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Test your basic knowledge |
Clinical Surgery
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
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health-sciences
,
surgery
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Which normal tissues are particularly affected by radiotherapy?
Unhealthy -necrotic and infected tissue - Irradiated tissue - Exposed cortical bone without periosteum - Tendon without peritendon - Cartilage without perichondrium
Non-Surgical - mechanical pressure therapy(day and night for up to 1 year) and topical silicone gel sheets - Surgical : Revision of scar with closure by direct suturing - local Z-plasty or skin grafting to avoid excessive tension - Intralesional ster
Stool tests: Stool Culture - in new cases of IBD to exclude infection - Blood tests - Full blood count - may show anemia and leukocytosis - Electrolytes may show evidence of dehydration or hypokalemia - Liver function tests - CRP and ESR may be raise
Tissues with rapid turnover(epidermal layers of the skin - small intestine - bone marrow stem cells) - Tissues with a limited ability to repopulate(spinal cord and gonads)
2. What is the mean age for presentation of follicular carcinoma of the thyroid?
Thyroidectomy
It is known also as auriculotemporal syndrome and it brings about increased sweating of the facial skin when eating - due to reinnervation of the divided sympathetic nerves to the facial skin by fibres of the secretomotor branch of the auriculotempor
Least common - Occurs on hairless skin - Irregular area of brown or black pigmentation
Mean age is 50 years at presentation(F for fifty)
3. What are multiple -painful lipomas known as?
4. What side effect would you warn this patient about if considering cervical sympathectomy?
5. What are the treatment options available for Basal Cell Carcinoma?
Bright-red raised strawberry-like lesion - Present from birth - but 60% undergo spontaneous resolution by the age of 3 years - Only treated if obscuring a visual field or spontaneous resolution not occurring.
Non-Surgical : leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Surgical : Indicated only if malignant growth suspected; post-excision - local regrowth is common as neurofibromata cannot be surgically detached from underlying n
Tumours raised above the skin : excision with 0.5cm margin(maximum) - Tumours not raised above the skin - Wider margin of excision - particularly if at inner canthus of eye -nasolabial fold and ear. A frozen section may be necessary to ensure adequat
Resection of a lobe including its bronchial origin with re-anastamosis of the proximal and distal bronchus
6. What kinds of analgesia would be appropriate for this patient?
A enterocutaneous fistula is an abnormal connection between the gastrointestinal tract and the skin
Autosomal recessive - 1 in 5000 to 40000 - Chromosome 6 is affected - It presents perinatally
Hepatitis - Decompensated chronic liver disease - Drugs
Ischaemic ulcers can be extremely painful and even removing the bandages from around the ulcer can cause pain that lasts for several hours. The analgesic ladder would be appropriate in this situation starting from simple oral agents -stronger oral ag
7. What are the two main classifications for thyroid enlargement?
Diffuse enlargement - smooth or nodular - Solitary nodule
Multiple telangiectasia around the mouth and on the tongue and lips
Derived from capillary endothelial cells or from fibrous tissue - It is linked to human herpes virus 8
A lipoma is a benign tumour consisting of mature fat cells.
8. What is Frey's syndrome?
It helps to give an indication as to What the exact aetiology is.
It is known also as auriculotemporal syndrome and it brings about increased sweating of the facial skin when eating - due to reinnervation of the divided sympathetic nerves to the facial skin by fibres of the secretomotor branch of the auriculotempor
A pyogenic granuloma is a rapidly growing capillary haemangioma whic usually measures less than 1cm in diameter
A horizontal ellipse of stretched supra or infra-umbilical skin is excised - deeping the incision to the rectus sheath and identifying the fibrous band Which is the neck of the sac - The sac is dissected free from the surrounding tissues - which may
9. What complication can neurofibromata give rise to?
Pressure effects - Deafness with involvement of the 8th cranial nerve - Sarcomatous transformation - Intra-abdominal effects - Skeletal changes
Refers to congenital disease or primary lymphatic failure. It is three times more common in women and the pathology originates from within the lymphatics. It is also known as Milroys disease.
Left spermatic vein is more vertical where it connects to the left renal vein - The left renal vein can be compressed by the colon - The left testicular vein is longer than the right - It frequently lack a terminal valve which serves to try to preven
Debridement of dead tissue which can be performed by the tissue viability nurse since it does not require anaesthesia and reconstruction using a variety of fascial and muscle-containing composite flaps.
10. What is the classification used in the definition of severe exarcerbation of inflammatory bowel disease?
A branchial cyst is thought to develop because of a failure of fusion of the embryonic second and third branchial arches. An alternative - and currently - popular - hypothesis is that it is an acquired condition due to cystic degeneration in cervical
Truelove classification - Gastrointestinal symptoms : passage of bloody stools more than 6 times per day - Systemic signs : tachycardia and pyrexia - Laboratory findings : anaemia and CRP more than 30
True cysts with a complete smooth wall are very rare - Most are composite lesions with colloid degeneration - necrosis or haemorrhage in benign or malignant tumours - Only benign if completely abolished by aspiration - Cytology can be false-negative
Three arteries - artery to vas deferens -testicular artery -cremasteric artery - Three nerves - ilioinguinal nerve on the front of the cord - nerve to cremaster and autonomic nerves - Three other structures - vas deferens - pampiniform plexus of vein
11. What is a useful mneumonic to remember what you have to present when examining a lump or swelling?
The commonest presentation is a painless lump or a dull ache in one testis in a young man - Occasionally there is a history of trauma accompanying the discovery of the mass - 10% present with an acutely painful testis - If para-aortic nodes have beco
The tumour arises from epidermal cells that normally migrate to the skin surface to form the superficial keratinizing squamous layer. Full-thickness epidermal atypia is seen and tumour cells are seen to extend in all directions into the deep dermis a
History and Clinical Examination - Investigate if prominent nodule or features suspicious of malignancy such as cervical lymphadenopathy or recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
Should The Children Ever Find Lumps Readily
12. How does radiotherapy work?
High-energy X-rays interact with tissues to release electrons of high kinetic energy - which cause secondary damage to adjacent DNA via an oxygen-dependent mechanism. The damage is either repairable or non-repairable - the latter manifesting itself a
Unilateral - Bilateral
Hands and Eyes
Cardiac failure - Tricuspid regurgitation - Constrictive pericarditis
13. What are the main features of neuropathic ulcers?
Hyperthyroidism - Recurrent - Hypothyroidism - Hypertrophic scarring
Painless - Associated with normal appearance of the surrounding skin - Associated with local sensory loss
Non-surgical - same as in incisional hernia with possible investigations : LFTs - H.pylori serology and Upper GI endoscopy
Peripheral Neuropathy
14. From which cells does Medullary carcinoma arise from?
Pleomorphic adenoma(commonest) and Warthin's tumour
Leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Intervene only when extensive or for cosmetic reasons with local radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy using interferon-alpha -doxorubicin and intralesional vinblastine.
Angiolipomas - Hibernomas - Bannayan-Zonana Syndrome
Parafollicular C Cells
15. What are the contents of the spermatic cord?
Familial e.g 'hazel nails' - pachydermoperiostitis - Graves' disease - Unilaterally seen in axillary artery aneurysm and brachial arteriovenous malformation
Epidermal Cyst - Trichilemmal Cyst
Non-Surgical : leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Surgical : Indicated only if malignant growth suspected; post-excision - local regrowth is common as neurofibromata cannot be surgically detached from underlying n
Three arteries - artery to vas deferens -testicular artery -cremasteric artery - Three nerves - ilioinguinal nerve on the front of the cord - nerve to cremaster and autonomic nerves - Three other structures - vas deferens - pampiniform plexus of vein
16. What are the seven 'D's of nipple signs?
Essentially to treat complications not amenable to medical therapy such as:Intra-abdominal abscesses that cannot be drained radiologically - Enterocutaneous fistulae - Stenosis causing obstructive symptoms - Control of acute/chronic bleeding
Commonest form of thyroid abnormality - Secondary to hyperplasia of the gland to meet physiological demand for thyroxine - Secondary to defective production of thyroid hormone
Plasma alpha feto-protein and beta-HCG - raised levels may indicate a testicular tumor - Testosterone and LH levels to demonstrate hypogonadism - Thyroid function tests
Discolouration - Discharge - Depression - Deviation - Displacement - Destruction - [Duplication - unlikely in the exam]
17. What are the treatment options available for Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the skin?
18. What are the two main types of aetiologies in the differential diagnosis of a unilateral swelling of the parotid gland?
Arising inside the parotid gland - Arising outside the parotid gland
Look - Feel - Press - Move - Listen - Transilluminate and Examine Surrounding Areas.
The tumour arises from epidermal cells that normally migrate to the skin surface to form the superficial keratinizing squamous layer. Full-thickness epidermal atypia is seen and tumour cells are seen to extend in all directions into the deep dermis a
Epigastric pain - which may increase after meals - May be acutely painful after physical exercise - Nausea and early satiety - Reflux and non-ulcer dyspepsia
19. What do you know about simple colloid goitres?
Unilateral total lobectomy and isthmusectomy
Commonest form of thyroid abnormality - Secondary to hyperplasia of the gland to meet physiological demand for thyroxine - Secondary to defective production of thyroid hormone
White lines and streaks inside the mouth
Use of truss or corset - Weight loss and management of other risk factors
20. What are the signs in the mouth of Peutz-Jegher disease?
Increased sweating - Palmar erythema - Thyroid acropachy - Onycholysis - Areas of vitiligo - Pulse - Fine Tremor
Hyperthyroidism - Late Hypothyroidism - Later Hyperparathyroidism
Occurs most often on the legs of women and the backs of men - Red -white and blue in colour - Irregular edge - Usually palpable but thin
Pigmented freckles around the lips and inside the mouth - associated with intestinal intussusception and gastrointestinal bleeding from colonic polyps
21. What is the aim of the tourniquet test?
True aneurysms are uncommon and are generally caused by atherosclerosis - and occasionally by dissection -trauma -previous carotid surgery or infection - When a true aneurysm has been excluded - the patient can be reassured and discharged. - Dilated
The tourniquet test is designed to reveal the presence and site of incompetent veins - especially at the sites of connection between the superficial and deep venous systems.
Found above the inguinal ligament - Usually reducible - Commoner in males - 6:1 - Risk of strangulation is low - Cough impulse present
Procedure usually performed as a day case - Need to wear tight-fitting stockings for 6 weeks preoperatively - No driving for 1 week - Does not alter the skin changes - including skin flares - May not improve symptoms such as aching - Risk of recurren
22. What are the causes of facial nerve palsy?
Intracranial - Intratemporal - Extratemporal
The incompetent vein is at or above the level of the tourniquet
Stroke is the third leading cause of death in the west and 85% of strokes are thromboembolic - caused by atherosclerosis at the carotid bifurcation or proximal (2-3cm) internal carotid artery.
Subtotal colectomy with ileostomy plus or minus mucous fistula formation in acute severe colitis - Proctocolectomy and permanent ileostomy when the patient chooses or if patient not suitable for a restorative procedure - Restorative proctocolectomy W
23. What are the main points to be elicited during a clerking of the surgical patient?
VINTA MEDIC - Vascular - Iatrogenic - Neoplastic - Traumatic - Autoimmune - Metabolic - Endocrine - Degenerative - Inflammatory/Infective - Congenital
Demographics - Presenting Complaint - History of Presenting Complaint - Medical and Surgical History - Drugs and any other allergies - Family History - Social History - Systemic Enquiry
Commonest in children and young adults(P for Paediatric)
The two main differential diagnoses to consider are; Benign - keratoacanthoma - especially if it is sloughing at its centre - Malignant -Squamous cell carcinoma - particularly the nodulo-ulcerative type with a rolled edge
24. What are the venous symptoms in thoracic outlet obstruction more commonly due to?
Axillary vein thrombosis - Damage to axillary drainage following surgery such as axillary dissection in breast surgery
Intracranial - Intratemporal - Extratemporal
Reduction of the contents of the sac - Excision of the sac - Repair of the defect - taking care not to narrow the femoral vein while tightening up the femoral canal
Anaesthesia is more complicated because of the increased risk of stroke - In addition - patients with AF may be anticoagulated and if on warfarin - this medication needs to be discontinued prior to elective surgery - Patients with controlled AF may d
25. What is a sinus?
Lymphangiomas can be:Cystic - Solid or diffuse - Cutaneous
They are known as adiposis dolorosa or Dercum's disease.
The protein content of a sample of effusion fluid is measured and the classification depends on this value:Transudate is equal to a protein value of less than 30g/L - Exudate is equal to a protein value of more than 30g/L
A blind-ending track -typically lined by epithelial or granulation tissue - which opens onto an epithelial surface
26. Why are 98% of varicocoeles left-side?
Left spermatic vein is more vertical where it connects to the left renal vein - The left renal vein can be compressed by the colon - The left testicular vein is longer than the right - It frequently lack a terminal valve which serves to try to preven
Diabetic neuropathy and peripheral occlusive arterial disease are the major aetiological factors for the development of ulceration and may act alone - together or in combination with other factors such as microvascular disease - biomechanical abnorma
Liver Cirrhosis - Inflammatory Bowel disease - Malabsorption - Gastrointestinal lymphoma
Scar confined to wound margins - It is found across flexor surfaces and skin creases
27. What is the differential diagnosis of swollen legs?
Bronchial carcionoma - Chronic suppurative lung disease(abscess -bronchiectasis -cystic fibrosis -empyema) - Fibrosing alveolitis - Mesothelioma
Ligation of the incompetent SFJ or SPJ with stripping of the involved vein and stab avulsion of varicosities - Ligation of incompetent perforating vessels - Subcutaneous endoscopic perforator surgery
Mnemonic : NO SPECS - No signs or symptoms - Only signs of upper lid retraction and stare - with or without lid lag and exopthalmos - Soft-tissue involvement - Proptosis - Exopthalmos - Corneal Involvement - Slight loss due to optic nerve involvemen
Central causes - RHF - hypoalbuminaemia -nephrotic syndrome and hypothyroidism - Peripheral - venous disease such as DVT - Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome - chronic venous insufficiency or post-phlebitic limb - Rare - angio-oedema - arteriovenous malforma
28. What do patients with rest pain typically get more severe pain at night?
The pain is caused by a reduced blood supply to the distal aspects of the limb. The pain gets worse at night because the perfusion of the limb is further reduced when the patient is lying down - This is due to: Decreased cardiac output at night - Red
Mneumonic : BEDD - Base - Edge - Describe structure visualized at the base of the ulcer - Discharge
More worrying features for a tumour would include: Thick or irregular wall - Extensive calcification within the cavity or wall of the cyst - Multilocular cysts
Site and size of varicosities - including the presence of saphena varix - Skin for changes and scars - Swelling of the ankle
29. What are the congenital predisposing factors for basal cell carcinoma?
30. What is the causes of the carotid artery aneurysms?
True aneurysms are uncommon and are generally caused by atherosclerosis - and occasionally by dissection -trauma -previous carotid surgery or infection - When a true aneurysm has been excluded - the patient can be reassured and discharged. - Dilated
Superior thyroid artery - Inferior thyroid artery - Thyroidea ima(in 3% of people)
Cervical sympathectomy and amputation of the affected phalanges - Cervical sympathectomy may not be a permanent solution and may only relieve symptoms for 2 years or less - Amputate only if digits are threatened with gangrene
They are known as adiposis dolorosa or Dercum's disease.
31. What are the features of an indirect inguinal hernia?
Remnants of a patent processus vaginalis - Arise from the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels at operation - passing obliquely through the deep inguinal ring and travelling along the inguinal canal with the spermatic cord - Ma
20%
Tenderness over the graft - Reduction in urine output - Rising creatinine
General - Specific
32. What are the indications for splenectomy?
Treatment with radiotherapy and doxorubicin gives best survival of 1 year
It can be classified according to cause: Malignancy - Infections - e.g filiaris - tuberculosis - Post Surgery or Radiotherapy - axillary dissection in breast surgery and inguinal irradiation
A keratoacanthoma is a benign overgrowth of hair follicle cells that produces a central plug of keratin. It is rapidly growing - forming within 6 weeks and regressing after 6 weeks - leaving a depressed scar. Clinically and cytologically they may loo
Trauma - Hypersplenism
33. What will you observe on angiography of a chemodectoma?
Thyroid function tests - hyperthyroid - Ultrasound - dimensions of goitre and nodules looking for dominant nodules or cysts for FNAC - Chest X-ray as a retrosternal goitre may compress the trachea
A hypervascular mas displacing the bifurcation of the carotid arteries
Raynaud's phenomenon - Thrombangiitis obliterans - Takayasu's arteritis
Defined as portal vein pressure of more than 10mmHg(normal 5-10). Portal blood flow through the liver is greatly reduced or even reversed in the most severe cases
34. What is neurofibromatosis?
Unhealthy -necrotic and infected tissue - Irradiated tissue - Exposed cortical bone without periosteum - Tendon without peritendon - Cartilage without perichondrium
Causes may be classified as the 3 Ps: Physiological - Pathological - decreased androgens - androgen resistance - increased secretion -increased peripheral aromatization - Potions that is drugs such as recreational drugs - GI drugs - cardiovascular dr
History - Examination - Special Investigations - Treatment
Presence of multiple neurofibromas in a patient - in combination with other dermatological manifestations(six cafe-au-lait psots) - It is an autosomal dominant condition with two types: 1 and 2.
35. What are the questions that should be asked when taking a history for a lump or ulcer?
Gumma of tertiary syphillis has a typical punched-out ulcer - over the anterior surface of the lower leg and has a yellow coloured 'wash leather' base. - Scalloped border
Cardiac and respiratory disease should be controlled first - Other risk-factors should be optimized - Preoperative weight loss should be encourage
Onset and Continuous Symptoms - When did you first notice it? - What made you notice it? - Predisposing events? - How does it bother you? - What symptoms does it cause? - Has it changed since you first noticed it ? - Have you noticed any other lumps?
Epigastric pain - which may increase after meals - May be acutely painful after physical exercise - Nausea and early satiety - Reflux and non-ulcer dyspepsia
36. When are spider naevi considered to be pathological?
Mnemonic : PS : PLS C TiT - Pharyngeal pouch - Sublingual dermoid cyst - Plunging ranula - Lymph nodes - Subhyoid bursa - Ca - larynx/trachea/oesophagus - Thyroglossal cyst - Thyroid swelling
Refers to congenital disease or primary lymphatic failure. It is three times more common in women and the pathology originates from within the lymphatics. It is also known as Milroys disease.
More than five is considered as pathological in chronic liver disease
Occurs most often on the legs of women and the backs of men - Red -white and blue in colour - Irregular edge - Usually palpable but thin
37. What is the difference in the clinical course of hypertrophic and keloid scars?
Emergency procedures e.g following penetrating chest trauma - Cardiac surgery - Resection of lung cancer
Hypertrophic scars tend to appear soon after injury and usually regress spontaneously - while keloid scars appear months after injury and continue to grow
Primary Raynauds is due to vasomotor malformation - Secondary Raynauds occurs as a consequence of pathology affecting the vessel wall
Jaundice is yellow discolouration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by the accumulation of bile pigments.
38. Which are the gastrointestinal causes of clubbing?
Infections within the oesophagus especially candidiasis and herpes simplex - Pharyngitis - Occasionally ulceration over the lower third of the oesophagus
White lines and streaks inside the mouth
Liver Cirrhosis - Inflammatory Bowel disease - Malabsorption - Gastrointestinal lymphoma
Investigation and treatment of concurrent abnormalities - Management of hypertension
39. How may pleural effusions be classified?
The protein content of a sample of effusion fluid is measured and the classification depends on this value:Transudate is equal to a protein value of less than 30g/L - Exudate is equal to a protein value of more than 30g/L
It is due to development inclusion of epidermis along lines of fusion of skin dermatomes and are therefore commonly at: The medial and lateral ends of the eyebrows - The midline of the nose - The midline of the neck and trunk - Suspect if you see a c
Barrett's oesophagus - Stricture especially chemical - Achalasia - Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
Extrahepatic : caused by increased resistance to flow e.g : portal or splenic vein thrombosis - Intrahepatic : due to cirrhosis - right heart failure - sarcoidosis and schistosomiasis(the latter is the most important cause worldwide - ova of the para
40. How would you perform an ascitic tap?
A dermoid cyst is a skin-lined cyst deep to the skin. They may be congenital or acquired.
Mneumonic : I - CHUM - Infection(frequent) - Calcification - Ulceration - sebaceous Horn formation - Malignant change
Third cranial nerve palsy - complete ptosis - Horner's syndrome - partial ptosis - Syphillis
The procedure should be performed under sterile condition and if the ascites is not clinically apparent or easy to locate - it should be done by a radiologist under ultrasound guidance to prevent inadvertent injuries to intra-abdominal structures.
41. What are the 3 objectives that one should look out for in the inspection of varicose veins?
Investigation and treatment of concurrent abnormalities - Management of hypertension
Collagen antibodies are present in 45% of patients - There is an association with HLA-B5 - Angiography has typical appearances of normal proximal vessels with distal occlusion and 'corkscrew' collaterals.
Motor - Secretomotor - Taste - Sensory
Site and size of varicosities - including the presence of saphena varix - Skin for changes and scars - Swelling of the ankle
42. What is the differential diagnosis of a lump in the groin?
A blind-ending track -typically lined by epithelial or granulation tissue - which opens onto an epithelial surface
Mnemonic : L-SHAPE - Lymph node/Lipoma of the cord - Sapheno-varix/Skin lesions(sebaceous cyst/lipoma -etc) - Hernia - inguinal or femoral - Aneurysmal dilatation of the femoral artery - Psoas abscess or bursa - Ectopic/undescended testes
Mnemonic: SNAiL - Superficial spreading - Nodular melanoma - Acral lentiginous melanoma - Lentigo maligna melanoma
The two main differential diagnoses to consider are; Benign - keratoacanthoma - especially if it is sloughing at its centre - Malignant -Squamous cell carcinoma - particularly the nodulo-ulcerative type with a rolled edge
43. What is acanthosis nigricans associated with?
44. What other investigations can be done for Sjogren's syndrome?
45. Under what circumstances would patients (with popliteal aneurysms) they be treated?
Surgery is indicated for: Symptomatic aneurysms - Those containing thrombus - Those greater than 2cm
Situations where skin grafts will not take - When the aim is to reconstruct the tissue that is 'like-for-like'(bone -joint -tendon -nerve -epithelial lining -etc) to promote optimal structure - function and cosmesis - When blood supply has to be impo
The aorta is narrowed below the origin of the left subclavian artery and therefore blood flow to the abdomen and legs is reduced - The prominent vessels over the back are large collateral that have developed to bypass the obstruction and supply the l
Well-differentiated - Myxoid and round cell - Pleomorphic liposarcoma
46. What are the causes of gynaecomastia?
Mnemonic : L-SHAPE - Lymph node/Lipoma of the cord - Sapheno-varix/Skin lesions(sebaceous cyst/lipoma -etc) - Hernia - inguinal or femoral - Aneurysmal dilatation of the femoral artery - Psoas abscess or bursa - Ectopic/undescended testes
Causes may be classified as the 3 Ps: Physiological - Pathological - decreased androgens - androgen resistance - increased secretion -increased peripheral aromatization - Potions that is drugs such as recreational drugs - GI drugs - cardiovascular dr
Mechanical obstruction - Coordination abnormalities
A keratoacanthoma is a benign overgrowth of hair follicle cells that produces a central plug of keratin. It is rapidly growing - forming within 6 weeks and regressing after 6 weeks - leaving a depressed scar. Clinically and cytologically they may loo
47. How should epididymal cysts be managed?
Urine cytology -blood tests would be expected to be normal and a renal ultrasound scan which shows a cyst with a smooth outline -sharply defined thin wall and no internal echoes(which imply solid components)
Non-surgical - if the cyst is not troublesome - it should not be removed - especially in younger men - because there is risk of operative damage and postoperative fibrosis causing subfertility - Surgical - very large or painful cysts can be removed a
Arises in a lentigo maligna - Occurs most often on the face or dorsum of the hands and forearms - Underlying lesion is flat and brown-to-black in colour with an irregular outline - Malignant area in the lesion is usually thicker - and darker in colou
It is known also as auriculotemporal syndrome and it brings about increased sweating of the facial skin when eating - due to reinnervation of the divided sympathetic nerves to the facial skin by fibres of the secretomotor branch of the auriculotempor
48. What are the main aetiologies in diffuse enlargement of the thryoid?
Duration and change in size - Cosmetic symptoms - Discomfort during swallowing/dysphagia - Dyspnoea - Hoarseness - Pain
Complete excision to include the neck of the ganglion at its site of origin
Onset and Continuous Symptoms - When did you first notice it? - What made you notice it? - Predisposing events? - How does it bother you? - What symptoms does it cause? - Has it changed since you first noticed it ? - Have you noticed any other lumps?
Multinodular goitre - Toxic - Simple colloid goitre - Thyroiditis - Neoplasia
49. What is the differential diagnosis of an epigastric mass?
The incompetent vein is below the level of the tourniquest
Arising from the skin and soft tissues - sebaceous cysts -sarcoma -lipoma -epigastric hernia - Arising from the gastrointestinal tract - carcinoma of the stomach -hepatomegaly -pancreatic ca - pancreatic pseudocyst - Arising from the vascular system
Benign skin lesion: Keratoacanthoma - Infected seborrhoeic wart - Solar keratoses - Pyogenic Granuloma - Malignant skin lesion - Basal cell carcinoma - Malingnant melanoma - Congenital: Xeroderma pigmentosum - Acquired - Environmental agents - Pre-ex
Non-surgical : can be left alone on patient's wishes as it is a benign lesion - Surgical : as the keratoses lies above the level of the surrounding normal epidermis - it can be treated by superficial shaving or cautery.
50. What are the three basic questions that need to be asked in a peripheral arterial system history?
Non-surgical : can be left alone on patient's wishes as it is a benign lesion - Surgical : as the keratoses lies above the level of the surrounding normal epidermis - it can be treated by superficial shaving or cautery.
Loss of hair on outer-third of eyebrows - Lid retraction - Lid lag - Ophthalmoplegia - Exophthalmos - Chemosis - Proptosis
Anxiety - Hyperthyroidism - Hyperhidrosis erythematosus traumatica - Phaeochromocytoma
Vascular symptoms - Risk factors for arterial disease - Fitness for surgery