SUBJECTS
|
BROWSE
|
CAREER CENTER
|
POPULAR
|
JOIN
|
LOGIN
Business Skills
|
Soft Skills
|
Basic Literacy
|
Certifications
About
|
Help
|
Privacy
|
Terms
|
Email
Search
Test your basic knowledge |
Clinical Surgery
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
surgery
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What is the surgical treatment of Graves disease?
An absolute pressure of less than 50mmHg
They are often multiple and most commonly arise in the head of the epididymis. Occassionally they occur as a complication of vasectomy - in which case they are full of sperm and are termed spermatocoeles.
Mnemonic: DELFT(D) Feeding e.g feeding gastrostomy/jejunostomy - Lavage e.g appendicostomy - Decompression - bypass of an obstructing bowel lesion distal to the stom - Diversion - protection of a distal bowel anastamosis and urinary diversion followi
Bilateral subtotal thyroidectomy leaving approximately 4g of thyroid tissue on each side of the trachea
2. What is the anatomical classifcations of hydrocoeles?
Vaginal Hydrocoele - fluid accumulates in the tunica vaginalis - Hydrocoele of the cord - fluid accumulates around the spermatic cord - Congenital Hydrocoele - Infantile Hydrocoele
Lymphangiomas can be:Cystic - Solid or diffuse - Cutaneous
Some surgeons would advocate that all patients should undergo Duplex scanning of the leg veins before any surgery is undertaken. Others would consider indications to be: Previous history of deep vein thrombosis - Any signs of chronic venous insuffici
Skin : as above - Lungs : pneumonitis - pulmonary fibrosis - Heart : Ischemic heart disease - Arteries: radiation arteritis -Spinal cord : myelopathy - Gonadal damage : infertility - Thyroid : hypothyroidism due to depletion of follicular thyroid cel
3. Pneumonectomy
May affect people from puberty to 30 years - Females are more affected than males - Black and Hispanic Races are effected the most.
Left spermatic vein is more vertical where it connects to the left renal vein - The left renal vein can be compressed by the colon - The left testicular vein is longer than the right - It frequently lack a terminal valve which serves to try to preven
Excision of an entire lung
The protein content of a sample of effusion fluid is measured and the classification depends on this value:Transudate is equal to a protein value of less than 30g/L - Exudate is equal to a protein value of more than 30g/L
4. What investigations are appropriate for deep venous disease?
Smoking - Diabetes - Hypertension - Cholesterol - Previous history especially heart disease or stroke - Family history - Possibly renal failure -hypothyroidism and gout
Found above the inguinal ligament - Usually reducible - Commoner in males - 6:1 - Risk of strangulation is low - Cough impulse present
Duplex - shows area of reflux and deep venous occlusion - Venography - ascending which identifies deep venous patency and perforator incompetence and descending which identifies areas of reflux - Varicography - shows sites of communication - Ambulato
Cardiac failure - Tricuspid regurgitation - Constrictive pericarditis
5. What are the features of ulcers in patients with sickle-cell disease?
Small -punched out ulcers - Often over medial aspect of lower leg
An intravenous injection of contrast into the veins in the arm can illustrate the degree of obstruction - A CT Scan of the thorax may demonstrate the cause of the obstruction and the length of the SVC affected
Excision of a single lobe of the lung
Anti-salivary antibodies - rheumatoid factor - but two specific antibodies present are anti-SSA-Ro and anti-SSA-La
6. How would you prepare a patient prior to breast surgery?
Physical preparation - marking of side - explanation of procedure - anaesthetic work up - Pyschological preparation - Breast care nurse preoperatively and discussion of reasons for mastectomy - option of reconstructive surgery
A seborrhoeic keratosis is a benign overgrowth of the basal cell layer of the epidermis.
Notching on the underside of the ribs may be seen on a chest x-ray - this sign is caused by erosion by the intercostal collateral vessels - On the chest x-ray the aorta may be abnormal - it contains two bulges - the 'three sign' - A barium swallow sh
Congenital - Usually due to a cervical rib(arising from the seventh cervical vertebra) and the subclavian artery is compressed between the rib and either the scalenus anterior muscle or the clavicle - Acquired - The obstruction may also follow a frac
7. What are the three objectives to be taken note of in the inspection part of the arterial examination?
Wash Hands - Observe from end of bed - Start examination from right-hand side - Look for JACCOL which means jaundice -anaemia -cyanosis -clubbing -oedema and lymphadenopathy - Observation -Palpation -Percussion and Auscultation
Colour changes - Trophic changes - Vascular angle
Mnemonic : LEGS - Lipodermatosclerosis - Eczema - Gaps in the skin i.e ulceration - active and healed - Swelling - pedal oedema
Urine should be tested for raised bilirubin - Full Blood Count - Evidence of anemia in GI malignancies or associated infection - Renal function - any evidence for hepatorenal syndrome - Liver Function Tests -Clotting - functional assessment of hepati
8. What is the pathogenesis of thromboangiitis obliterans?
Complete excision to include the neck of the ganglion at its site of origin
Primary disease occurring in isolation
A dermatofibroma is a benign neoplasm of dermal fibroblasts.
It is a collagen vascular disease - caused by infiltrate of plasma cells into the arterial wall - This leads to luminal thrombosis and affects small and medium-sized arteries of the lower limb - Eventually - collagen is deposited and forms a thick fi
9. How would you investigate and treat a solitary thyroid nodule?
Motility disorders - diffuse oesophageal spasm and achalasia - Neurological disease such as myaesthenia gravis - bulbar palsy including MND and cerebrovascular accident with involvement of the 9th -10th and 12th cranial nerves.
Iodine deficiency - Increased physiological demand - Goitrogens(less common) - Defects of thyroid hormone production
Hands and Eyes
All patients should undergo triple assessment that is Clinical Examination - Radiological assessment usually ultrasonographic - Pathological - most commonly cytological following FNAC
10. What are the common causes of ascites?
Chronic Liver disease - Right Heart Failure - Intra-abdominal Malignancy - Hypoalbuminaemia
Stroke is the third leading cause of death in the west and 85% of strokes are thromboembolic - caused by atherosclerosis at the carotid bifurcation or proximal (2-3cm) internal carotid artery.
Immobility and prolonged bed-rest are the most important factors - particulary secondary to conditions such as: Cardiopulmonary disease - Trauma - Neurological disease such as paraplegia - Bone and joint disease - Prolonged operative procedures - And
Non-surgical : Leave alone if small and asymptomatic - Surgical : minimally invasive surgery or surgical excision
11. How would you treat a papilloma?
(H)infection - Hypoparathyroidism which leads to hypocalcemia
Cirrhosis - Malignancy - Lymphatic rupture or damage
Primary Raynauds is due to vasomotor malformation - Secondary Raynauds occurs as a consequence of pathology affecting the vessel wall
The simplest surgical technique is to excise the papilloma with a sharp pair of scissors - controlling bleeding from the central vascular component with a single suture. Alternatively - diathermy can be used to control the bleeding at the same time a
12. What are the causes of venous ulcers?
Any cause of deep venous insufficiency can lead to ulceration: Valvular disease - varicose veins - deep vein reflux - communicating vein reflux - Outflow tract obstruction - often post-DVT - Muscle pump failure - primary such as stroke and neuromuscu
Cardiac failure - Tricuspid regurgitation - Constrictive pericarditis
General : malaise -fatigue - loss of appetite - nausea and vomiting - Skin : as above - Bone marrow suppression : particular if irradiation to the pelvis and long bones - Gastrointestinal : diarrhoea
End-to-end anastamosis - patching and the use of the left subclavian artery as a flap are all surgical options
13. What is a cavernous haemangioma?
Bright-red raised strawberry-like lesion - Present from birth - but 60% undergo spontaneous resolution by the age of 3 years - Only treated if obscuring a visual field or spontaneous resolution not occurring.
Halfway along inguinal ligament that is between pubic tubercle and ASIS Which is equal to the location of the deep inguinal ring
Lined by stratified squamous or ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium - May also contain thyroid or lymphoid tissue - which can undergo malignant change - If malignancy occurs - usually of thyroid papillary type.
Liver Cirrhosis - Inflammatory Bowel disease - Malabsorption - Gastrointestinal lymphoma
14. What are the predisposing factors for Raynaud's phenomenon?
Primary Raynauds is due to vasomotor malformation - Secondary Raynauds occurs as a consequence of pathology affecting the vessel wall
It is often advised as the problem usually gets worse with age and there is risk of infertility.
It arises de novo
Complete excision to include the neck of the ganglion at its site of origin
15. What is the differential diagnosis for a skin lesion?
Non-Surgical : leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Surgical : Indicated only if malignant growth suspected; post-excision - local regrowth is common as neurofibromata cannot be surgically detached from underlying n
Benign skin lesion: Keratoacanthoma - Infected seborrhoeic wart - Solar keratoses - Pyogenic Granuloma - Malignant skin lesion - Basal cell carcinoma - Malingnant melanoma - Congenital: Xeroderma pigmentosum - Acquired - Environmental agents - Pre-ex
Classic Kaposi's sarcoma - AIDS-associated Kaposi's sarcoma - Endemic(central African) variety - Transplantation-associated Kaposi's sarcoma
Fibroadenomas - Breast cysts - Fat necrosis - Breast cancer
16. What is the differential diagnosis of an epigastric mass?
Arising from the skin and soft tissues - sebaceous cysts -sarcoma -lipoma -epigastric hernia - Arising from the gastrointestinal tract - carcinoma of the stomach -hepatomegaly -pancreatic ca - pancreatic pseudocyst - Arising from the vascular system
A lipoma is a benign tumour consisting of mature fat cells.
These can be divided into large and small vessel arterial disease: Large vessel - atherosclerosis and thrombangiitis obliterans - Small vessel - Diabetes Mellitus - Polyarteritis nodosa and rheumatoid arthritis
Mneumonic : I - CHUM - Infection(frequent) - Calcification - Ulceration - sebaceous Horn formation - Malignant change
17. How would you treat an acquired dermoid cyst?
Commonest in children and young adults(P for Paediatric)
Surgical treatment involves complete excision of the cyst.
Bursae - Cystic protrusions from the synovial cavity of arthritic joints - Benign giant cell tumors of the flexor sheath - Rarely : Malignant swelling e.g synovial sarcoma
Unilateral - Bilateral
18. What is the treatment of Sjogren's syndrome?
Treatment involves the use of artificial tears and saliva - use of systemic steroids and careful follow-up due to increased risk of lymphoma development
Affect any age - Males = females - All races may be affected
Tumours raised above the skin : excision with 0.5cm margin(maximum) - Tumours not raised above the skin - Wider margin of excision - particularly if at inner canthus of eye -nasolabial fold and ear. A frozen section may be necessary to ensure adequat
Carcinoma of the stomach and oesophagus - lymphomas and with endocrine disorders such as acromegaly - Cushing's - diabetes complicated by severe insulin resistance
19. What are the complications of the surgical removal of a branchial cyst?
Temperature - Capillary Refill - Peripheral Pulses
Recurrence of the cyst - Developement of a chronic -discharging sinus
An aneurysm is an abnormal dilatation of a blood vessel - A true aneurysm involves all layers of the arterial wall - A false aneurysm follows a partial laceration of the vessel wall causing blood to leak out of the vessel into the surrounding tissues
Excision for the main lesion with varying margins depending on the size of the lesion. - If there is nodal spread - Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology or Lymph node biopsy - Therapeutic Block Dissection(if palpable lymph nodes) - Palliation adjuvant th
20. What is the prophylactic treatment of pressure sores?
Simple colloid goitre - Graves' disease - Thyroiditis
Ligation of the incompetent SFJ or SPJ with stripping of the involved vein and stab avulsion of varicosities - Ligation of incompetent perforating vessels - Subcutaneous endoscopic perforator surgery
Regular skin inspection - Frequent turning of immobile patients( 2 to 4 hourly) - Massage - Toileting - The use of special mattresses and cushion which redistribute the pressure on at-risk areas
TIMEC - Trauma/Tumor - Infection/Inflammation/Ischemia - Metabolic -Mechanical - Endocrine - Congenital
21. What symptoms - a patient with an epigastric hernia might have complained of at presentation?
Recurrence of the cyst - Developement of a chronic -discharging sinus
20%
Medical : treat underlying condition - saline cleansing - high-dose oral or intralesional steroids plus/minus cyclosporin - Surgical : serial allograft followed by autologous skin graft or muscle flap coverage when necessary
Epigastric pain - which may increase after meals - May be acutely painful after physical exercise - Nausea and early satiety - Reflux and non-ulcer dyspepsia
22. What are the malignant diseases of the breast?
Resection of a lobe including its bronchial origin with re-anastamosis of the proximal and distal bronchus
Ductal carcinoma which account for approximately 70% of cancers - Lobular carcinoma which accounts for 20% of cancers - Others such as mucinous -tubular -medullary which accounts for approximately 10% of cancers
Skin : as above - Lungs : pneumonitis - pulmonary fibrosis - Heart : Ischemic heart disease - Arteries: radiation arteritis -Spinal cord : myelopathy - Gonadal damage : infertility - Thyroid : hypothyroidism due to depletion of follicular thyroid cel
A pharyngeal pouch is formed by the herniation of pharyngeal mucosa(known as a pulsion diverticulum) through its muscular coat at its weakest point(Killian's dehiscence) between the thyropharyngeal and cricopharyngeal muscles that make up the inferio
23. Simple cysts are found in 33% of patients by the age of 60. How should they be managed?
This is the array of plastic surgeon techniques of increasing complexity that is available to the surgeon and Which is used according to their suitability for individual patients
Use of gloves and discontinuing any predisposing drugs e.g beta blockers - Using warm pads in gloves and socks in the winter - Encourage patients to stop smoking
Treatment is radical surgery with follow-up using sequent calcitonin assays
History and Clinical Examination - they usually present incidentally but occasionally with a renal mass or haematuria
24. What is the differential diagnosis of hyperhidrosis?
Pre-hepatic - Hepatic - Post-hepatic
Stoma diarrhoea - related to water and electrolyte imbalances - hypokalemia being the commonest and most important consequence - Nutritional disorders - Stones - both gall stones and renal stones increase in frequency following an ileostomy - Psychos
Causes can be divided into pathology within and outside the SVC. Within the SVC obstruction tends to be as a consequence of thrombosis within intravenous jugular or subclavian lines(CPV Lines) - especially when hyperosmolar solutions are infused for
Anxiety - Hyperthyroidism - Hyperhidrosis erythematosus traumatica - Phaeochromocytoma
25. What is the treatment of medullary carcinoma?
Cervical rib or prominent transverse process of the Chest X-ray or thoracic outlet views - Doppler examination may be useful in quantifying the postural changes and post-stenotic dilatation - Arteriograms of the subclavian artery may show a marked ki
Treatment is radical surgery with follow-up using sequent calcitonin assays
Characteristic cold-induced changes associated with vasospasm
Pregnancy - Ascites - Ovarian cysts - Fibroids - Bowel distension
26. What important questions should you ask in a patient with jaundice?
An intravenous injection of contrast into the veins in the arm can illustrate the degree of obstruction - A CT Scan of the thorax may demonstrate the cause of the obstruction and the length of the SVC affected
Have you noticed any change in the colour of your urine? Have you noticed any change in the colour of your stools? - Have you noticed yourself feeling itchy?
Primary Raynauds is due to vasomotor malformation - Secondary Raynauds occurs as a consequence of pathology affecting the vessel wall
Ultrasound compression of the false aneurysm - Thrombin injection - Surgical repair - Observation and review
27. What are the causes of bilateral ptosis?
Small -punched out ulcers - Often over medial aspect of lower leg
Stoma diarrhoea - related to water and electrolyte imbalances - hypokalemia being the commonest and most important consequence - Nutritional disorders - Stones - both gall stones and renal stones increase in frequency following an ileostomy - Psychos
A enterocutaneous fistula is an abnormal connection between the gastrointestinal tract and the skin
Congenital ptosis - Myopathies - Syphillis
28. What are the features of ulcers in patients with arteriovenous fistulae?
'Watch and wait' or aspiration followed by 3 weeks of immobilzation
All patients should undergo triple assessment that is Clinical Examination - Radiological assessment usually ultrasonographic - Pathological - most commonly cytological following FNAC
Mnemonic : PS : PLS C TiT - Pharyngeal pouch - Sublingual dermoid cyst - Plunging ranula - Lymph nodes - Subhyoid bursa - Ca - larynx/trachea/oesophagus - Thyroglossal cyst - Thyroid swelling
Ulcer is distal to the fistula - Shallow indolent ulcers
29. What should one do in the general examination of the surgical patient?
Immobility and prolonged bed-rest are the most important factors - particulary secondary to conditions such as: Cardiopulmonary disease - Trauma - Neurological disease such as paraplegia - Bone and joint disease - Prolonged operative procedures - And
A pharyngeal pouch is formed by the herniation of pharyngeal mucosa(known as a pulsion diverticulum) through its muscular coat at its weakest point(Killian's dehiscence) between the thyropharyngeal and cricopharyngeal muscles that make up the inferio
The incompetent vein is below the level of the tourniquest
Wash Hands - Observe from end of bed - Start examination from right-hand side - Look for JACCOL which means jaundice -anaemia -cyanosis -clubbing -oedema and lymphadenopathy - Observation -Palpation -Percussion and Auscultation
30. What are the causes of hepatomegaly?
31. In which patients are abdominal aortic aneurysms most common?
A branchial cyst is thought to develop because of a failure of fusion of the embryonic second and third branchial arches. An alternative - and currently - popular - hypothesis is that it is an acquired condition due to cystic degeneration in cervical
Hyperthyroidism - Recurrent - Hypothyroidism - Hypertrophic scarring
Aneurysms are most common in: Men - Aged more than 60 years - Smokers - Hypertensive patients - Often strong family history
Those related to anaesthesia
32. What is the Courvoisier's law?
A branchial cyst is thought to develop because of a failure of fusion of the embryonic second and third branchial arches. An alternative - and currently - popular - hypothesis is that it is an acquired condition due to cystic degeneration in cervical
Ductal carcinoma which account for approximately 70% of cancers - Lobular carcinoma which accounts for 20% of cancers - Others such as mucinous -tubular -medullary which accounts for approximately 10% of cancers
Xeroderma pigmentosum - Gorlin's syndrome
In the presence of jaundice if a mass(the gall bladder) is palpable in the right upper quadrant - the cause is unlikely to be due to gallstones.
33. What are the seven signs in the eyes that one should look out for when assessing the thyroid status?
Loss of hair on outer-third of eyebrows - Lid retraction - Lid lag - Ophthalmoplegia - Exophthalmos - Chemosis - Proptosis
Pregnancy - Ascites - Ovarian cysts - Fibroids - Bowel distension
SRSN -OPD -RAT - Site - Radiation - Severity - Nature - Onset - Periodicity - Duration - Relieved by - Accentuated by - Timing
Duration and change in size - Cosmetic symptoms - Discomfort during swallowing/dysphagia - Dyspnoea - Hoarseness - Pain
34. What is the aim of the tourniquet test?
The tourniquet test is designed to reveal the presence and site of incompetent veins - especially at the sites of connection between the superficial and deep venous systems.
Causes may be classified as the 3 Ps: Physiological - Pathological - decreased androgens - androgen resistance - increased secretion -increased peripheral aromatization - Potions that is drugs such as recreational drugs - GI drugs - cardiovascular dr
Rapid growth and pain(on history) - Hyperemic hot skin - Hard consistency - Fixed to skin and underlying muscle - Irregular surface or ill-defined edge - Facial nerve involvement
It is a collagen vascular disease - caused by infiltrate of plasma cells into the arterial wall - This leads to luminal thrombosis and affects small and medium-sized arteries of the lower limb - Eventually - collagen is deposited and forms a thick fi
35. What are the sensory branches of the facial nerve?
Mnemonic : CHIASMA - Congestive : cardiac failure - Haematological : reticuloses - Infection : viral -bacterial -protozoal - Amyloid - Storage disorders : Wilson's disease - haemochromatosis - Masses: primary/secondary neoplasia - Autoimmune/alcohol
These can be divided into large and small vessel arterial disease: Large vessel - atherosclerosis and thrombangiitis obliterans - Small vessel - Diabetes Mellitus - Polyarteritis nodosa and rheumatoid arthritis
Uncommon sensory component of facial nerve carrying cutaneous impulses from the anterior wall of the external auditory meatus known as nervus intermedius or pars intermedia of Wrisberg
Sacrum - Greater trochanter - Heel - Lateral Malleolus - Ischial Tuberosity - Occiput
36. When should the drains be removed post-surgery?
Mayo's 'vest-over-pants' operation is the most widely accepted repair for these herniae
Skin and soft tissues such as a sebaceous cyst -lipoma or sarcoma - Bowel - ca caecum - crohns mass in terminal ileum - TB terminal ileum - appendicular mass or abscess - Gynaecological organs - ovarian tumours or fibroid uterus - Male Reproductive S
Idiopathic Which is the most common - Gastrointestinal - Respiratory - Cardiac - Rare causes
Often surgeons place two drains - one in the axilla and one at the site of surgery within the breast tissue - The drains are usually left for 3 to 5 days or until the drainage volume is less than 50mL in 1 day. - Patients can safely be sent home with
37. What are the surgical options available for deep venous occlusion/reflux
38. What are the elements of the reconstruction ladder?
Duplex Ultrasound - Angiography - CT/MRI
Patient must be standing up as he or she must be able to see the stoma - The stoma must be within the rectus abdominis muscle - Away from scars or skin creases - Away from bony points or waistline of clothes - At a site that is easily accessible to t
A papilloma is an over-growth of all layers of the skin with a central vascular core. They are increasingly common with age.
Healing by secondary intention - Skin graft - Local flap - Distant flap - Composite flap - Island flaps vs pedicled flaps - Free tissue transfer - Composite neurovascular free tissue transfer
39. What other investigations can be done for Sjogren's syndrome?
40. What radiological investigations would be helpful in distinguishing the different causes?
Extrusion of peritoneum and abdominal contents through a weak scar of accidental wound on the abdominal wall - Represents a partial wound dehiscence where the skin remains intact
Healing by secondary intention - Skin graft - Local flap - Distant flap - Composite flap - Island flaps vs pedicled flaps - Free tissue transfer - Composite neurovascular free tissue transfer
Ultrasound would be the first investigation - Abdo wall masses and extent of disease better seen with CT Scan - IV contrast enhance CT scanning to clarify lower abdominal and pelvic vasculature
Remnants of a patent processus vaginalis - Arise from the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels at operation - passing obliquely through the deep inguinal ring and travelling along the inguinal canal with the spermatic cord - Ma
41. What investigations may help confirm the diagnosis of thoracic outlet obstruction?
Cervical rib or prominent transverse process of the Chest X-ray or thoracic outlet views - Doppler examination may be useful in quantifying the postural changes and post-stenotic dilatation - Arteriograms of the subclavian artery may show a marked ki
Surgical treatment involves complete excision of the cyst.
Physical preparation - marking of side - explanation of procedure - anaesthetic work up - Pyschological preparation - Breast care nurse preoperatively and discussion of reasons for mastectomy - option of reconstructive surgery
Motor - Secretomotor - Taste - Sensory
42. What are the indications for lung resection?
Diffuse enlargement - smooth or nodular - Solitary nodule
90% of lung resections in the Western world are performed for bronchial carcinoma. Other indications include traumatic injury - bronchiectasis - chronic infection including tuberculosis - benign tumours e.g carcinoid and metastatic tumour
Emergency procedures e.g following penetrating chest trauma - Cardiac surgery - Resection of lung cancer
Elderly(A for Aged)
43. What is a ganglion?
Urinary retention - Bruising - Pain - often very severe and patients should be discharged with adequate analgesia; chronic groin pain persists in 5% of patients - Haematoma - 10% - Ischaemic orchitis - 0.5%(prev. vasectomy predisposing cause and diss
A cystic swelling related to a synovial lined caivity - either a joint or a tendon sheath
Treatment is essentially surgical - Operation of choice is Sistrunk's operation - Inject patent track with dye at the start of the operation - Excise cyst and the patent or fibrous track which runs through the central portion of the hyoid bone(Which
SRSN -OPD -RAT - Site - Radiation - Severity - Nature - Onset - Periodicity - Duration - Relieved by - Accentuated by - Timing
44. What are the causes of massive splenomegaly?
Myelofibrosis - Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia - Malaria - Tropical splenomegaly - Kala-azar(visceral leishmaniasis)
Non-surgical - if the cyst is not troublesome - it should not be removed - especially in younger men - because there is risk of operative damage and postoperative fibrosis causing subfertility - Surgical - very large or painful cysts can be removed a
Epidermal Cyst - Trichilemmal Cyst
Medical : treat underlying condition - saline cleansing - high-dose oral or intralesional steroids plus/minus cyclosporin - Surgical : serial allograft followed by autologous skin graft or muscle flap coverage when necessary
45. What is the classic presentation of renal cell carcinoma?
46. How would you determine clinically the degree of shunt by a large fistula?
The Branham-Nicoladoni sign indicates the degree of shunting and cardiac impairment resulting from a large AV fistula - The carotid pulse is palpated and then a tourniquet placed around the proximal affected limb and inflated above systolic pressure
TIMEC - Trauma/Tumor - Infection/Inflammation/Ischemia - Metabolic -Mechanical - Endocrine - Congenital
Non-surgical : regression is uncommon - except those arising in pregnancy and so they are best treated surgically - though occassionally a silver nitrate stick can be attempted - Surgical : curettage with diathermy of the base or complete excision b
Benign skin lesions: Moles -freckles -lentigo -pigmented seborrhoeic keratoses - dermatofibromas and thrombosed haemangiomas - When it comes to malignant skin lesions - pigmented basal cell carcinomas
47. How would you treat a pyogenic granuloma?
It helps to give an indication as to What the exact aetiology is.
Non-surgical : regression is uncommon - except those arising in pregnancy and so they are best treated surgically - though occassionally a silver nitrate stick can be attempted - Surgical : curettage with diathermy of the base or complete excision b
It is due to forced implantation of skin into subcutaneous tissues following an injury. Normally found in areas of the body prone to injury such as fingers. Suspect if you see an adult in exam.
Reduction of the contents of the sac - Excision of the sac - Repair of the defect - taking care not to narrow the femoral vein while tightening up the femoral canal
48. What is the non-surgical treatment of a ganglion?
49. In What age group is papillary carcinoma more common in?
High success - 50 to 70% will heal at 3 months - 80 to 90% at 12 months - The patient should be warned to avoid trauma to the affected area - Four-layer compression bandaging - Encourage rest and elevation of leg - Once healed - grade 2 compression s
Commonest in children and young adults(P for Paediatric)
Barrett's oesophagus - Stricture especially chemical - Achalasia - Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
Mnemonic : PS : PLS C TiT - Pharyngeal pouch - Sublingual dermoid cyst - Plunging ranula - Lymph nodes - Subhyoid bursa - Ca - larynx/trachea/oesophagus - Thyroglossal cyst - Thyroid swelling
50. What is the differential diagnosis of a malignant melanoma?
A hypervascular mas displacing the bifurcation of the carotid arteries
Primary disease occurring in isolation
Benign skin lesions: Moles -freckles -lentigo -pigmented seborrhoeic keratoses - dermatofibromas and thrombosed haemangiomas - When it comes to malignant skin lesions - pigmented basal cell carcinomas
Via chorda tympani to anterior two-thirds of the tongue