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Test your basic knowledge |
Clinical Surgery
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Study First
Subjects
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health-sciences
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surgery
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
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Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. How do patients with a pharyngeal pouch usually present?
Normal bilirubin is less than 17 mmol/L and it usually has to reach at least three times this before the sclera is discoloured(i.e >50mmol/L). Very high levels of bilirubin are usually associated with hepatic jaundice
Non-surgical - if the cyst is not troublesome - it should not be removed - especially in younger men - because there is risk of operative damage and postoperative fibrosis causing subfertility - Surgical - very large or painful cysts can be removed a
Depends on local guidelines but essentially: Pneumococcal vaccine - Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine - Meningococcal vaccine - Annual 'flu' vaccine - Consideration for lifelong penicillin or penicillin as required when infection present - Warn a
Patients are usually symptom-free for a long period of time followed by dysphagia and hoarseness - associated with regurgitation of undigested foods - and associated weight-loss
2. What is the treatment of a chemodectoma?
It helps to give an indication as to What the exact aetiology is.
Pleomorphic adenoma(commonest) and Warthin's tumour
Epidermal Cyst - Trichilemmal Cyst
Surgical excision with preoperative embolizatoin if the tumour is large - Ultrasonic surgical dissection may also be used - Radiotherapy is used for patients unfit for surgery or for large tumours
3. How should one conclude a thyroid examination after examining the patient from the back?
Iodine deficiency - Increased physiological demand - Goitrogens(less common) - Defects of thyroid hormone production
Raynaud's phenomenon - Thrombangiitis obliterans - Takayasu's arteritis
Auscultation - Percussion of the thyroid gland and downwards for retrosternal extension
Barium swallow Which is usually diagnostic - Rigid endoscopy if neoplasia suspected
4. What is the pathogenesis of thromboangiitis obliterans?
It is a collagen vascular disease - caused by infiltrate of plasma cells into the arterial wall - This leads to luminal thrombosis and affects small and medium-sized arteries of the lower limb - Eventually - collagen is deposited and forms a thick fi
Patients are usually symptom-free for a long period of time followed by dysphagia and hoarseness - associated with regurgitation of undigested foods - and associated weight-loss
Dissection of the hernial sac from surrounding tissues and definitioni of tissue bordering the defect on all sides to 2-3cm - Closing the defect(if small) and/or using mesh overlapping adequately( more than 5 to 8cm) over normal tissues to allows for
Wash Hands - Observe from end of bed - Start examination from right-hand side - Look for JACCOL which means jaundice -anaemia -cyanosis -clubbing -oedema and lymphadenopathy - Observation -Palpation -Percussion and Auscultation
5. What is the purpose of limb elevation in the non-surgical treatment of lymphoedema?
If untreated - 25% progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma
Causes can be divided into pathology within and outside the SVC. Within the SVC obstruction tends to be as a consequence of thrombosis within intravenous jugular or subclavian lines(CPV Lines) - especially when hyperosmolar solutions are infused for
It reduces intravascular hydrostatic pressure and the stockings increase extracellular hydrostatic pressure - together reducing the level of tissue oedema.
Produces IgM - to capture and process foreign antigen - Filters especially encapsulated microorganisms e.g pneumococcus - Sequesters and removes old red blood cells and platelets - Recycles iron - Pools platelets(30% of total platelets within spleen)
6. What is the mean age for presentation of follicular carcinoma of the thyroid?
Mean age is 50 years at presentation(F for fifty)
Results from persistence of part of the thyroglossal tract - which marks development descent of the thyroid gland
SRSN -OPD -RAT - Site - Radiation - Severity - Nature - Onset - Periodicity - Duration - Relieved by - Accentuated by - Timing
Gumma of tertiary syphillis has a typical punched-out ulcer - over the anterior surface of the lower leg and has a yellow coloured 'wash leather' base. - Scalloped border
7. Conservative way to treat varicose veins?
Least common - Occurs on hairless skin - Irregular area of brown or black pigmentation
Gradual elastic compression stocking - grade 2 compression - Encourage weight loss and regular exercise
Derived from capillary endothelial cells or from fibrous tissue - It is linked to human herpes virus 8
Increase in size - Ulceration - Change in colour - Irritation - Bleeding - Halo of pigmentation - Satellite nodules - Enlarged local lymph nodes - Evidence of distant spread
8. What is neurofibromatosis?
Mneumonic : LIST Lymphoma and Leukaemia - Infection(further subdivided into Bacterial - Viral - Protozoal and Toxoplasmosis) - Sarcoidosis - Tumours
Sturge-Weber syndrome is the association of a facial port-wine stain with a corresponding haemangioma in the brain - leading to contralateral focal fits.
Presence of multiple neurofibromas in a patient - in combination with other dermatological manifestations(six cafe-au-lait psots) - It is an autosomal dominant condition with two types: 1 and 2.
Benign skin lesion: Keratoacanthoma - Infected seborrhoeic wart - Solar keratoses - Pyogenic Granuloma - Malignant skin lesion - Basal cell carcinoma - Malingnant melanoma - Congenital: Xeroderma pigmentosum - Acquired - Environmental agents - Pre-ex
9. How would you treat solar keratoses?
Non-surgical : cryotherapy - topical application of 5-fluorouracil - retinoic acid - Surgical : Shaving of affected skin
A seborrhoeic keratosis is a benign overgrowth of the basal cell layer of the epidermis.
40 X increased risk of developing lymphoma - usually B-Cell non-Hodgkin's type
It arises de novo
10. How do paraumbilical herniae occur?
Paraumbilical herniae occur around the umbilical scar. They are uncommon before the age of 40 years and can become large. Peristalsis can be observed through the skin when the defect is large. The neck of the sac is often tight and held with a fibrou
Mnemonic : CHIASMA - Congestive : cardiac failure - Haematological : reticuloses - Infection : viral -bacterial -protozoal - Amyloid - Storage disorders : Wilson's disease - haemochromatosis - Masses: primary/secondary neoplasia - Autoimmune/alcohol
Auscultation - Percussion of the thyroid gland and downwards for retrosternal extension
Causes can be divided into pathology within and outside the SVC. Within the SVC obstruction tends to be as a consequence of thrombosis within intravenous jugular or subclavian lines(CPV Lines) - especially when hyperosmolar solutions are infused for
11. How would you perform a hernia repair?
Lymphangiomas can be:Cystic - Solid or diffuse - Cutaneous
End-to-end anastamosis - patching and the use of the left subclavian artery as a flap are all surgical options
The main points to mention are: testicular damage should be mentioned as a specific risk factor - the operation can be performed under local or general anaesthetic and often as a day case - The Royal College of Surgeons has recommended the Lichtenste
Epigastric pain - which may increase after meals - May be acutely painful after physical exercise - Nausea and early satiety - Reflux and non-ulcer dyspepsia
12. What conditions increase the risk of developing pressure sores?
Immobility and prolonged bed-rest are the most important factors - particulary secondary to conditions such as: Cardiopulmonary disease - Trauma - Neurological disease such as paraplegia - Bone and joint disease - Prolonged operative procedures - And
Unilateral total lobectomy and isthmusectomy
Liver Cirrhosis - Inflammatory Bowel disease - Malabsorption - Gastrointestinal lymphoma
Fibroadenomas - Breast cysts - Fat necrosis - Breast cancer
13. What is a dermatofibroma?
It is a collagen vascular disease - caused by infiltrate of plasma cells into the arterial wall - This leads to luminal thrombosis and affects small and medium-sized arteries of the lower limb - Eventually - collagen is deposited and forms a thick fi
Commonest in children and young adults(P for Paediatric)
Ultrasound - first line - Which is used to define the liver architecture and give an idea of the size and may identify the pathology - Contrast-enhanced CT may also be useful - especially to further investigate solid lesions
A dermatofibroma is a benign neoplasm of dermal fibroblasts.
14. What are patients with Sjogren's syndrome at risk of?
15. In the tourniquet test - What do collapsed veins below the tourniquet indicate?
The incompetent vein is at or above the level of the tourniquet
Bilateral subtotal thyroidectomy leaving approximately 4g of thyroid tissue on each side of the trachea
Patients are usually symptom-free for a long period of time followed by dysphagia and hoarseness - associated with regurgitation of undigested foods - and associated weight-loss
It is often advised as the problem usually gets worse with age and there is risk of infertility.
16. What are the main types of predisposing factors for basal cell carcinoma?
Lymphangiomas can be:Cystic - Solid or diffuse - Cutaneous
Are you having difficulties swallowing liquids - or solids - or both? - Did the problem start suddenly or was the onset gradual? - Do you ever regurgitate food? - Can you eat a full meal? - How long have you had this problem for? - Where does the foo
Congenital Which is rare and Acquired Which is very common.
The aneurysm is surgically repaired by either an excision bypass -where the popliteal artery is ligated above and below the diseased segment and a graft interposed - or a simple resection and anastamoses without the use of a graft - Acute ischemia ca
17. What is the ABPI of patients with intermittent claudication?
Emergency procedures e.g following penetrating chest trauma - Cardiac surgery - Resection of lung cancer
Primary Raynauds is due to vasomotor malformation - Secondary Raynauds occurs as a consequence of pathology affecting the vessel wall
0.5 to 0.8
A papilloma is an over-growth of all layers of the skin with a central vascular core. They are increasingly common with age.
18. What is the definition of an enterocutaneous fistula?
A enterocutaneous fistula is an abnormal connection between the gastrointestinal tract and the skin
Almost all are follicular adenomas - Usually 2 to 4 cm and encapsulated at presentation - Indistinguishable from carcinomas on FNAC - as the presence of a capsule cannot be demonstrated - Surgical excision is needed to confirm diagnosis
Causes can be divided into pathology within and outside the SVC. Within the SVC obstruction tends to be as a consequence of thrombosis within intravenous jugular or subclavian lines(CPV Lines) - especially when hyperosmolar solutions are infused for
Popliteal aneurysms represent 80% of all peripheral (non-aortic) aneurysms - The patient may have presented with a lump behind the knee if the aneurysm has grown to such a size that it has expanded beyond the popliteal fossa - 50% present with distal
19. What is primary lymphoedema?
Refers to congenital disease or primary lymphatic failure. It is three times more common in women and the pathology originates from within the lymphatics. It is also known as Milroys disease.
Chest infection due to pulmonary aspiration - Diverticular neoplasia in less than 1% of cases
Normal bilirubin is less than 17 mmol/L and it usually has to reach at least three times this before the sclera is discoloured(i.e >50mmol/L). Very high levels of bilirubin are usually associated with hepatic jaundice
Raynaud's phenomenon - Thrombangiitis obliterans - Takayasu's arteritis
20. What are the features of infantile polycystic kidney disease?
Defined as portal vein pressure of more than 10mmHg(normal 5-10). Portal blood flow through the liver is greatly reduced or even reversed in the most severe cases
This is the array of plastic surgeon techniques of increasing complexity that is available to the surgeon and Which is used according to their suitability for individual patients
Autosomal recessive - 1 in 5000 to 40000 - Chromosome 6 is affected - It presents perinatally
Presence of multiple neurofibromas in a patient - in combination with other dermatological manifestations(six cafe-au-lait psots) - It is an autosomal dominant condition with two types: 1 and 2.
21. What is the surgical treatment of benign parotid tumours?
Infections within the oesophagus especially candidiasis and herpes simplex - Pharyngitis - Occasionally ulceration over the lower third of the oesophagus
Surgical treatment is superficial parotidectomy(if superfical lobe of gland only involved) or total parotidectomy with preservation of the facial nerve(if deep lobe of gland or both lobes involved)
Mneumonic : BEDD - Base - Edge - Describe structure visualized at the base of the ulcer - Discharge
Necrotizing vasculitis - Purpuric -haemorrhagic bullae
22. What are the three main options available for the treatment of malignant melanoma?
For patients who refuse radiation therapy or relapse after an adequate course - pregnant patients or those wishing to become pregnant within 4 years - patients under the age of 40 years and those with nodular or large goitres
Excision for the main lesion with varying margins depending on the size of the lesion. - If there is nodal spread - Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology or Lymph node biopsy - Therapeutic Block Dissection(if palpable lymph nodes) - Palliation adjuvant th
Aneurysms are most common in: Men - Aged more than 60 years - Smokers - Hypertensive patients - Often strong family history
Treatment is essentially surgical - Operation of choice is Sistrunk's operation - Inject patent track with dye at the start of the operation - Excise cyst and the patent or fibrous track which runs through the central portion of the hyoid bone(Which
23. What is the non-surgical treatment of a multinodular goitre?
24. What are the important elements in the description of an ulcer?
Mneumonic : BEDD - Base - Edge - Describe structure visualized at the base of the ulcer - Discharge
Discolouration - Discharge - Depression - Deviation - Displacement - Destruction - [Duplication - unlikely in the exam]
Mneumonic : LIST Lymphoma and Leukaemia - Infection(further subdivided into Bacterial - Viral - Protozoal and Toxoplasmosis) - Sarcoidosis - Tumours
Diet should be normal - Bag should be changed once or twice a day(needs to be emptied more frequently than this if it is urine or fluid faeces) - Ileostomies should have the base plate under the bag changed every 5 days and the bag changed daily - Ps
25. What is the pathogenesis of umbilical herniae?
These are due to a defect through the linea alba adjacent to the umbilicus and usually due to obesity stretching the fibres.
The aorta is narrowed below the origin of the left subclavian artery and therefore blood flow to the abdomen and legs is reduced - The prominent vessels over the back are large collateral that have developed to bypass the obstruction and supply the l
Mnemonic : PACT - Prominent nodule in a multinodular goitre - Adenoma - Cyst/Carcinoma/Lymphoma - Thyroiditis
At two levels:ABO Compatibility - HLA Compatibility
26. What factors predispose to incisional hernia?
Blood Tests:Haematological - FBC - ESR - Biochemical : TFT - ACE Levels(raised in sarcoidosis) - Serological : 'monospot' or Paul-Bunnell test looking for atypical mononuclear cells in infectious mononucleosis - Radiological : Ultrasound - CT Scan an
Preoperative - Age -Immunocompromised state -obesity -malignancy -abdominal distension from obstruction or ascites - Operate - Poor technical closure of the wound -placing drains through wounds - Postoperative - wound infection or haematoma - early m
Congenital : Cystic disease - horseshoe kidney - hypertrophic single kidney - Acquired : Diseases specific to the kidney such as solitary cysts - tumours - hydronephrosis - pyonephrosis - perinephric abscess and renal vein thrombosis and diseases as
Wound complications - Recurrence - Damage to adjacent neurovascular structures
27. How should one treat a sebaceous cyst?
VINTA MEDIC - Vascular - Iatrogenic - Neoplastic - Traumatic - Autoimmune - Metabolic - Endocrine - Degenerative - Inflammatory/Infective - Congenital
A skin flap consists of tissue - or tissues - transferred from one site of the body to another - while maintaining a continuous blood supply through a vascular pedicle.
Third cranial nerve palsy - complete ptosis - Horner's syndrome - partial ptosis - Syphillis
Non-Surgical : May be left alone if small and asymptomatic - Surgical : To prevent recurrence - complete excision of the cyst and its contents is required and this is done through the removal of an elliptical portion of skin containing the punctum.
28. What are the signs in the mouth of acanthosis nigricans?
Pressure effects - Deafness with involvement of the 8th cranial nerve - Sarcomatous transformation - Intra-abdominal effects - Skeletal changes
Duplex - shows area of reflux and deep venous occlusion - Venography - ascending which identifies deep venous patency and perforator incompetence and descending which identifies areas of reflux - Varicography - shows sites of communication - Ambulato
Use of truss or corset - Weight loss and management of other risk factors
Black discolouration of the skin
29. How is 'matching' of transplanted kidneys performed?
VINTA MEDIC - Vascular - Iatrogenic - Neoplastic - Traumatic - Autoimmune - Metabolic - Endocrine - Degenerative - Inflammatory/Infective - Congenital
Commonest in children and young adults(P for Paediatric)
Congenital : Cystic disease - horseshoe kidney - hypertrophic single kidney - Acquired : Diseases specific to the kidney such as solitary cysts - tumours - hydronephrosis - pyonephrosis - perinephric abscess and renal vein thrombosis and diseases as
At two levels:ABO Compatibility - HLA Compatibility
30. What are the arterial symptoms in thoracic outlet obstruction more commonly due to?
31. What are the signs of chronic venous insufficiency?
Barrett's oesophagus - Stricture especially chemical - Achalasia - Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
Epidermal Cyst - Trichilemmal Cyst
The tumour arises from epidermal cells that normally migrate to the skin surface to form the superficial keratinizing squamous layer. Full-thickness epidermal atypia is seen and tumour cells are seen to extend in all directions into the deep dermis a
Mnemonic : LEGS - Lipodermatosclerosis - Eczema - Gaps in the skin i.e ulceration - active and healed - Swelling - pedal oedema
32. What is the anatomical classifcations of hydrocoeles?
Vaginal Hydrocoele - fluid accumulates in the tunica vaginalis - Hydrocoele of the cord - fluid accumulates around the spermatic cord - Congenital Hydrocoele - Infantile Hydrocoele
Mnemonic : PACT - Prominent nodule in a multinodular goitre - Adenoma - Cyst/Carcinoma/Lymphoma - Thyroiditis
Idiopathic(50%) - Myeloproliferative disorders - Autoimmune hepatitis - More common in males than females
It is often advised as the problem usually gets worse with age and there is risk of infertility.
33. What other non-surgical treatments are available for ischaemic ulcers?
Surgery is indicated for: Symptomatic aneurysms - Those containing thrombus - Those greater than 2cm
Those related to anaesthesia
Risk factor modification - stopping smoking - good diabetic and hypertensive control and optimized serum lipid levels - Symptom modification - avoidance of drugs which might worsen symptoms - commencement of low-dose aspirin daily -IV prostaglandins
Diffuse enlargement - smooth or nodular - Solitary nodule
34. What are the cause of cervical lymphadenopathy that you know of?
Diffuse enlargement - smooth or nodular - Solitary nodule
Ultrasound would be the first investigation - Abdo wall masses and extent of disease better seen with CT Scan - IV contrast enhance CT scanning to clarify lower abdominal and pelvic vasculature
Lobectomy - Pneumonectomy - Non-anatomical resection are often performed for traumatic injury - Sleeve resection
Mneumonic : LIST Lymphoma and Leukaemia - Infection(further subdivided into Bacterial - Viral - Protozoal and Toxoplasmosis) - Sarcoidosis - Tumours
35. What are the non-surgical treatment options for lymphoedema?
Psychological and social implications - Haematoma and wound infection - including gas gangrene - Deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolus - Phantom limb pain - due to the sensory cortex 'believing' the limb is still present - Skin necrosis
Infections within the oesophagus especially candidiasis and herpes simplex - Pharyngitis - Occasionally ulceration over the lower third of the oesophagus
Grade 3 compression stockings to apply 40mmHg pressure at the ankles - Intermittent pneumatic compression device - Cellulitis should be treated - Advise patient to elevate their leg as much as possible and stress the importance of cleanliness and car
Tumour - parotid gland malignancy - Trauma - surgical - accidental e.g facial lacerations
36. What are the two types of complications of thyroidectomy?
General - Specific
Cervical spondylosis - Pancoast's tumour - Cervical disc protrusions - Ulnar nerve neuropathy
Non-surgically via aspiration and injection of sclerosant surgically via excision which may be partial ( to relieve symptoms) or complete as a one-stage procedure.
Similar to those in the right iliac fossa except for the bowel where a mass in the Left iliac fossa could indicate: Diverticular mass Which is often tender - Carcinoma of the colon - Faecal mass
37. What is a cyst?
An abnormal sac containing gas -fluid or semisolid material - with an epithelial lining
Those related to anaesthesia
Mean age is 50 years at presentation(F for fifty)
Demographics - Presenting Complaint - History of Presenting Complaint - Medical and Surgical History - Drugs and any other allergies - Family History - Social History - Systemic Enquiry
38. What is the pathology of Sjogren's syndrome?
Nephrotic syndrome - Tuberculosis - Chylous ascites
Use of gloves and discontinuing any predisposing drugs e.g beta blockers - Using warm pads in gloves and socks in the winter - Encourage patients to stop smoking
Those related to anaesthesia
Lymphocyte-mediated destruction of the exocrine glands secondary to B-cell hyper-reactivity and associated loss of suppressor T-Cell activity
39. What investigations are appropriate for deep venous disease?
Vascular symptoms - Risk factors for arterial disease - Fitness for surgery
Cyanotic congenital heart disease - Infective endocarditis - Atrial myxoma (rare)
'Watch and wait' or aspiration followed by 3 weeks of immobilzation
Duplex - shows area of reflux and deep venous occlusion - Venography - ascending which identifies deep venous patency and perforator incompetence and descending which identifies areas of reflux - Varicography - shows sites of communication - Ambulato
40. What symptoms - a patient with an epigastric hernia might have complained of at presentation?
Epigastric pain - which may increase after meals - May be acutely painful after physical exercise - Nausea and early satiety - Reflux and non-ulcer dyspepsia
Well-differentiated - Myxoid and round cell - Pleomorphic liposarcoma
Traumatic - Iatrogenic(following angiography and bypass)
A neurofibroma is a benign tumour derived from peripheral nerve elements.
41. What is Adiposis dolorosa or Dercum's disease associated with?
Peripheral Neuropathy
Through an inguinal approach - with early clamping of the testicular artery and vein within the spermatic cord before the testis is mobilized out of the scrotum - this prevents intraoperative seeding of tumour up the testicular vein
Demographics - Presenting Complaint - History of Presenting Complaint - Medical and Surgical History - Drugs and any other allergies - Family History - Social History - Systemic Enquiry
Diet should be normal - Bag should be changed once or twice a day(needs to be emptied more frequently than this if it is urine or fluid faeces) - Ileostomies should have the base plate under the bag changed every 5 days and the bag changed daily - Ps
42. What is the differential diagnosis of a ganglion?
Extrahepatic : caused by increased resistance to flow e.g : portal or splenic vein thrombosis - Intrahepatic : due to cirrhosis - right heart failure - sarcoidosis and schistosomiasis(the latter is the most important cause worldwide - ova of the para
Bursae - Cystic protrusions from the synovial cavity of arthritic joints - Benign giant cell tumors of the flexor sheath - Rarely : Malignant swelling e.g synovial sarcoma
Extrusion of peritoneum and abdominal contents through a weak scar of accidental wound on the abdominal wall - Represents a partial wound dehiscence where the skin remains intact
Triple assessment which consists of: Clinical : history and physical examination - Radiological : ultrasound or mammography - Pathological : cytology(fine-needle aspiration) or histological(tru-cut biopsy)
43. What are the causes of a false aneurysm?
A carbuncle is an extensive infection of hair follicles by the same organism with involvement of adjacent follicles and development of draining sinuses. It is associated with diabetes and is treated with a combination of systemic antibiotics and surg
Early mobilization is important - They should keep the area clean and wash carefully -especially after the clip/sutures have been removed - They are able to bathe immediately - They may need to be off work for 6 weeks if their job involves heavy lift
Lymphocyte-mediated destruction of the exocrine glands secondary to B-cell hyper-reactivity and associated loss of suppressor T-Cell activity
Traumatic - Iatrogenic(following angiography and bypass)
44. What investigations should one do in the management of a multinodular goitre?
Hyperkeratosis - Acanthosis - Hyperplasia of variably pigmented basaloid cells
Arising inside the parotid gland - Arising outside the parotid gland
Non-Surgical : leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Surgical : Indicated only if malignant growth suspected; post-excision - local regrowth is common as neurofibromata cannot be surgically detached from underlying n
Thyroid function tests - hyperthyroid - Ultrasound - dimensions of goitre and nodules looking for dominant nodules or cysts for FNAC - Chest X-ray as a retrosternal goitre may compress the trachea
45. How would you perform an ascitic tap?
High-energy X-rays interact with tissues to release electrons of high kinetic energy - which cause secondary damage to adjacent DNA via an oxygen-dependent mechanism. The damage is either repairable or non-repairable - the latter manifesting itself a
Sacrum - Greater trochanter - Heel - Lateral Malleolus - Ischial Tuberosity - Occiput
The pain is caused by a reduced blood supply to the distal aspects of the limb. The pain gets worse at night because the perfusion of the limb is further reduced when the patient is lying down - This is due to: Decreased cardiac output at night - Red
The procedure should be performed under sterile condition and if the ascites is not clinically apparent or easy to locate - it should be done by a radiologist under ultrasound guidance to prevent inadvertent injuries to intra-abdominal structures.
46. What investigations would be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of coarctation of aorta?
47. What are the features of an inguinal hernia?
Found above the inguinal ligament - Usually reducible - Commoner in males - 6:1 - Risk of strangulation is low - Cough impulse present
Increase in size - Ulceration - Change in colour - Irritation - Bleeding - Halo of pigmentation - Satellite nodules - Enlarged local lymph nodes - Evidence of distant spread
Site and size of varicosities - including the presence of saphena varix - Skin for changes and scars - Swelling of the ankle
Peripheral Neuropathy
48. What should one point out when describing the features of a thyroid swelling?
Size - Tenderness - Mobility - Consistency
Extrusion of peritoneum and abdominal contents through a weak scar of accidental wound on the abdominal wall - Represents a partial wound dehiscence where the skin remains intact
A pharyngeal pouch is formed by the herniation of pharyngeal mucosa(known as a pulsion diverticulum) through its muscular coat at its weakest point(Killian's dehiscence) between the thyropharyngeal and cricopharyngeal muscles that make up the inferio
The pain is caused by a reduced blood supply to the distal aspects of the limb. The pain gets worse at night because the perfusion of the limb is further reduced when the patient is lying down - This is due to: Decreased cardiac output at night - Red
49. What are the causes of simple colloid goitres?
Mnemonic : SPRUE - Site of enlargement : from the right costal margin towards the right iliac fossa - Percussion Note : dull - Respiration Movement: it descends - Unable to get above it - Edge : may be smooth or irregular
Iodine deficiency - Increased physiological demand - Goitrogens(less common) - Defects of thyroid hormone production
Non-surgical : regression is uncommon - except those arising in pregnancy and so they are best treated surgically - though occassionally a silver nitrate stick can be attempted - Surgical : curettage with diathermy of the base or complete excision b
Calcium channel blockers e.g nifedipine - Prostacyclin analogues - Alpha blockers - 5-HT antagonists
50. What are the hepatobiliary complications of IBD?
Liver - fatty change - chronic active hepatitis -cirrhosis and amyloid deposition - Gall bladder and bile ducts - gallstones - sclerosing cholangitis - and cholangiocarcinoma
It helps to give an indication as to What the exact aetiology is.
Venous gangrene is a rare complication of deep vein thrombosis in the iliofemoral segment and presents in three phases: 1 - Phlegmasia alba dolens - white leg 2 - Phlegmasia cerulea dolens - blue leg 3 - Gangrene - occurs as a consequence of acute is
Almost all are follicular adenomas - Usually 2 to 4 cm and encapsulated at presentation - Indistinguishable from carcinomas on FNAC - as the presence of a capsule cannot be demonstrated - Surgical excision is needed to confirm diagnosis