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CISA: Certified Information Systems Auditor

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. An IS auditor is examining the IT standards document for an organization that was last reviewed two years earlier. The best course of action for the IS auditor is: Report that the ____________________________. Two years is far too long between revie






2. An audit that is performed in support of an anticipated or active legal proceeding.






3. An organization has discovered that some of its employees have criminal records. The best course of action for the organization to take - The organization should have ___________________ on all of its existing employees and also begin instituting bac






4. The first major task in a disaster recovery or business continuity planning project.






5. Critical Path Methodology helps a project manager determine which activities are on a project's critical list - ________________________.






6. Support the functioning of the application controls






7. (1.) Observations (2.) Written Notes (3.) Correspondence (4.) Process and Procedure documentation (5.) Business records






8. A CMM helps an organization to _______________ - which is an important first step to any large-scale process improvement effort.






9. Collections of Controls that work together to achieve an entire range of an organization's objectives.






10. A computer uses RAM for several purposes: (1.) Operating System - to store info regarding running processes (2.) ____________ - that are used to temporarily store information retrieved from hard disks (3.) Storage of program code (4.) Storage of prog






11. A maturity model that represents the aggregations of other maturity models.






12. Gantt: used to display ______________.






13. Who is responsible for imposing an IT governance model encompassing IT strategy - information security - and formal enterprise architectural mandates?






14. The primary source for test plans in a software development project is: ________________ that are developed for a project should be the primary source for detailed tests.






15. A sampling technique where a population is divided into classes or strata - based upon the value of one of the attributes. Samples are then selected from each class.






16. Lowest layer. Delivers messages (frames) from one station to another vial local network.






17. IS auditors can _____________________ through the following means: (1.) training courses (2.) webinars (3.) ISACA chapter training events (4.) Industry conferences






18. Consists of 11 distinct activities: (1.) Service Desk (2.) Incident Management (3.) Problem Management (4.) Change Management (5.) Configuration Management (6.) Release Management (7.) Service-level Management (8.) Financial Management (9.) Capacity






19. Deliver messages from one station to another on the same network or on different networks. Messaging at this layer is not guaranteed.






20. What type of testing is performed to verify the accuracy and integrity of transactions as they flow through a system?






21. Defines internal controls and provides guidance for assessing and improving internal control systems.






22. A sampling technique where at least one exception is sought in a population






23. Aids in the coordinating of business processes using a sequence of three events -(1.) Business process creation (2.) Implementation (3.) Maintenance 3a. Benchmarking: Facilitates continuous improvement within the BPLC






24. The probability that a sample selected does not represent the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage - as the numeric inverse of the confidence coefficient.






25. ITIL term used to describe the SDLC.






26. (1.) Avoidance (2.) Transfer (3.) Mitigation (4.) Acceptance






27. (1.) Developers (2.) Architects (3.) Analysts (4.) Users






28. Used for several types of system changes: (1.) Incidents and problem resolution (bug fixes.) (2.) Enhancements (new functionality.) (3.) Subsystem patches and changes (require testing similar to when changes are made to the application itself.)






29. The probability that a sample selected does not represent the entire population. This is usually expressed as a percentage - the numeric inverse of the confidence coefficient






30. A programmer is updating an application that saves passwords in plaintext. In this case - Passwords should be stored in a _____. This makes it impossible for any person to retrieve a password - which could lead to account compromise.






31. Use of a set of monitoring and review activities that confirm whether IS operations is providing service to its customers.






32. A sampling technique where items are chosen based upon the auditor's judgment - usually based on risk or materiality.






33. Application controls limit ___________ in three ways: (1.) Point of Entry (Input Controls) (2.) During consumption (process controls) (3.) At the point of expression (Output Controls)






34. (1.) Authentication (2.) Authorization (3.) Change Management (4.) Completeness checks (5.) Validation checks (6.) Input controls (7.) Output controls (8.) Problem management (9.) Identification/access controls






35. (1.) General (2.) Application






36. Individual events may often create combined threats to enterprise operations: A tornado might also spawn ____________________.






37. A database administrator has been asked to configure a database management system so that it records all changes made by users - The DBA should implement ___________. This will cause the database to record every change that is made to it.






38. Requires that a password be broken into two or more parts - with each part in the possession of a separate person.






39. A technique that is used to select a portion of a population when it is not feasible to test an entire population.






40. Any event which is not part of the standard operation of service and which causes or may cause an interruption to or reduction in quality of that service. Includes THREE incident types: (1.) Service Outage (2.) Service Slowdown (3.) Software Bug






41. Used to schedule and sequence activities in a waterfall-type representation. Planned activities are shown flowing downward to completion. More simplistic than a PERT Diagram.






42. Must be tested to validate effectiveness through: (1.) Document Review (2.) Walkthrough (3.) Simulation (4.) Parallel testing (5.) Cutover testing practices






43. The portion of IT management that tracks the financial value of IT services that support organizational objectives. It includes 4 activities: (1.) Budgeting (2.) Capital Investment (3.) Expense Management (4.) Project accounting and project ROI (Ret






44. Used to control connections that are established between systems (1.) TCP (2.) IPC (3.) SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) (4.) RPC (Remote Procedure Call) (5.) NetBIOS






45. An organization experiences frequent malware infections on end-user workstations that are received through email - despite the tact that workstations have anti-virus software. To reducing malware - Implementing ________________ will provide an effect






46. An audit of an IS department's operations and systems.






47. In Release Management - _________________ means that each step of the release process undergoes formal review and approval before the next step is allowed to begin.






48. Contains programs that communicate directly with the end user.






49. An audit that combines an operational audit and a financial audit.






50. Delivery of packets from one station to another - on the same network or on different networks.