement within the BPLC






24. Used to determine which business processes are the most critical - by ranking them in order of criticality






25. An estimate that expresses the percent of errors or exceptions that may exist in an entire population






26. A sampling technique used to study the characteristics of a population to determine the numeric total of a specific attribute from the entire population.






27. Used to schedule and sequence activities in a waterfall-type representation. Planned activities are shown flowing downward to completion. More simplistic than a PERT Diagram.






28. Focuses on: maintaining service availability with the least disruption to standard operating parameters during an event






29. The process of recording the configuration of IT systems. Each configuration setting is known in ITSM parlance as a Configuration Item.






30. An organization has chosen to open a business office in another country where labor costs are lower and has hired workers to perform business functions there. - The organization is ___________ - while they may have opened the office in a foreign coun






31. (1.) Reliable delivery (2.) Connection oriented (persistent connection) (3.) Order of Delivery (4.) Flow Control (transfer rate is throttled) (5.) Port Number






32. Subjective sampling is used when the auditor wants to _________________________.






33. The highest number of errors that can exist without a result being materially misstated.






34. The primary source for test plans in a software development project is: ________________ that are developed for a project should be the primary source for detailed tests.






35. An active - instance of a server operating system running on a machine that is designed to house two or more such virtual servers.






36. Used to illustrate the relationship between planned activities. PERT diagrams show multiple routes through the project activities - as necessary for accomplishing a goal.






37. An audit of IS controls - security controls - or business controls to determine control existence and effectiveness.






38. (1.) Executive Summary (2.) Governance and control framework (3.) Control Objectives (4.) Management Guidelines (5.) Implementation Guide (6.) IT Assurance Guide






39. (1.) Authentication (2.) Authorization (3.) Change Management (4.) Completeness checks (5.) Validation checks (6.) Input controls (7.) Output controls (8.) Problem management (9.) Identification/access controls






40. Critical Path Methodology helps a project manager determine which activities are on a project's critical list - ________________________.






41. The 5 types of risks that are related to audits include: (1.) Control Risk (2.) Detection Risk (3.) Inherent risk (4.) _____________ (5.) Sampling risk






42. (1.) Developers (2.) Architects (3.) Analysts (4.) Users






43. The memory locations in the CPU where arithmetic values are stored.






44. The result of strategic planning - process development - and systems development - which all contribute towards a launch of business operations to reach a set of business objectives.






45. The probability that a sample selected actually represents the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage.






46. Consists of 11 distinct activities: (1.) Service Desk (2.) Incident Management (3.) Problem Management (4.) Change Management (5.) Configuration Management (6.) Release Management (7.) Service-level Management (8.) Financial Management (9.) Capacity






47. To review and approve proposed changes to systems and infrastructure. This helps to reduce the risk of unintended events and unplanned downtime.






48. The IS auditor should conduct a risk assessment first to determine which areas have highest risk. She should devote more testing resources to those high-risk areas.






49. (1.) Statistical (2.) Judgmental (3.) Attribute (4.) Variable (5.) Stop-or-Go (6.) Discovery (7.) Stratified






50. (1.) Utility (DNS - SNMP - DHCP (2.) Messaging protocols (SMTP) (3.) Data Transfer protocols (NFS - FTP) (4.) Interactive protocols (Telnet)







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Can you answer 50 questions in 15 minutes?


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