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CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. The risk that a material error exists that will not be prevented or detected by the organization's control framework - The possibility that a process or procedure will be unable to prevent or deter serious errors and wrongdoing.






2. The CPU has: (1.) Arithmetic Logic Unit (2.) ______________ (3.) a small amount of memory (usually in to form of registers)






3. An alternate processing center that contains no information processing equipment.






4. To review and approve proposed changes to systems and infrastructure. This helps to reduce the risk of unintended events and unplanned downtime.






5. An audit of an IS department's operations and systems.






6. An audit of IS controls - security controls - or business controls to determine control existence and effectiveness.






7. Outsourcing is an opportunity for the organization to focus on core competencies. When an organization oursources a business function - it no longer needs to be concerned about training employees in that function. Outsources does not always reduce co






8. Used to schedule and sequence activities in a waterfall-type representation. Planned activities are shown flowing downward to completion. More simplistic than a PERT Diagram.






9. An audit to determine the level and degree of compliance to a law - regulation - standard - contract provision - or internal control.






10. Change Management includes a _____________ of six steps: (1.) Proposal or Request (2.) Review (3.) Approval (4.) Implementation (5.) Verification (6.) Post-change Review






11. (1.) Executive Summary (2.) Governance and control framework (3.) Control Objectives (4.) Management Guidelines (5.) Implementation Guide (6.) IT Assurance Guide






12. Used to translate or transform data from lower layers into formats that the application layer can work with.






13. An IS auditor is auditing the change management process for a financial application. The auditor has two primary pieces of evidence: change logs and a written analysis of the change logs performed by a business analyst. The change log is best because






14. During the development phase - Developers should only be performing Unit Testing - to verify that the individual sections of code they have written are performing properly.






15. A computation of the variance of sample values from the sample mean. This is a measurement of the spread of values in a sample






16. A Fire sprinkler system has water in its pipes - and sprinkler heads emit water only if the ambient temperature reaches 220 deg. F. This is a ________________. The system is charged with water and will discharge water out of any sprinkler head whose






17. Consists of two main packet transport protocols: TCP and UDP.






18. A four-step quality control process known as PDSA - or PDCA. Steps: (1.) Plan (2.) Do (3.) Study (4.) Act






19. Contains programs that communicate directly with the end user.






20. A database administrator has been asked to configure a database management system so that it records all changes made by users - The DBA should implement ___________. This will cause the database to record every change that is made to it.






21. What activity involves the identification of potential risk and the appropriate response for each threat based on impact assessment using qualitative and/or quantitative measures for an enterprise-wide risk management strategy?






22. The primary source for test plans in a software development project is: ________________ that are developed for a project should be the primary source for detailed tests.






23. (1.) Physical (2.) Technical (4.) Administrative






24. (1.) Access controls (2.) Encryption (3.) Audit logging






25. The process to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes.






26. (1.) Financial (2.) Customer (3.) Internal processes (4.) Innovation / Learning






27. The portion of IT management that tracks the financial value of IT services that support organizational objectives. It includes 4 activities: (1.) Budgeting (2.) Capital Investment (3.) Expense Management (4.) Project accounting and project ROI (Ret






28. A collection of two or more servers that is designed to appear as a single server.






29. A software developer has informed the project manager that a portion of the application development is going to take five additional days to complete. The project manager make a __________________ to document the reason for the change.






30. An auditor has reviewed access privileges of some employees and has discovered that employees with longer terms of service have excessive privileges. This means User privileges are not being removed from their old position when they transfer to a new






31. Must be tested to validate effectiveness through: (1.) Document Review (2.) Walkthrough (3.) Simulation (4.) Parallel testing (5.) Cutover testing practices






32. The inventory of all in-scope business processes and systems






33. Used to measure the relative maturity of an organization and its processes.






34. A technique that is used to identify the most critical path in a project to understand which tasks are most likely to affect the project schedule.






35. (1.) Observations (2.) Written Notes (3.) Correspondence (4.) Process and Procedure documentation (5.) Business records






36. Requires that a password be broken into two or more parts - with each part in the possession of a separate person.






37. A large number of loosely coupled computers that are used to solve a common task may be in close proximity to each other or scattered over a large geographical area.






38. (1.) Feasibility (2.) Requirements (3.) Design (4.) Development (5.) Testing (6.) Implementation (7.) Post-implementation






39. A maturity model that represents the aggregations of other maturity models.






40. Used to determine which business processes are the most critical - by ranking them in order of criticality






41. A condition that is the result of multiple incidents that exhibit common symptoms e.g. A web application is displaying information incorrectly and many users have contacted the IT service desk.






42. (1.) Link (2.) Internet (3.) Transport (4.) Application






43. Concerns the reliability of data transfer between systems. (1.) Connection Oriented (2.) Guaranteed Delivery (3.) Order of Delivery






44. An organization wants to reduce the number of user IDs and passwords that its employees need to remember. The best available solution to this - _______________. This provides a single authentication service (such as LDAP or AD) that many applications






45. A programmer is updating an application that saves passwords in plaintext. In this case - Passwords should be stored in a _____. This makes it impossible for any person to retrieve a password - which could lead to account compromise.






46. The highest number of errors that can exist without a result being materially misstated.






47. PERT: shows the ______________ critical path.






48. Who is responsible for imposing an IT governance model encompassing IT strategy - information security - and formal enterprise architectural mandates?






49. A tightly coupled collection of computers that are used to solve a common task. One or more actively perform tasks - while zero or more may be in a standby state.






50. A sampling technique used to permit sampling to stop at the earliest possible time. This technique is used when the auditor feels that there is a low risk or low rate of exceptions in the population.