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Test your basic knowledge |
Clinical Surgery
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Study First
Subjects
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health-sciences
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surgery
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
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Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What are the general complications of a stoma?
Sunlight - Carcinogens - Previous radiotherapy - Malignant transformation in pre-existing skin lesion
Simple inversion and oversewing(diverticulopexy) - as pouch is left in situ - risk of missing a possible diverticular carcinoma - or diverticulectomy.
Stoma diarrhoea - related to water and electrolyte imbalances - hypokalemia being the commonest and most important consequence - Nutritional disorders - Stones - both gall stones and renal stones increase in frequency following an ileostomy - Psychos
Excision of a single lobe of the lung
2. What surgical options are available in the management of cervical lymphadenopathy?
Open lymph node excision biopsy - Block dissection of the neck - Radical Neck Dissection
Patient preference - Clinical evidence of multifocal/multicentric disease - Large lump is small breast tissue - this depends of the size of the breast but often defined as a lump more than 4cm - Large area ( more than 4cm) ductal carcinoma in situ -
malignant change?
This is the array of plastic surgeon techniques of increasing complexity that is available to the surgeon and Which is used according to their suitability for individual patients
3. What are the features of nodular melanoma?
Second most common type - Occurs most often on the trunk - Polypoid in shape and is raised - Smooth surface - Irregular edge - Frequently ulcerated
It is a point halfway along a line joining the ASIS and the midline Which is equal to the location of femoral artery
Inflammation : inflammatory bowel disease -especially Crohn's disease - Diverticular disease - tuberculosis - Malignancy : Often following spontaneous rupture and abscess formation by the tumour - Radiotherapy : Pelvic irradiation can damage the inte
May affect people from puberty to 30 years - Females are more affected than males - Black and Hispanic Races are effected the most.
4. What are the causes of massive splenomegaly?
Myelofibrosis - Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia - Malaria - Tropical splenomegaly - Kala-azar(visceral leishmaniasis)
Cardiac failure - Tricuspid regurgitation - Constrictive pericarditis
Hepatitis - Decompensated chronic liver disease - Drugs
Some surgeons would advocate that all patients should undergo Duplex scanning of the leg veins before any surgery is undertaken. Others would consider indications to be: Previous history of deep vein thrombosis - Any signs of chronic venous insuffici
5. What are the signs of chronic venous insufficiency?
Regular skin inspection - Frequent turning of immobile patients( 2 to 4 hourly) - Massage - Toileting - The use of special mattresses and cushion which redistribute the pressure on at-risk areas
Mnemonic : LEGS - Lipodermatosclerosis - Eczema - Gaps in the skin i.e ulceration - active and healed - Swelling - pedal oedema
Preoperative - Age -Immunocompromised state -obesity -malignancy -abdominal distension from obstruction or ascites - Operate - Poor technical closure of the wound -placing drains through wounds - Postoperative - wound infection or haematoma - early m
90% of lung resections in the Western world are performed for bronchial carcinoma. Other indications include traumatic injury - bronchiectasis - chronic infection including tuberculosis - benign tumours e.g carcinoid and metastatic tumour
6. Where does a liposarcoma arise from?
Retro-orbital inflammation and lymphocytic infiltration leading to oedema and an increase in retrobulbar orbital contents
Almost all are follicular adenomas - Usually 2 to 4 cm and encapsulated at presentation - Indistinguishable from carcinomas on FNAC - as the presence of a capsule cannot be demonstrated - Surgical excision is needed to confirm diagnosis
It arises de novo
Arises in a lentigo maligna - Occurs most often on the face or dorsum of the hands and forearms - Underlying lesion is flat and brown-to-black in colour with an irregular outline - Malignant area in the lesion is usually thicker - and darker in colou
7. What is a lipoma?
A furuncle results from infection of hair follicles with Staphylococcus aureus
Is there evidence of a new or old stoma site? Is there evidence of a small incision to one side of the scar(from a drain - this may have been due to a bowel operation) - Are there also scars in the groins? - Are there striae gravidarum
A lipoma is a benign tumour consisting of mature fat cells.
Wound complications - Recurrence - Damage to adjacent neurovascular structures
8. How would a patient with carotid aneurysm be investigated?
Excision of a single lobe of the lung
Regular skin inspection - Frequent turning of immobile patients( 2 to 4 hourly) - Massage - Toileting - The use of special mattresses and cushion which redistribute the pressure on at-risk areas
Other risk factors and cardiovascular disease elsewhere would be excluded and the neck imaged with a duplex scan or occasionally on intravenous digital subtraction angiogram
Familial e.g 'hazel nails' - pachydermoperiostitis - Graves' disease - Unilaterally seen in axillary artery aneurysm and brachial arteriovenous malformation
9. What are the signs in the mouth of acanthosis nigricans?
Dohlman's procedure - endoscopic diathermy resection of the posterior pharyngeal wall or endoscopic stapling with less risk of fistula formation and consequent mediastinitis
Raynaud's phenomenon - Thrombangiitis obliterans - Takayasu's arteritis
Black discolouration of the skin
There are two pathological systems in use: Clark's level of invasion based mostly on the depth/extent of tumour and Breslow's thickness Which is based mostly on the thickness of malignant melanoma. Breslow's thickness is a better prognostic indicator
10. What are the constituents of the surgical sieve?
Mneumonic : BEDD - Base - Edge - Describe structure visualized at the base of the ulcer - Discharge
VINTA MEDIC - Vascular - Iatrogenic - Neoplastic - Traumatic - Autoimmune - Metabolic - Endocrine - Degenerative - Inflammatory/Infective - Congenital
The aorta is narrowed below the origin of the left subclavian artery and therefore blood flow to the abdomen and legs is reduced - The prominent vessels over the back are large collateral that have developed to bypass the obstruction and supply the l
Hands and Eyes
11. How would you diagnose a branchial cyst?
Infections within the oesophagus especially candidiasis and herpes simplex - Pharyngitis - Occasionally ulceration over the lower third of the oesophagus
Clinical examination - Fine-needle aspiration which would show an opalescent fluid containing cholesterol crystals or pus.
Ischaemic ulcers can be extremely painful and even removing the bandages from around the ulcer can cause pain that lasts for several hours. The analgesic ladder would be appropriate in this situation starting from simple oral agents -stronger oral ag
State of the skin/subcutanaeous tissues - Sites of fascia defects - Site of incompetence(including the Trendelenburg and Tourniquet Tests)
12. What are the specific late complications of amputations?
Vascular - Cerebrovascular accident - Tumour - acoustic neuroma - Infection - Meningitis(rarely
Osteomyelitis - infection transmitted to the bone through the stump - Stump ulceration - can be caused by pressure from the prosthesis - Stump neuroma - Swelling of the distal nerve as it tries to regrow following division; during the initial procedu
They are often multiple and most commonly arise in the head of the epididymis. Occassionally they occur as a complication of vasectomy - in which case they are full of sperm and are termed spermatocoeles.
Pleomorphic adenoma(commonest) and Warthin's tumour
13. What are the four commonest types of malignant melanoma?
Mnemonic: SNAiL - Superficial spreading - Nodular melanoma - Acral lentiginous melanoma - Lentigo maligna melanoma
Sunlight - Carcinogens - Previous radiotherapy - Malignant transformation in pre-existing skin lesion
Medical : treat underlying condition - saline cleansing - high-dose oral or intralesional steroids plus/minus cyclosporin - Surgical : serial allograft followed by autologous skin graft or muscle flap coverage when necessary
Anti-salivary antibodies - rheumatoid factor - but two specific antibodies present are anti-SSA-Ro and anti-SSA-La
14. What is the pathology of Sjogren's syndrome?
A chemodectoma is a tumour of the paraganglion cells of the carotid body located at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. They are usually benign(but locally invasive) - but occassionally - they are malignant with potential to metastasize to
Lymphocyte-mediated destruction of the exocrine glands secondary to B-cell hyper-reactivity and associated loss of suppressor T-Cell activity
Stoma diarrhoea - related to water and electrolyte imbalances - hypokalemia being the commonest and most important consequence - Nutritional disorders - Stones - both gall stones and renal stones increase in frequency following an ileostomy - Psychos
Hyperkeratosis - Acanthosis - Hyperplasia of variably pigmented basaloid cells
15. What is the order of skin changes seen in Raynaud's?
History - Examination - Special Investigations - Treatment
The principles of surgery are that the sac is excised completely or inverted - and the defect in the linea alba repaired - The fat contained within the hernia can be excised or reduced - The site of the defect should be marked with the patient lying
The five Ms - Mechanical - obstructive symptoms - Malignancy - Marred Beauty - cosmetic reasons - Medical treatment failure - thyrotoxicosis - Mediastinal(retrosternal) extension - unable to perform FNAC or monitor change clinically
Mnemonic: WBC - White - blanching of digits - Blue - cyanosis of pain - Crimson - reactive hyperaemia - fingers turn red in colour
16. What do patients with rest pain typically get more severe pain at night?
The pain is caused by a reduced blood supply to the distal aspects of the limb. The pain gets worse at night because the perfusion of the limb is further reduced when the patient is lying down - This is due to: Decreased cardiac output at night - Red
Optimize tissue perfusion and oxygenation - Treat infection as it arises - Use topical dressings as required and provide nutritional support specifically vitamin C - zinc and multivitamins. - Other techniques include hyperbaric oxygen -hydrotherapy a
White lines and streaks inside the mouth
Idiopathic Which is the most common - Gastrointestinal - Respiratory - Cardiac - Rare causes
17. What is the differential diagnosis for an enlarged kidney?
It will show you if it is malignant or inflammatory
Injection sclerotherapy with 1% sodium tetradecyl sulphate - this has a high recurrence rate and indicated for postoperative recurrence of veins - below knee varicosities if the long saphenous vein and short saphenous vein are not involved.
40 X increased risk of developing lymphoma - usually B-Cell non-Hodgkin's type
Congenital : Cystic disease - horseshoe kidney - hypertrophic single kidney - Acquired : Diseases specific to the kidney such as solitary cysts - tumours - hydronephrosis - pyonephrosis - perinephric abscess and renal vein thrombosis and diseases as
18. What should one do in the general examination of the surgical patient?
Debridement of dead tissue which can be performed by the tissue viability nurse since it does not require anaesthesia and reconstruction using a variety of fascial and muscle-containing composite flaps.
Wash Hands - Observe from end of bed - Start examination from right-hand side - Look for JACCOL which means jaundice -anaemia -cyanosis -clubbing -oedema and lymphadenopathy - Observation -Palpation -Percussion and Auscultation
Diabetic neuropathy and peripheral occlusive arterial disease are the major aetiological factors for the development of ulceration and may act alone - together or in combination with other factors such as microvascular disease - biomechanical abnorma
Ligation of the incompetent SFJ or SPJ with stripping of the involved vein and stab avulsion of varicosities - Ligation of incompetent perforating vessels - Subcutaneous endoscopic perforator surgery
19. What are the signs in the mouth of Peutz-Jegher disease?
Situations where skin grafts will not take - When the aim is to reconstruct the tissue that is 'like-for-like'(bone -joint -tendon -nerve -epithelial lining -etc) to promote optimal structure - function and cosmesis - When blood supply has to be impo
Pigmented freckles around the lips and inside the mouth - associated with intestinal intussusception and gastrointestinal bleeding from colonic polyps
This is the array of plastic surgeon techniques of increasing complexity that is available to the surgeon and Which is used according to their suitability for individual patients
Refers to congenital disease or primary lymphatic failure. It is three times more common in women and the pathology originates from within the lymphatics. It is also known as Milroys disease.
20. What are the main aetiologies in diffuse enlargement of the thryoid?
Open lymph node excision biopsy - Block dissection of the neck - Radical Neck Dissection
Multinodular goitre - Toxic - Simple colloid goitre - Thyroiditis - Neoplasia
Axillary vein thrombosis - Damage to axillary drainage following surgery such as axillary dissection in breast surgery
An intravenous injection of contrast into the veins in the arm can illustrate the degree of obstruction - A CT Scan of the thorax may demonstrate the cause of the obstruction and the length of the SVC affected
21. In What age group does anaplastic carcinoma usually present in?
Testicular tumours can be mimicked by chronic or old infection leading to scarring such as in orchitis or tuberculosis - Occasionally a long-standing hydrocoele may develop calcification and become harder - clinically similar to a tumour - Tumours oc
Elderly(A for Aged)
Via chorda tympani to anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Parafollicular C Cells
22. What investigations may help confirm the diagnosis of thoracic outlet obstruction?
Hepatitis - Decompensated chronic liver disease - Drugs
The characteristic presentation is insidious with progressive weight-loss and dysphagia - The patient initally hass difficulty swallowing solids and often describes the food getting stuck in the lower part of the oesophagus - They may also describe o
Cervical rib or prominent transverse process of the Chest X-ray or thoracic outlet views - Doppler examination may be useful in quantifying the postural changes and post-stenotic dilatation - Arteriograms of the subclavian artery may show a marked ki
Definition - Incidence - Sex - Geography - Aetiology - Pathogenesis - Macroscopic Pathology - Microscopic Pathology - Prognosis - Symptoms - Signs - Investigations - Treatment
23. What is neurofibromatosis?
Presence of multiple neurofibromas in a patient - in combination with other dermatological manifestations(six cafe-au-lait psots) - It is an autosomal dominant condition with two types: 1 and 2.
Congenital : Cystic disease - horseshoe kidney - hypertrophic single kidney - Acquired : Diseases specific to the kidney such as solitary cysts - tumours - hydronephrosis - pyonephrosis - perinephric abscess and renal vein thrombosis and diseases as
White lines and streaks inside the mouth
Osteomyelitis - infection transmitted to the bone through the stump - Stump ulceration - can be caused by pressure from the prosthesis - Stump neuroma - Swelling of the distal nerve as it tries to regrow following division; during the initial procedu
24. What is the treatment of medullary carcinoma?
Treatment is radical surgery with follow-up using sequent calcitonin assays
The aneurysm is surgically repaired by either an excision bypass -where the popliteal artery is ligated above and below the diseased segment and a graft interposed - or a simple resection and anastamoses without the use of a graft - Acute ischemia ca
Infection - acute and chronic otitis media - herpes zoster(ramsay hunt syndrome) - Idiopathic - Bell's Palsy - Trauma - surgical -accidental - e.g basal skull fracture - Tumour - paraganglioma - squamous cell carcinoma of external or middle ear - met
Essentially to treat complications not amenable to medical therapy such as:Intra-abdominal abscesses that cannot be drained radiologically - Enterocutaneous fistulae - Stenosis causing obstructive symptoms - Control of acute/chronic bleeding
25. What is a dermoid cyst?
The aim of bypass is to provide a systemic circulation while the heart is stopped and emptied of blood.
A dermoid cyst is a skin-lined cyst deep to the skin. They may be congenital or acquired.
Temperature - Capillary Refill - Peripheral Pulses
Depends on local guidelines but essentially: Pneumococcal vaccine - Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine - Meningococcal vaccine - Annual 'flu' vaccine - Consideration for lifelong penicillin or penicillin as required when infection present - Warn a
26. What are the surgical options available for deep venous occlusion/reflux
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27. What are the acquired predisposing factors for basal cell carcinomas?
Duration and change in size - Cosmetic symptoms - Discomfort during swallowing/dysphagia - Dyspnoea - Hoarseness - Pain
Thrombosis during or just after haemodialysis - which may be due to relative hypotension and damage to the intima of the vein - Venous hypertension in the hand causes swelling and ischemia of the fingertips. This should be avoided by the ligation of
A lipoma is a benign tumour consisting of mature fat cells.
Sunlight - Carcinogens - Previous radiotherapy - Malignant transformation in pre-existing skin lesion
28. How would you treat hidradenitis suppurativa?
Small red capillary naevus - Develops on the trunk in middle-age - No clinical significance
Open lymph node excision biopsy - Block dissection of the neck - Radical Neck Dissection
Non-Surgical - Reassure and 'Watch and Wait' - Surgical - Reason : Pain/Cosmesis and this is done with suction lipolysis via a small - remote incision Which is performed under local anaesthetic as a day case.
Well-localized abscesses are treated by incision and drainage under antibiotic cover - Larger lesions are treated by radical excision and full-thickness skin grafting usually harvested from the groins or abdomen
29. What is seborrhoeic keratosis?
Transfemoral radiological embolization of the testicular vein - using either a spring coil or sclerosant
The advantages of having surgery are a six-fold reduction in the rate of stroke at 3 years - The operative risk of stroke is 2% and operative mortality 1-2% - Specific risks of haematoma -hypoglossal nerve injury and numbness of the ipsilateral earlo
A seborrhoeic keratosis is a benign overgrowth of the basal cell layer of the epidermis.
More than five is considered as pathological in chronic liver disease
30. What are the questions that should be asked when taking a history for a lump or ulcer?
Onset and Continuous Symptoms - When did you first notice it? - What made you notice it? - Predisposing events? - How does it bother you? - What symptoms does it cause? - Has it changed since you first noticed it ? - Have you noticed any other lumps?
Neuropathic - 45 to 60% of ulcers - Ischaemic due to peripheral occlusive arterial disaese - 10% of ulcers - Mixed neuroischaemic - 25-45% of ulcers
Treatment is radical surgery with follow-up using sequent calcitonin assays
Ultrasound - first line - Which is used to define the liver architecture and give an idea of the size and may identify the pathology - Contrast-enhanced CT may also be useful - especially to further investigate solid lesions
31. What does a keloid scar look like?
Scar extends beyond wound margins - It is found mostly on earlobes - chin -neck -shoulder and chest.
Congenital Which is rare and Acquired Which is very common.
Non-Surgical : leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Surgical : Indicated only if malignant growth suspected; post-excision - local regrowth is common as neurofibromata cannot be surgically detached from underlying n
Venous disease
32. How would you treat this condition?
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33. What are the indications for surgery in goitre?
The five Ms - Mechanical - obstructive symptoms - Malignancy - Marred Beauty - cosmetic reasons - Medical treatment failure - thyrotoxicosis - Mediastinal(retrosternal) extension - unable to perform FNAC or monitor change clinically
A papilloma is an over-growth of all layers of the skin with a central vascular core. They are increasingly common with age.
According to site - contents and if it is random or axial. When it comes to site - you consider where it is local or distant(Which is also known as a free flap). You have to also consider the contents which can contain any tissue capable of transfer
Superior thyroid artery - Inferior thyroid artery - Thyroidea ima(in 3% of people)
34. What is the significance of the ankle brachial pressure index?
Congenital Which is rare and Acquired Which is very common.
Auscultation - Percussion of the thyroid gland and downwards for retrosternal extension
As the perfusion of the leg begins to decrease in a patient with peripheral vascular disease; the ratio begins to fall.
Results from persistence of part of the thyroglossal tract - which marks development descent of the thyroid gland
35. What points should be elicited when taking a pain history in a surgical patient?
Non-Surgical - Reassure and 'Watch and Wait' - Surgical - Reason : Pain/Cosmesis and this is done with suction lipolysis via a small - remote incision Which is performed under local anaesthetic as a day case.
SRSN -OPD -RAT - Site - Radiation - Severity - Nature - Onset - Periodicity - Duration - Relieved by - Accentuated by - Timing
Ligation of the incompetent SFJ or SPJ with stripping of the involved vein and stab avulsion of varicosities - Ligation of incompetent perforating vessels - Subcutaneous endoscopic perforator surgery
Via greater superficial petrosal nerve to lacrimal - nasal and palatine glands
36. In the tourniquet test - What do rapid filling of the collapsed veins below the tourniquet indicate?
Three arteries - artery to vas deferens -testicular artery -cremasteric artery - Three nerves - ilioinguinal nerve on the front of the cord - nerve to cremaster and autonomic nerves - Three other structures - vas deferens - pampiniform plexus of vein
Anaesthesia is more complicated because of the increased risk of stroke - In addition - patients with AF may be anticoagulated and if on warfarin - this medication needs to be discontinued prior to elective surgery - Patients with controlled AF may d
The incompetent vein is below the level of the tourniquest
Urine should be tested for raised bilirubin - Full Blood Count - Evidence of anemia in GI malignancies or associated infection - Renal function - any evidence for hepatorenal syndrome - Liver Function Tests -Clotting - functional assessment of hepati
37. How should one examine a lump or swelling?
Look - Feel - Press - Move - Listen - Transilluminate and Examine Surrounding Areas.
Urine should be tested for raised bilirubin - Full Blood Count - Evidence of anemia in GI malignancies or associated infection - Renal function - any evidence for hepatorenal syndrome - Liver Function Tests -Clotting - functional assessment of hepati
Malignancy - Primary lung tumour - Cardiovascular : Pulmonary embolus/infarct or Dressler's syndrome - Infections such as Pneumonia - Tuberculosis or Subphrenic abscess - Systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and SLE
Collagen antibodies are present in 45% of patients - There is an association with HLA-B5 - Angiography has typical appearances of normal proximal vessels with distal occlusion and 'corkscrew' collaterals.
38. What is the classification of liposarcoma?
Well-differentiated - Myxoid and round cell - Pleomorphic liposarcoma
Ultrasound - first line - Which is used to define the liver architecture and give an idea of the size and may identify the pathology - Contrast-enhanced CT may also be useful - especially to further investigate solid lesions
The major risk is embolic stroke(4% per year) which results from thrombus accumulating in an inefficiently contracting left atrium - Emboli can also lodge in the mesenteric vessel - causing intestinal ischaemia - Patients are also at risk from acute
The mainstay of treatment of ascites is to treat the underlying condition and to place the patient on a weight reduction program - with the help of diuretic - and a low-sodium diet.
39. What are the features of a multinodular goitre?
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40. Why do these neuropathic ulcers form?
Clinical diagnosis if at least two or the following triad is present: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca(dry eyes) - Xerostomia(dry mouth) - Associated connective tissue disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis(50% of cases) - scleroderma -SLE -Polymyositis or
The insensitive - mechanically abnormal - dry foot is at risk from unperceived external trauma e.g from shoes and from repetitive painless injury e.g foreign body in shoe. Progressive skin loss and ulceration may occur.
Cirrhosis - Malignancy - Lymphatic rupture or damage
There are two pathological systems in use: Clark's level of invasion based mostly on the depth/extent of tumour and Breslow's thickness Which is based mostly on the thickness of malignant melanoma. Breslow's thickness is a better prognostic indicator
41. What are the signs in the mouth of Addison's disease?
Mouth and lips are hyperpigmented
Non-Surgical : May be left alone if small and asymptomatic - Surgical : To prevent recurrence - complete excision of the cyst and its contents is required and this is done through the removal of an elliptical portion of skin containing the punctum.
Motility disorders - diffuse oesophageal spasm and achalasia - Neurological disease such as myaesthenia gravis - bulbar palsy including MND and cerebrovascular accident with involvement of the 9th -10th and 12th cranial nerves.
Preoperative - Age -Immunocompromised state -obesity -malignancy -abdominal distension from obstruction or ascites - Operate - Poor technical closure of the wound -placing drains through wounds - Postoperative - wound infection or haematoma - early m
42. What would you warn the patient of in consenting them for an endarterectomy?
Ultrasound compression of the false aneurysm - Thrombin injection - Surgical repair - Observation and review
Ligation of the incompetent SFJ or SPJ with stripping of the involved vein and stab avulsion of varicosities - Ligation of incompetent perforating vessels - Subcutaneous endoscopic perforator surgery
The advantages of having surgery are a six-fold reduction in the rate of stroke at 3 years - The operative risk of stroke is 2% and operative mortality 1-2% - Specific risks of haematoma -hypoglossal nerve injury and numbness of the ipsilateral earlo
Presence of multiple neurofibromas in a patient - in combination with other dermatological manifestations(six cafe-au-lait psots) - It is an autosomal dominant condition with two types: 1 and 2.
43. How is anaplastic carcinoma treated?
Treatment with radiotherapy and doxorubicin gives best survival of 1 year
Transfemoral radiological embolization of the testicular vein - using either a spring coil or sclerosant
Any cause of deep venous insufficiency can lead to ulceration: Valvular disease - varicose veins - deep vein reflux - communicating vein reflux - Outflow tract obstruction - often post-DVT - Muscle pump failure - primary such as stroke and neuromuscu
Unilateral - Bilateral
44. What does four-layer compression bandaging comprise of?
Non-adherent dressing over ulcer plus wool bandage - Crepe bandage - Blue-line bandage - Adhesive bandage to prevent the other layers from slipping
Halfway along inguinal ligament that is between pubic tubercle and ASIS Which is equal to the location of the deep inguinal ring
Congenital ptosis - Myopathies - Syphillis
Mneumonic : BEDD - Base - Edge - Describe structure visualized at the base of the ulcer - Discharge
45. What are the pathological features of thyroglossal cyst?
Ultrasound - first line - Which is used to define the liver architecture and give an idea of the size and may identify the pathology - Contrast-enhanced CT may also be useful - especially to further investigate solid lesions
Derived from capillary endothelial cells or from fibrous tissue - It is linked to human herpes virus 8
Lined by stratified squamous or ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium - May also contain thyroid or lymphoid tissue - which can undergo malignant change - If malignancy occurs - usually of thyroid papillary type.
Mayo's 'vest-over-pants' operation is the most widely accepted repair for these herniae
46. What immunizations would you need to organize in the event of performing a splenectomy?
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47. What is the consequence of carotid stenosis?
Stroke is the third leading cause of death in the west and 85% of strokes are thromboembolic - caused by atherosclerosis at the carotid bifurcation or proximal (2-3cm) internal carotid artery.
Ultrasound compression of the false aneurysm - Thrombin injection - Surgical repair - Observation and review
Left spermatic vein is more vertical where it connects to the left renal vein - The left renal vein can be compressed by the colon - The left testicular vein is longer than the right - It frequently lack a terminal valve which serves to try to preven
All patients should undergo triple assessment that is Clinical Examination - Radiological assessment usually ultrasonographic - Pathological - most commonly cytological following FNAC
48. What are the indications for an amputation?
Cardiac disease - hypertension -myocardial infarction -ischaemia -mitral valve disease - cardiomyopathy -endocarditis - Respiratory disease - Pneumonia - lung cancer - sarcoidosis - Other: Hypothyroidism and idiopathic ( lone AF)
Transfemoral radiological embolization of the testicular vein - using either a spring coil or sclerosant
Rare - Worldwide distribution - Equally common in males and females - Rarely present at birth - 40% present in the first decade and can even present late in the ninth decade
Indications for amputation can be remembered as the 4Ds: Dead - ischemic - peripheral vascular disease - thromboangiitis obliterans - AV fistulae - Damaged - trauma - unsalvageable limbs - burns - frostbite - Dangerous - Malignancy - bone and soft ti
49. What are the features of ulcers in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
It reduces intravascular hydrostatic pressure and the stockings increase extracellular hydrostatic pressure - together reducing the level of tissue oedema.
20%
Necrotizing vasculitis - Purpuric -haemorrhagic bullae
Diet should be normal - Bag should be changed once or twice a day(needs to be emptied more frequently than this if it is urine or fluid faeces) - Ileostomies should have the base plate under the bag changed every 5 days and the bag changed daily - Ps
50. When considering the treatment of a disease in a surgical patients - What are the important modalities of treatment which should be considered?
Skin : as above - Lungs : pneumonitis - pulmonary fibrosis - Heart : Ischemic heart disease - Arteries: radiation arteritis -Spinal cord : myelopathy - Gonadal damage : infertility - Thyroid : hypothyroidism due to depletion of follicular thyroid cel
The insensitive - mechanically abnormal - dry foot is at risk from unperceived external trauma e.g from shoes and from repetitive painless injury e.g foreign body in shoe. Progressive skin loss and ulceration may occur.
Conservative - Medical - Surgical
Plasma alpha feto-protein and beta-HCG - raised levels may indicate a testicular tumor - Testosterone and LH levels to demonstrate hypogonadism - Thyroid function tests