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Test your basic knowledge |
Clinical Surgery
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
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health-sciences
,
surgery
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What are the signs in the mouth of Peutz-Jegher disease?
Sunlight - Pre-existing skin lesions - Previous melanoma
Non-adherent dressing over ulcer plus wool bandage - Crepe bandage - Blue-line bandage - Adhesive bandage to prevent the other layers from slipping
VINTA MEDIC - Vascular - Iatrogenic - Neoplastic - Traumatic - Autoimmune - Metabolic - Endocrine - Degenerative - Inflammatory/Infective - Congenital
Pigmented freckles around the lips and inside the mouth - associated with intestinal intussusception and gastrointestinal bleeding from colonic polyps
2. What are the intracranial causes of facial nerve palsy?
Vascular - Cerebrovascular accident - Tumour - acoustic neuroma - Infection - Meningitis(rarely
Superficial spreading at 70% of malignant melanomas
Clinical examination - Fine-needle aspiration which would show an opalescent fluid containing cholesterol crystals or pus.
Barium swallow may be useful - If diagnosis is in doubt - endoscopy with biopsies and brushings should be performed to exclude a carcinoma - Physiological function could be tested using 24-hour oesophageal pH studies to exclude reflux and manometry
3. What are the three objectives to be taken note of in the inspection part of the arterial examination?
Procedure usually performed as a day case - Need to wear tight-fitting stockings for 6 weeks preoperatively - No driving for 1 week - Does not alter the skin changes - including skin flares - May not improve symptoms such as aching - Risk of recurren
According to site - contents and if it is random or axial. When it comes to site - you consider where it is local or distant(Which is also known as a free flap). You have to also consider the contents which can contain any tissue capable of transfer
Auscultation - Percussion of the thyroid gland and downwards for retrosternal extension
Colour changes - Trophic changes - Vascular angle
4. How would you investigate a patient who was referred with a carotid bruit?
Epigastric pain - which may increase after meals - May be acutely painful after physical exercise - Nausea and early satiety - Reflux and non-ulcer dyspepsia
Mnemonic : L-SHAPE - Lymph node/Lipoma of the cord - Sapheno-varix/Skin lesions(sebaceous cyst/lipoma -etc) - Hernia - inguinal or femoral - Aneurysmal dilatation of the femoral artery - Psoas abscess or bursa - Ectopic/undescended testes
The patient should have a full workup for atherosclerosis - General investigations : Urinalysis for proteinuria - marker of atherosclerotic renal disease - Blood tests: FBC for anemia - which might precipitate symptoms - Renal function for possible u
Truelove classification - Gastrointestinal symptoms : passage of bloody stools more than 6 times per day - Systemic signs : tachycardia and pyrexia - Laboratory findings : anaemia and CRP more than 30
5. What is the adequate treatment for minimal lesion(less than 1cm) in thyroid cancer?
More common in females - Occur most commonly in the fourth or fifth decade - 10% in middle-aged are malignant but 50% are malignat in the young and the elderly - FNAC is the most important investigation
Unilateral total lobectomy and isthmusectomy
10% per year
Excision of a single lobe of the lung
6. When should the drains be removed post-surgery?
Often surgeons place two drains - one in the axilla and one at the site of surgery within the breast tissue - The drains are usually left for 3 to 5 days or until the drainage volume is less than 50mL in 1 day. - Patients can safely be sent home with
Infections within the oesophagus especially candidiasis and herpes simplex - Pharyngitis - Occasionally ulceration over the lower third of the oesophagus
Healing by secondary intention - Skin graft - Local flap - Distant flap - Composite flap - Island flaps vs pedicled flaps - Free tissue transfer - Composite neurovascular free tissue transfer
malignant change?
7. What factors predispose to incisional hernia?
Size - Tenderness - Mobility - Consistency
Secondary Raynaud's phenomenon associated with other diseases
Primary Raynauds is due to vasomotor malformation - Secondary Raynauds occurs as a consequence of pathology affecting the vessel wall
Preoperative - Age -Immunocompromised state -obesity -malignancy -abdominal distension from obstruction or ascites - Operate - Poor technical closure of the wound -placing drains through wounds - Postoperative - wound infection or haematoma - early m
8. What are the causes of bilateral ptosis?
Congenital ptosis - Myopathies - Syphillis
The reason for repairing abdominal aortic aneurysm is to avoid complications - The following aneurysms should be repaired: Symptomatic aneurysms(back pain - tenderness over the aneurysm on palpation -distal embolic events - ruptured/leaked aneurysms)
Indications for amputation can be remembered as the 4Ds: Dead - ischemic - peripheral vascular disease - thromboangiitis obliterans - AV fistulae - Damaged - trauma - unsalvageable limbs - burns - frostbite - Dangerous - Malignancy - bone and soft ti
Superior thyroid artery - Inferior thyroid artery - Thyroidea ima(in 3% of people)
9. In which patients are abdominal aortic aneurysms most common?
A lipoma is a benign tumour consisting of mature fat cells.
Similar to those in the right iliac fossa except for the bowel where a mass in the Left iliac fossa could indicate: Diverticular mass Which is often tender - Carcinoma of the colon - Faecal mass
Aneurysms are most common in: Men - Aged more than 60 years - Smokers - Hypertensive patients - Often strong family history
Hypertrophic scars tend to appear soon after injury and usually regress spontaneously - while keloid scars appear months after injury and continue to grow
10. What do you know about the pathophysiology of varicose veins?
A skin graft involves the transfer of skin from a donor site to a recipient site independent of a blood supply. The graft 'takes' by acquiring a blood supply from a healthy donor bed. Skin grafts may either be full thickness or partial thickness - bu
Emergency procedures e.g following penetrating chest trauma - Cardiac surgery - Resection of lung cancer
Blood Tests:FBC - to look for raised white cell count in infection - Liver function - to look out for hypoalbuminaemia or evidence of hepatic dysfunction - Clotting - functional hepatic impairment - CRP/ESR - increased in infection/inflammation and i
Fibrous tissue invades the tunica intima and media of the vein and breaks up the smooth muscle - preventing the maintenance of adequate vascular tone. These changes are patchy and may not affect adjacent segments of vein.
11. What is the treatment of medullary carcinoma?
Cardiac disease - hypertension -myocardial infarction -ischaemia -mitral valve disease - cardiomyopathy -endocarditis - Respiratory disease - Pneumonia - lung cancer - sarcoidosis - Other: Hypothyroidism and idiopathic ( lone AF)
Treatment is radical surgery with follow-up using sequent calcitonin assays
Lord's plication - Jaboulay's operation
Rapid growth and pain(on history) - Hyperemic hot skin - Hard consistency - Fixed to skin and underlying muscle - Irregular surface or ill-defined edge - Facial nerve involvement
12. What are the specific early complications of amputations?
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13. What are the medical options for Raynauds?
Non-surgical : regression is uncommon - except those arising in pregnancy and so they are best treated surgically - though occassionally a silver nitrate stick can be attempted - Surgical : curettage with diathermy of the base or complete excision b
Traumatic - Iatrogenic(following angiography and bypass)
Calcium channel blockers e.g nifedipine - Prostacyclin analogues - Alpha blockers - 5-HT antagonists
Blood Tests:Haematological - FBC - ESR - Biochemical : TFT - ACE Levels(raised in sarcoidosis) - Serological : 'monospot' or Paul-Bunnell test looking for atypical mononuclear cells in infectious mononucleosis - Radiological : Ultrasound - CT Scan an
14. What is the differential diagnosis of a testicular tumour?
Testicular tumours can be mimicked by chronic or old infection leading to scarring such as in orchitis or tuberculosis - Occasionally a long-standing hydrocoele may develop calcification and become harder - clinically similar to a tumour - Tumours oc
May require the placing of postoperative drains
Donor renal artery is anastamosed to either the internal or external iliac artery - The donor renal vein is anastamosed to the external iliac vein - The ureter is anastamosed seperately to the patient's bladder - The renal pelvis the most anterior st
Within the lumen: Foreign body - oesophageal web - Plummer-Vinson syndrome - In the wall : Carcinoma of the oesophagus -oesophagitis -barrett's oesophagus - benign oesophageal stricture and post-radiation or chemical strictures - Outside the wall: re
15. How might the liver function tests help in distinguishing the types of jaundice?
It is a collagen vascular disease - caused by infiltrate of plasma cells into the arterial wall - This leads to luminal thrombosis and affects small and medium-sized arteries of the lower limb - Eventually - collagen is deposited and forms a thick fi
It helps to give an indication as to What the exact aetiology is.
Skin and soft tissues such as a sebaceous cyst -lipoma or sarcoma - Bowel - ca caecum - crohns mass in terminal ileum - TB terminal ileum - appendicular mass or abscess - Gynaecological organs - ovarian tumours or fibroid uterus - Male Reproductive S
Thyroid function tests - hyperthyroid - Ultrasound - dimensions of goitre and nodules looking for dominant nodules or cysts for FNAC - Chest X-ray as a retrosternal goitre may compress the trachea
16. What are the main features of neuropathic ulcers?
Diabetic neuropathy and peripheral occlusive arterial disease are the major aetiological factors for the development of ulceration and may act alone - together or in combination with other factors such as microvascular disease - biomechanical abnorma
The insensitive - mechanically abnormal - dry foot is at risk from unperceived external trauma e.g from shoes and from repetitive painless injury e.g foreign body in shoe. Progressive skin loss and ulceration may occur.
Should The Children Ever Find Lumps Readily
Painless - Associated with normal appearance of the surrounding skin - Associated with local sensory loss
17. What is the differential diagnosis of swollen legs?
Cardiac failure - Tricuspid regurgitation - Constrictive pericarditis
A blepharoplasty can be performed where excess skin and fat are removed.
Barrett's oesophagus - Stricture especially chemical - Achalasia - Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
Central causes - RHF - hypoalbuminaemia -nephrotic syndrome and hypothyroidism - Peripheral - venous disease such as DVT - Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome - chronic venous insufficiency or post-phlebitic limb - Rare - angio-oedema - arteriovenous malforma
18. How would you perform an ascitic tap?
Intra-abdominal abscesses should be drained - Colonic defunctioning using a loop ileostomy may be needed for patients who have failed medical therapy - Occasionally a subtotal colectomy and permanent ileostomy may be needed - Pouch surgery is general
The procedure should be performed under sterile condition and if the ascites is not clinically apparent or easy to locate - it should be done by a radiologist under ultrasound guidance to prevent inadvertent injuries to intra-abdominal structures.
Ischaemic ulcers can be extremely painful and even removing the bandages from around the ulcer can cause pain that lasts for several hours. The analgesic ladder would be appropriate in this situation starting from simple oral agents -stronger oral ag
A skin flap consists of tissue - or tissues - transferred from one site of the body to another - while maintaining a continuous blood supply through a vascular pedicle.
19. What is a keratoacanthoma?
Through an inguinal approach - with early clamping of the testicular artery and vein within the spermatic cord before the testis is mobilized out of the scrotum - this prevents intraoperative seeding of tumour up the testicular vein
A keratoacanthoma is a benign overgrowth of hair follicle cells that produces a central plug of keratin. It is rapidly growing - forming within 6 weeks and regressing after 6 weeks - leaving a depressed scar. Clinically and cytologically they may loo
Ultrasound - first line - Which is used to define the liver architecture and give an idea of the size and may identify the pathology - Contrast-enhanced CT may also be useful - especially to further investigate solid lesions
Those related to anaesthesia
20. What are the questions that should be asked when taking a history for a lump or ulcer?
Lined by stratified squamous or ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium - May also contain thyroid or lymphoid tissue - which can undergo malignant change - If malignancy occurs - usually of thyroid papillary type.
Cyanotic congenital heart disease - Infective endocarditis - Atrial myxoma (rare)
Peripheral neuropathy has several effects: Slowly progressive sensory loss - with numbness and tingling of the feet and sometimes also hands. The sensory loss is often glove-and-stocking in distribution and may also be associated with motor impairmen
Onset and Continuous Symptoms - When did you first notice it? - What made you notice it? - Predisposing events? - How does it bother you? - What symptoms does it cause? - Has it changed since you first noticed it ? - Have you noticed any other lumps?
21. What are the main features of splenomegaly in the clinical examination?
The major differential diagnoses would be with a renal tumour and adult polcystic kidney disease and if there is any doubt of a tumour - then the cyst fluid may be sent for cytological analysis
Mnemonic : L-SHAPE - Lymph node/Lipoma of the cord - Sapheno-varix/Skin lesions(sebaceous cyst/lipoma -etc) - Hernia - inguinal or femoral - Aneurysmal dilatation of the femoral artery - Psoas abscess or bursa - Ectopic/undescended testes
A furuncle results from infection of hair follicles with Staphylococcus aureus
SPRUE - Site of enlargement - from the left costal margin towards the umbilicus - Percussion note - dull - Respiration movement - it descends - Unable to get above it or ballot it(differentiating it from the kidney) - Edge - a notch may be palpable o
22. What are the other types of arteriovenous fistula?
Wash Hands - Observe from end of bed - Start examination from right-hand side - Look for JACCOL which means jaundice -anaemia -cyanosis -clubbing -oedema and lymphadenopathy - Observation -Palpation -Percussion and Auscultation
The major risk is embolic stroke(4% per year) which results from thrombus accumulating in an inefficiently contracting left atrium - Emboli can also lodge in the mesenteric vessel - causing intestinal ischaemia - Patients are also at risk from acute
Via the lymphatic route(Y for yellow = lymph)
Congenital - Multiple arteriovenous fistulae - Traumatic
23. What is the surgical treatment of lymphoedema?
It arises de novo
Debulking or bypass procedures - Direct lymphovenous anastamosis - Stripping a piece of intestinal mucosa - exposing the rich submucosal plexus - this can then be used to replace a leg lymph node which then forms new connections with distal lymphatic
A chemodectoma is a tumour of the paraganglion cells of the carotid body located at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. They are usually benign(but locally invasive) - but occassionally - they are malignant with potential to metastasize to
Leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Intervene only when extensive or for cosmetic reasons with local radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy using interferon-alpha -doxorubicin and intralesional vinblastine.
24. What are the complications of incisional hernia?
Simple mastectomy - Modified radical mastectomy(patey) - Radical mastectomy(Halsted mastectomy) - Extended radical mastectomy
Mnemonic : PISS - Persistent Pain - Incarceration/Intestinal Obstruction(often intermittent) - Strangulation - Skin Excoriation
White lines and streaks inside the mouth
Small red capillary naevus - Develops on the trunk in middle-age - No clinical significance
25. What are the 3 objectives that one should look out for in the inspection of varicose veins?
Site and size of varicosities - including the presence of saphena varix - Skin for changes and scars - Swelling of the ankle
A blind-ending track -typically lined by epithelial or granulation tissue - which opens onto an epithelial surface
Immobility and prolonged bed-rest are the most important factors - particulary secondary to conditions such as: Cardiopulmonary disease - Trauma - Neurological disease such as paraplegia - Bone and joint disease - Prolonged operative procedures - And
Non-Surgical : leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Surgical : Indicated only if malignant growth suspected; post-excision - local regrowth is common as neurofibromata cannot be surgically detached from underlying n
26. How does radiotherapy work?
Well-differentiated - Myxoid and round cell - Pleomorphic liposarcoma
Extrahepatic : caused by increased resistance to flow e.g : portal or splenic vein thrombosis - Intrahepatic : due to cirrhosis - right heart failure - sarcoidosis and schistosomiasis(the latter is the most important cause worldwide - ova of the para
High-energy X-rays interact with tissues to release electrons of high kinetic energy - which cause secondary damage to adjacent DNA via an oxygen-dependent mechanism. The damage is either repairable or non-repairable - the latter manifesting itself a
Tumours raised above the skin : excision with 0.5cm margin(maximum) - Tumours not raised above the skin - Wider margin of excision - particularly if at inner canthus of eye -nasolabial fold and ear. A frozen section may be necessary to ensure adequat
27. What is a branchial cyst?
Small -punched out ulcers - Often over medial aspect of lower leg
A branchial cyst is thought to develop because of a failure of fusion of the embryonic second and third branchial arches. An alternative - and currently - popular - hypothesis is that it is an acquired condition due to cystic degeneration in cervical
A skin flap consists of tissue - or tissues - transferred from one site of the body to another - while maintaining a continuous blood supply through a vascular pedicle.
Arising inside the parotid gland - Arising outside the parotid gland
28. What are the 3 objectives that one should look out for in the palpation of varicose veins?
Jaundice is yellow discolouration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by the accumulation of bile pigments.
Arising inside the parotid gland - Arising outside the parotid gland
Second most common type - Occurs most often on the trunk - Polypoid in shape and is raised - Smooth surface - Irregular edge - Frequently ulcerated
State of the skin/subcutanaeous tissues - Sites of fascia defects - Site of incompetence(including the Trendelenburg and Tourniquet Tests)
29. Describe the vascular supply of the transplanted kidney?
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30. What is the differential diagnosis in basal cell carcinoma?
The two main differential diagnoses to consider are; Benign - keratoacanthoma - especially if it is sloughing at its centre - Malignant -Squamous cell carcinoma - particularly the nodulo-ulcerative type with a rolled edge
A neurofibroma is a benign tumour derived from peripheral nerve elements.
Hands and Eyes
Cervical rib or prominent transverse process of the Chest X-ray or thoracic outlet views - Doppler examination may be useful in quantifying the postural changes and post-stenotic dilatation - Arteriograms of the subclavian artery may show a marked ki
31. What are the rare causes of digital clubbing?
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32. What are the histological appearances of solar keratoses?
Hyperkeratoses(thickening of the keratin layer) - Focal parakeratosis - Irregular acanthosis - Basal layer atypia only
Ligation of the incompetent SFJ or SPJ with stripping of the involved vein and stab avulsion of varicosities - Ligation of incompetent perforating vessels - Subcutaneous endoscopic perforator surgery
Blood Tests:FBC - to look for raised white cell count in infection - Liver function - to look out for hypoalbuminaemia or evidence of hepatic dysfunction - Clotting - functional hepatic impairment - CRP/ESR - increased in infection/inflammation and i
Excision of an entire lung
33. How would you investigate a patient with a breast lump?
Patients are usually symptom-free for a long period of time followed by dysphagia and hoarseness - associated with regurgitation of undigested foods - and associated weight-loss
Triple assessment which consists of: Clinical : history and physical examination - Radiological : ultrasound or mammography - Pathological : cytology(fine-needle aspiration) or histological(tru-cut biopsy)
The two main differential diagnoses to consider are; Benign - keratoacanthoma - especially if it is sloughing at its centre - Malignant -Squamous cell carcinoma - particularly the nodulo-ulcerative type with a rolled edge
Bright-red raised strawberry-like lesion - Present from birth - but 60% undergo spontaneous resolution by the age of 3 years - Only treated if obscuring a visual field or spontaneous resolution not occurring.
34. What are the causes of acquired umbilical herniae in adults?
Pregnancy - Ascites - Ovarian cysts - Fibroids - Bowel distension
Reduction of the contents of the sac - Excision of the sac - Repair of the defect - taking care not to narrow the femoral vein while tightening up the femoral canal
Palomo operation
Cervical rib or prominent transverse process of the Chest X-ray or thoracic outlet views - Doppler examination may be useful in quantifying the postural changes and post-stenotic dilatation - Arteriograms of the subclavian artery may show a marked ki
35. How would you treat a pyogenic granuloma?
Non-surgical : regression is uncommon - except those arising in pregnancy and so they are best treated surgically - though occassionally a silver nitrate stick can be attempted - Surgical : curettage with diathermy of the base or complete excision b
Rapid growth and pain(on history) - Hyperemic hot skin - Hard consistency - Fixed to skin and underlying muscle - Irregular surface or ill-defined edge - Facial nerve involvement
Procedure usually performed as a day case - Need to wear tight-fitting stockings for 6 weeks preoperatively - No driving for 1 week - Does not alter the skin changes - including skin flares - May not improve symptoms such as aching - Risk of recurren
Congenital : Cystic disease - horseshoe kidney - hypertrophic single kidney - Acquired : Diseases specific to the kidney such as solitary cysts - tumours - hydronephrosis - pyonephrosis - perinephric abscess and renal vein thrombosis and diseases as
36. What are single lumps in the breast more likely to be ?
An abnormal protrusion of abdominal contents through a defect in the linea alba - usually halfway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus
Debulking or bypass procedures - Direct lymphovenous anastamosis - Stripping a piece of intestinal mucosa - exposing the rich submucosal plexus - this can then be used to replace a leg lymph node which then forms new connections with distal lymphatic
Osteomyelitis - infection transmitted to the bone through the stump - Stump ulceration - can be caused by pressure from the prosthesis - Stump neuroma - Swelling of the distal nerve as it tries to regrow following division; during the initial procedu
Fibroadenomas - Breast cysts - Fat necrosis - Breast cancer
37. What is a chemodectoma?
Painless - Associated with normal appearance of the surrounding skin - Associated with local sensory loss
More than five is considered as pathological in chronic liver disease
A chemodectoma is a tumour of the paraganglion cells of the carotid body located at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. They are usually benign(but locally invasive) - but occassionally - they are malignant with potential to metastasize to
Affect any age - Males = females - All races may be affected
38. How can the extent of the obstruction be determined?
An intravenous injection of contrast into the veins in the arm can illustrate the degree of obstruction - A CT Scan of the thorax may demonstrate the cause of the obstruction and the length of the SVC affected
Haemorrhage - Hoarseness - Hyperthyroidism
Early - haematoma - Intermediate - Infection and nerve damage e.g saphenous in stripping - Late - Recurrence
Via the lymphatic route(Y for yellow = lymph)
39. What is a solar keratoses?
Non-surgical : risk factor modification such as establishment of good diabetic control and for recurrent infections eradication of nasal carriage of staphylococcus aureus with antiseptics and/or antibiotics such as chlorhexidine and mupirocin - Surgi
Lymphocyte-mediated destruction of the exocrine glands secondary to B-cell hyper-reactivity and associated loss of suppressor T-Cell activity
Mnemonic: BADCaT - Blood disorders e.g polycythemia - Arterial e.g atherosclerosis - thrombangiitis obliterans - Drugs e.g beta blockers - oral contraceptive pill - Connective tissue disorders e.g rheumatoid arthritis - systemic lupus erythematosus -
Solar keratosses are squamous cell carcinoma in situ
40. What are the causes of postoperative jaundice?
Prehepatic jaundice can occur due to haemolysis - especially following a transfusion - Hepatic jaundice can result from the use of halogenated anaesthetics - sepsis or intra- or postoperative hypotension - Post-hepatic jaundice can occur due to bilia
High-energy X-rays interact with tissues to release electrons of high kinetic energy - which cause secondary damage to adjacent DNA via an oxygen-dependent mechanism. The damage is either repairable or non-repairable - the latter manifesting itself a
High success - 50 to 70% will heal at 3 months - 80 to 90% at 12 months - The patient should be warned to avoid trauma to the affected area - Four-layer compression bandaging - Encourage rest and elevation of leg - Once healed - grade 2 compression s
Left spermatic vein is more vertical where it connects to the left renal vein - The left renal vein can be compressed by the colon - The left testicular vein is longer than the right - It frequently lack a terminal valve which serves to try to preven
41. How are the causes of jaundice classified?
Medical : treat underlying condition - saline cleansing - high-dose oral or intralesional steroids plus/minus cyclosporin - Surgical : serial allograft followed by autologous skin graft or muscle flap coverage when necessary
Mnemonic : SNAPP - Sepsis elimination : open or percutaneous drainage of collections; administration of appropriate antimicrobials - Nutritional resuscitation/optimization : patients may be fluid and electrolyte depleted and malnourished. Resuscitati
Pre-hepatic - Hepatic - Post-hepatic
Excision of an entire lung
42. What are the non-surgical treatment options for lymphoedema?
An abnormal sac containing gas -fluid or semisolid material - with an epithelial lining
Form of telangiectasias - Central arteriole with leg-like branches Which blanch on central pressure - Found over upper torso - head and neck in adults - Associated with chronic liver disease and pregnancy
Surgical excision with preoperative embolizatoin if the tumour is large - Ultrasonic surgical dissection may also be used - Radiotherapy is used for patients unfit for surgery or for large tumours
Grade 3 compression stockings to apply 40mmHg pressure at the ankles - Intermittent pneumatic compression device - Cellulitis should be treated - Advise patient to elevate their leg as much as possible and stress the importance of cleanliness and car
43. What would you tell patients about their recovery from inguinal hernia repair?
Calcification of the walls of the vessel preserves the pulses until late in the natural history of disease - and prevent the sphygmomanometer from compressing the vessels. This tends to lead to an abnormally(and reassuringly) high ankle brachial pres
According to site - contents and if it is random or axial. When it comes to site - you consider where it is local or distant(Which is also known as a free flap). You have to also consider the contents which can contain any tissue capable of transfer
It reduces intravascular hydrostatic pressure and the stockings increase extracellular hydrostatic pressure - together reducing the level of tissue oedema.
Early mobilization is important - They should keep the area clean and wash carefully -especially after the clip/sutures have been removed - They are able to bathe immediately - They may need to be off work for 6 weeks if their job involves heavy lift
44. What is venous gangrene?
Mnemonic : HIS PRIPS - Ischaemia/gangrene - Haemorrhage - Retraction - Prolapse/intussusception - Parastomal Hernia - Stenosis - Skin excoriation
Benign skin lesions: Moles -freckles -lentigo -pigmented seborrhoeic keratoses - dermatofibromas and thrombosed haemangiomas - When it comes to malignant skin lesions - pigmented basal cell carcinomas
Peripheral Neuropathy
Venous gangrene is a rare complication of deep vein thrombosis in the iliofemoral segment and presents in three phases: 1 - Phlegmasia alba dolens - white leg 2 - Phlegmasia cerulea dolens - blue leg 3 - Gangrene - occurs as a consequence of acute is
45. Which are the gastrointestinal causes of clubbing?
Liver Cirrhosis - Inflammatory Bowel disease - Malabsorption - Gastrointestinal lymphoma
Jaundice is yellow discolouration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by the accumulation of bile pigments.
Collagen antibodies are present in 45% of patients - There is an association with HLA-B5 - Angiography has typical appearances of normal proximal vessels with distal occlusion and 'corkscrew' collaterals.
Commonest in children and young adults(P for Paediatric)
46. What radiological features would make you suspicious of an occult renal cell carcinoma?
Below Knee - Above Knee
Surgical excision with preoperative embolizatoin if the tumour is large - Ultrasonic surgical dissection may also be used - Radiotherapy is used for patients unfit for surgery or for large tumours
It is due to development inclusion of epidermis along lines of fusion of skin dermatomes and are therefore commonly at: The medial and lateral ends of the eyebrows - The midline of the nose - The midline of the neck and trunk - Suspect if you see a c
More worrying features for a tumour would include: Thick or irregular wall - Extensive calcification within the cavity or wall of the cyst - Multilocular cysts
47. What is the risk of solar keratoses progressing to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
The protein content of a sample of effusion fluid is measured and the classification depends on this value:Transudate is equal to a protein value of less than 30g/L - Exudate is equal to a protein value of more than 30g/L
If untreated - 25% progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma
A keratoacanthoma is a benign overgrowth of hair follicle cells that produces a central plug of keratin. It is rapidly growing - forming within 6 weeks and regressing after 6 weeks - leaving a depressed scar. Clinically and cytologically they may loo
Notching on the underside of the ribs may be seen on a chest x-ray - this sign is caused by erosion by the intercostal collateral vessels - On the chest x-ray the aorta may be abnormal - it contains two bulges - the 'three sign' - A barium swallow sh
48. What conditions increase the risk of developing pressure sores?
Immobility and prolonged bed-rest are the most important factors - particulary secondary to conditions such as: Cardiopulmonary disease - Trauma - Neurological disease such as paraplegia - Bone and joint disease - Prolonged operative procedures - And
Cardiac failure - Tricuspid regurgitation - Constrictive pericarditis
Any cause of deep venous insufficiency can lead to ulceration: Valvular disease - varicose veins - deep vein reflux - communicating vein reflux - Outflow tract obstruction - often post-DVT - Muscle pump failure - primary such as stroke and neuromuscu
Surgical treatment involves complete excision of the cyst.
49. How would you treat this condition?
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50. What are the stages of restorative proctocolectomy?
A skin graft involves the transfer of skin from a donor site to a recipient site independent of a blood supply. The graft 'takes' by acquiring a blood supply from a healthy donor bed. Skin grafts may either be full thickness or partial thickness - bu
Neo-rectum is created in a pelvic reservoir - Stage 1 : resection of colon and/or rectum - Stage 2 : Construction of an ileal reservoir - Which is anastamosed to the anus - this is usually covered with a diverting loop ileostomy proximal to the pouch
Thrombosis during or just after haemodialysis - which may be due to relative hypotension and damage to the intima of the vein - Venous hypertension in the hand causes swelling and ischemia of the fingertips. This should be avoided by the ligation of
0.5 to 0.8