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Clinical Surgery
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health-sciences
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surgery
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What is Frey's syndrome?
Open lymph node excision biopsy - Block dissection of the neck - Radical Neck Dissection
Excess accumulation of fluid in the processus vaginalis.
Mnemonic : PISS - Persistent Pain - Incarceration/Intestinal Obstruction(often intermittent) - Strangulation - Skin Excoriation
It is known also as auriculotemporal syndrome and it brings about increased sweating of the facial skin when eating - due to reinnervation of the divided sympathetic nerves to the facial skin by fibres of the secretomotor branch of the auriculotempor
2. What is a dermoid cyst?
Mneumonic : I - CHUM - Infection(frequent) - Calcification - Ulceration - sebaceous Horn formation - Malignant change
Iodine deficiency - Increased physiological demand - Goitrogens(less common) - Defects of thyroid hormone production
It arises de novo
A dermoid cyst is a skin-lined cyst deep to the skin. They may be congenital or acquired.
3. How do you classify skin flaps?
Lymphocyte-mediated destruction of the exocrine glands secondary to B-cell hyper-reactivity and associated loss of suppressor T-Cell activity
In the presence of jaundice if a mass(the gall bladder) is palpable in the right upper quadrant - the cause is unlikely to be due to gallstones.
These are due to a defect through the linea alba adjacent to the umbilicus and usually due to obesity stretching the fibres.
According to site - contents and if it is random or axial. When it comes to site - you consider where it is local or distant(Which is also known as a free flap). You have to also consider the contents which can contain any tissue capable of transfer
4. What are the intratemporal causes of facial nerve palsy?
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5. What are the acquired predisposing factors for malignant melanomas?
Diabetic neuropathy and peripheral occlusive arterial disease are the major aetiological factors for the development of ulceration and may act alone - together or in combination with other factors such as microvascular disease - biomechanical abnorma
Treatment involves the use of artificial tears and saliva - use of systemic steroids and careful follow-up due to increased risk of lymphoma development
Jaundice is yellow discolouration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by the accumulation of bile pigments.
Sunlight - Pre-existing skin lesions - Previous melanoma
6. How would you treat a patient with a single neurofibroma?
The advantages of having surgery are a six-fold reduction in the rate of stroke at 3 years - The operative risk of stroke is 2% and operative mortality 1-2% - Specific risks of haematoma -hypoglossal nerve injury and numbness of the ipsilateral earlo
Ultrasound would be the first investigation - Abdo wall masses and extent of disease better seen with CT Scan - IV contrast enhance CT scanning to clarify lower abdominal and pelvic vasculature
Non-Surgical : leave alone if asymptomatic and if patient does not want intervention - Surgical : Indicated only if malignant growth suspected; post-excision - local regrowth is common as neurofibromata cannot be surgically detached from underlying n
Mechanical obstruction - Coordination abnormalities
7. Simple cyst Treatment
The Branham-Nicoladoni sign indicates the degree of shunting and cardiac impairment resulting from a large AV fistula - The carotid pulse is palpated and then a tourniquet placed around the proximal affected limb and inflated above systolic pressure
The major differential diagnoses would be with a renal tumour and adult polcystic kidney disease and if there is any doubt of a tumour - then the cyst fluid may be sent for cytological analysis
Hyperkeratosis - Acanthosis - Hyperplasia of variably pigmented basaloid cells
Multinodular goitre - Toxic - Simple colloid goitre - Thyroiditis - Neoplasia
8. What are the different varieties of Kaposi's sarcoma?
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9. What are the main points to be elicited during a clerking of the surgical patient?
A papilloma is an over-growth of all layers of the skin with a central vascular core. They are increasingly common with age.
Thyroid function tests - hyperthyroid - Ultrasound - dimensions of goitre and nodules looking for dominant nodules or cysts for FNAC - Chest X-ray as a retrosternal goitre may compress the trachea
Vaginal Hydrocoele - fluid accumulates in the tunica vaginalis - Hydrocoele of the cord - fluid accumulates around the spermatic cord - Congenital Hydrocoele - Infantile Hydrocoele
Demographics - Presenting Complaint - History of Presenting Complaint - Medical and Surgical History - Drugs and any other allergies - Family History - Social History - Systemic Enquiry
10. What is the shorter version of the surgical sieve?
Congenital : Cystic disease - horseshoe kidney - hypertrophic single kidney - Acquired : Diseases specific to the kidney such as solitary cysts - tumours - hydronephrosis - pyonephrosis - perinephric abscess and renal vein thrombosis and diseases as
TIMEC - Trauma/Tumor - Infection/Inflammation/Ischemia - Metabolic -Mechanical - Endocrine - Congenital
Remove goitrogens from diet(e.g cabbage) - Thyroxine 0.1/0.3 mg per day - If thyrotoxicosis treat as in Graves' disease - Aspiration of cysts with cytology to exclude malignancy - Radioiodine for elderly patients - particularly those unfit for surger
An abnormal protrusion of abdominal contents through a defect in the linea alba - usually halfway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus
11. What are the indications for surgery in ulcerative colitis?
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12. What is the differential diagnosis of a dermatofibroma?
It is important to exclude malignant tumours such as: Malignant melanoma - Basal cell carcinoma
Purple-blue naevus found on face -lips and mucous membrane of the mouth - Present from birth and does not change in size thereafter - Found on limbs in association with Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome.
Mnemonic : No POMP - No opthalmic features are seen - Progression of simple diffuse goitre to nodular enlargement - Overactivity in parts of an MNG may lead to mild hyperthyroidism(Plummer's syndrome) - Middle-aged women - Positive family history
A seborrhoeic keratosis is a benign overgrowth of the basal cell layer of the epidermis.
13. What is the mainstay of treatment in ascites?
The mainstay of treatment of ascites is to treat the underlying condition and to place the patient on a weight reduction program - with the help of diuretic - and a low-sodium diet.
More than five is considered as pathological in chronic liver disease
The vaginal type of hydrocoele may be secondary to a number of local pathologies: Testicular tumours - Torsion - Orchitis - Trauma - Following inguinal hernia repair
Peripheral neuropathy has several effects: Slowly progressive sensory loss - with numbness and tingling of the feet and sometimes also hands. The sensory loss is often glove-and-stocking in distribution and may also be associated with motor impairmen
14. What is the definition of an enterocutaneous fistula?
Mean age is 50 years at presentation(F for fifty)
They are known as adiposis dolorosa or Dercum's disease.
A enterocutaneous fistula is an abnormal connection between the gastrointestinal tract and the skin
The Branham-Nicoladoni sign indicates the degree of shunting and cardiac impairment resulting from a large AV fistula - The carotid pulse is palpated and then a tourniquet placed around the proximal affected limb and inflated above systolic pressure
15. Raynaud's syndrome
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16. What are the surgical principles in Mayo's operation?
A horizontal ellipse of stretched supra or infra-umbilical skin is excised - deeping the incision to the rectus sheath and identifying the fibrous band Which is the neck of the sac - The sac is dissected free from the surrounding tissues - which may
Found above the inguinal ligament - Usually reducible - Commoner in males - 6:1 - Risk of strangulation is low - Cough impulse present
Pre-hepatic - Hepatic - Post-hepatic
Defined as portal vein pressure of more than 10mmHg(normal 5-10). Portal blood flow through the liver is greatly reduced or even reversed in the most severe cases
17. What is an epigastric hernia?
An abnormal protrusion of abdominal contents through a defect in the linea alba - usually halfway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus
Retro-orbital inflammation and lymphocytic infiltration leading to oedema and an increase in retrobulbar orbital contents
It is a point halfway along a line joining the ASIS and the midline Which is equal to the location of femoral artery
Complications include cosmetic symptoms but important problems are encountered in the perinatal period: Before delivery it may obstruct delivery - After delivery : respiratory obstruction and obstruction of swallowing
18. What is secondary lymphoedema?
It can be classified according to cause: Malignancy - Infections - e.g filiaris - tuberculosis - Post Surgery or Radiotherapy - axillary dissection in breast surgery and inguinal irradiation
Motor - Secretomotor - Taste - Sensory
Size - Tenderness - Mobility - Consistency
A lipoma is a benign tumour consisting of mature fat cells.
19. How would you prepare a patient prior to breast surgery?
Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber Syndrome - Parkes-Weber syndrome
Plasma alpha feto-protein and beta-HCG - raised levels may indicate a testicular tumor - Testosterone and LH levels to demonstrate hypogonadism - Thyroid function tests
Physical preparation - marking of side - explanation of procedure - anaesthetic work up - Pyschological preparation - Breast care nurse preoperatively and discussion of reasons for mastectomy - option of reconstructive surgery
The major differential diagnoses would be with a renal tumour and adult polcystic kidney disease and if there is any doubt of a tumour - then the cyst fluid may be sent for cytological analysis
20. How would you investigate a patient who was referred with a carotid bruit?
Mnemonic : LEGS - Lipodermatosclerosis - Eczema - Gaps in the skin i.e ulceration - active and healed - Swelling - pedal oedema
Treatment is radical surgery with follow-up using sequent calcitonin assays
Below Knee - Above Knee
The patient should have a full workup for atherosclerosis - General investigations : Urinalysis for proteinuria - marker of atherosclerotic renal disease - Blood tests: FBC for anemia - which might precipitate symptoms - Renal function for possible u
21. How would you investigate a patient with hepatomegaly?
It is due to forced implantation of skin into subcutaneous tissues following an injury. Normally found in areas of the body prone to injury such as fingers. Suspect if you see an adult in exam.
Blood Tests:FBC - to look for raised white cell count in infection - Liver function - to look out for hypoalbuminaemia or evidence of hepatic dysfunction - Clotting - functional hepatic impairment - CRP/ESR - increased in infection/inflammation and i
Non-surgical : regression is uncommon - except those arising in pregnancy and so they are best treated surgically - though occassionally a silver nitrate stick can be attempted - Surgical : curettage with diathermy of the base or complete excision b
Tumours raised above the skin : excision with 0.5cm margin(maximum) - Tumours not raised above the skin - Wider margin of excision - particularly if at inner canthus of eye -nasolabial fold and ear. A frozen section may be necessary to ensure adequat
22. What clinical features would make you suspect that a parotid swelling is malignant in nature?
End-to-end anastamosis - patching and the use of the left subclavian artery as a flap are all surgical options
Rapid growth and pain(on history) - Hyperemic hot skin - Hard consistency - Fixed to skin and underlying muscle - Irregular surface or ill-defined edge - Facial nerve involvement
Defined as portal vein pressure of more than 10mmHg(normal 5-10). Portal blood flow through the liver is greatly reduced or even reversed in the most severe cases
50%
23. What is a keratoacanthoma?
Excessive dryness of skin - Compensatory sweating around trunk ( in up to 50% of patients) - Horner's syndrome( a consequence of damage to the stellate ganglion) - 0.1% - Pneumothorax/haemothorax - Important to warn of the risk of a general anaesthet
Simple colloid goitre - Graves' disease - Thyroiditis
A keratoacanthoma is a benign overgrowth of hair follicle cells that produces a central plug of keratin. It is rapidly growing - forming within 6 weeks and regressing after 6 weeks - leaving a depressed scar. Clinically and cytologically they may loo
An abnormal protrusion of abdominal contents through a defect in the linea alba - usually halfway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus
24. How do paraumbilical herniae occur?
Minor defects in neonates are common but usually repair spontaneously. In children - umbilical herniae are mor common; they tend to have a narrow neck and folds of peritoneum stuck within this neck - which can occassionally strangulate. Most cases re
Idiopathic Which is the most common - Gastrointestinal - Respiratory - Cardiac - Rare causes
The procedure should be performed under sterile condition and if the ascites is not clinically apparent or easy to locate - it should be done by a radiologist under ultrasound guidance to prevent inadvertent injuries to intra-abdominal structures.
Paraumbilical herniae occur around the umbilical scar. They are uncommon before the age of 40 years and can become large. Peristalsis can be observed through the skin when the defect is large. The neck of the sac is often tight and held with a fibrou
25. What tissues do skin graft not take on?
Unhealthy -necrotic and infected tissue - Irradiated tissue - Exposed cortical bone without periosteum - Tendon without peritendon - Cartilage without perichondrium
Treatment involves the use of artificial tears and saliva - use of systemic steroids and careful follow-up due to increased risk of lymphoma development
Gradual elastic compression stocking - grade 2 compression - Encourage weight loss and regular exercise
It is important to exclude malignant tumours such as: Malignant melanoma - Basal cell carcinoma
26. What are the features of nodular melanoma?
Multiple telangiectasia around the mouth and on the tongue and lips
Cervical rib or prominent transverse process of the Chest X-ray or thoracic outlet views - Doppler examination may be useful in quantifying the postural changes and post-stenotic dilatation - Arteriograms of the subclavian artery may show a marked ki
Chest x-ray to map the caudal extent of the cystic hygroma - CT/MRI scanning especially if it is complex
Second most common type - Occurs most often on the trunk - Polypoid in shape and is raised - Smooth surface - Irregular edge - Frequently ulcerated
27. What are the predisposing factors for Raynaud's phenomenon?
Non-Surgical - Reassure and 'Watch and Wait' - Surgical - Reason : Pain/Cosmesis and this is done with suction lipolysis via a small - remote incision Which is performed under local anaesthetic as a day case.
If untreated - 25% progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma
Tenderness over the graft - Reduction in urine output - Rising creatinine
Primary Raynauds is due to vasomotor malformation - Secondary Raynauds occurs as a consequence of pathology affecting the vessel wall
28. What syndrome is associated with a port-wine stain?
Donor renal artery is anastamosed to either the internal or external iliac artery - The donor renal vein is anastamosed to the external iliac vein - The ureter is anastamosed seperately to the patient's bladder - The renal pelvis the most anterior st
Arising inside the parotid gland - Arising outside the parotid gland
It will show you if it is malignant or inflammatory
Sturge-Weber syndrome is the association of a facial port-wine stain with a corresponding haemangioma in the brain - leading to contralateral focal fits.
29. What is the aetiology of diabetic foot ulcers?
Mnemonic : PACT - Prominent nodule in a multinodular goitre - Adenoma - Cyst/Carcinoma/Lymphoma - Thyroiditis
Neuropathic - 45 to 60% of ulcers - Ischaemic due to peripheral occlusive arterial disaese - 10% of ulcers - Mixed neuroischaemic - 25-45% of ulcers
Site and size of varicosities - including the presence of saphena varix - Skin for changes and scars - Swelling of the ankle
Lined by stratified squamous or ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium - May also contain thyroid or lymphoid tissue - which can undergo malignant change - If malignancy occurs - usually of thyroid papillary type.
30. What are the aetiologies arising inside the parotid gland in a unilateral swelling of the parotid gland?
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31. What is a dermatofibroma?
A dermatofibroma is a benign neoplasm of dermal fibroblasts.
Increased platelet count and large platelets - Increased neutrophils - Nucleated red cells with Howell-Jolly bodies and target cell - Tend to mount more of a leukocytosis in response to infection
Via the bloodstream(R is equal to red is equal to blood)
Indications for amputation can be remembered as the 4Ds: Dead - ischemic - peripheral vascular disease - thromboangiitis obliterans - AV fistulae - Damaged - trauma - unsalvageable limbs - burns - frostbite - Dangerous - Malignancy - bone and soft ti
32. What are the surgical options available for deep venous occlusion/reflux
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33. What is the pathogenesis of Raynaud's phenomenon?
Via greater superficial petrosal nerve to lacrimal - nasal and palatine glands
Stool tests: Stool Culture - in new cases of IBD to exclude infection - Blood tests - Full blood count - may show anemia and leukocytosis - Electrolytes may show evidence of dehydration or hypokalemia - Liver function tests - CRP and ESR may be raise
If the vessels are normal in calibre - the clinical features may be caused by relatively overactive alpha receptors in the wall - leading to abnormal smooth muscle contraction or changes in elasticity
Gradual elastic compression stocking - grade 2 compression - Encourage weight loss and regular exercise
34. What are the malignant diseases of the breast?
Hidradenitis suppurative - also known as acne inversa - is now considered a disease of follicular occlusion rather than an inflammatory or infectious process of the apocrine glands. Abscesses form recurrently and this causes the characteristic perman
Some 50% are present at birth and they are thought to represent a congenital abnormality during the evolution of embryonic lymph nodes into the adult type
Ductal carcinoma which account for approximately 70% of cancers - Lobular carcinoma which accounts for 20% of cancers - Others such as mucinous -tubular -medullary which accounts for approximately 10% of cancers
Uncommon sensory component of facial nerve carrying cutaneous impulses from the anterior wall of the external auditory meatus known as nervus intermedius or pars intermedia of Wrisberg
35. What is the ABPI of patients with rest pain?
Less than 0.5
Pressure effects - Deafness with involvement of the 8th cranial nerve - Sarcomatous transformation - Intra-abdominal effects - Skeletal changes
Collagen antibodies are present in 45% of patients - There is an association with HLA-B5 - Angiography has typical appearances of normal proximal vessels with distal occlusion and 'corkscrew' collaterals.
Urine should be tested for raised bilirubin - Full Blood Count - Evidence of anemia in GI malignancies or associated infection - Renal function - any evidence for hepatorenal syndrome - Liver Function Tests -Clotting - functional assessment of hepati
36. What is the Courvoisier's law?
VINTA MEDIC - Vascular - Iatrogenic - Neoplastic - Traumatic - Autoimmune - Metabolic - Endocrine - Degenerative - Inflammatory/Infective - Congenital
In the presence of jaundice if a mass(the gall bladder) is palpable in the right upper quadrant - the cause is unlikely to be due to gallstones.
Treatment with radiotherapy and doxorubicin gives best survival of 1 year
Dissection of the hernial sac from surrounding tissues and definitioni of tissue bordering the defect on all sides to 2-3cm - Closing the defect(if small) and/or using mesh overlapping adequately( more than 5 to 8cm) over normal tissues to allows for
37. What are patients with Sjogren's syndrome at risk of?
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38. What are the other options other than open AAA repair?
Unilateral total lobectomy and isthmusectomy
Cardiac failure - Tricuspid regurgitation - Constrictive pericarditis
Ultrasound would be the first investigation - Abdo wall masses and extent of disease better seen with CT Scan - IV contrast enhance CT scanning to clarify lower abdominal and pelvic vasculature
Endovascular repair - Laparoscopic repaire of abdominal aneurysms is the subject of current clinical trials
39. What are the motor branches of the facial nerve?
A branchial cyst is thought to develop because of a failure of fusion of the embryonic second and third branchial arches. An alternative - and currently - popular - hypothesis is that it is an acquired condition due to cystic degeneration in cervical
Nerve to stapedius - Nerve to posterior belly of digastric - Five divisions within the parotid gland - temporal - zygomatic - buccal - mandibular and cervical
Infection - acute and chronic otitis media - herpes zoster(ramsay hunt syndrome) - Idiopathic - Bell's Palsy - Trauma - surgical -accidental - e.g basal skull fracture - Tumour - paraganglioma - squamous cell carcinoma of external or middle ear - met
All patients should undergo triple assessment that is Clinical Examination - Radiological assessment usually ultrasonographic - Pathological - most commonly cytological following FNAC
40. How would you manage a multinodular goitre?
History and Clinical Examination - Investigate if prominent nodule or features suspicious of malignancy such as cervical lymphadenopathy or recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
The principles of surgery are that the sac is excised completely or inverted - and the defect in the linea alba repaired - The fat contained within the hernia can be excised or reduced - The site of the defect should be marked with the patient lying
Ulcer is distal to the fistula - Shallow indolent ulcers
Classic Kaposi's sarcoma - AIDS-associated Kaposi's sarcoma - Endemic(central African) variety - Transplantation-associated Kaposi's sarcoma
41. What are the secondary causes of Raynauds?
Commonest in children and young adults(P for Paediatric)
Size - Tenderness - Mobility - Consistency
Mnemonic : PS : PLS C TiT - Pharyngeal pouch - Sublingual dermoid cyst - Plunging ranula - Lymph nodes - Subhyoid bursa - Ca - larynx/trachea/oesophagus - Thyroglossal cyst - Thyroid swelling
Mnemonic: BADCaT - Blood disorders e.g polycythemia - Arterial e.g atherosclerosis - thrombangiitis obliterans - Drugs e.g beta blockers - oral contraceptive pill - Connective tissue disorders e.g rheumatoid arthritis - systemic lupus erythematosus -
42. What will the Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology show you in the investigation of Cervical Lymphadenopathy?
It will show you if it is malignant or inflammatory
Well-localized abscesses are treated by incision and drainage under antibiotic cover - Larger lesions are treated by radical excision and full-thickness skin grafting usually harvested from the groins or abdomen
Congenital abnormalities - Aberrations of normal development and involution( fibroadenomas -breast cysts -sclerotic or fibrotic lesions) - Non-ANDI conditions such as infections -lipomas -fat necrosis
The Branham-Nicoladoni sign indicates the degree of shunting and cardiac impairment resulting from a large AV fistula - The carotid pulse is palpated and then a tourniquet placed around the proximal affected limb and inflated above systolic pressure
43. What radiological investigations would be helpful in distinguishing the different causes?
Trauma - Hypersplenism
Iodine deficiency - Increased physiological demand - Goitrogens(less common) - Defects of thyroid hormone production
Salmonella typhi - Mycotic aneurysms as a result of staphylococcal infection - Syphilitic aneurysms
Ultrasound would be the first investigation - Abdo wall masses and extent of disease better seen with CT Scan - IV contrast enhance CT scanning to clarify lower abdominal and pelvic vasculature
44. What are the characteristics that suggest malignancy in skin lesions?
'Watch and wait' or aspiration followed by 3 weeks of immobilzation
A furuncle results from infection of hair follicles with Staphylococcus aureus
Primary disease occurring in isolation
Increase in size - Ulceration - Change in colour - Irritation - Bleeding - Halo of pigmentation - Satellite nodules - Enlarged local lymph nodes - Evidence of distant spread
45. What is the pathogenesis of thromboangiitis obliterans?
Ulcer is distal to the fistula - Shallow indolent ulcers
It is a collagen vascular disease - caused by infiltrate of plasma cells into the arterial wall - This leads to luminal thrombosis and affects small and medium-sized arteries of the lower limb - Eventually - collagen is deposited and forms a thick fi
Thyroidectomy
Characteristic cold-induced changes associated with vasospasm
46. What are the causes of a mass in the right iliac fossa?
Skin and soft tissues such as a sebaceous cyst -lipoma or sarcoma - Bowel - ca caecum - crohns mass in terminal ileum - TB terminal ileum - appendicular mass or abscess - Gynaecological organs - ovarian tumours or fibroid uterus - Male Reproductive S
Occurs most often on the legs of women and the backs of men - Red -white and blue in colour - Irregular edge - Usually palpable but thin
Wound complications - Recurrence - Damage to adjacent neurovascular structures
Complete excision to include the neck of the ganglion at its site of origin
47. How are they classified?
Nephrotic syndrome - Tuberculosis - Chylous ascites
Hyperthyroidism - Recurrent - Hypothyroidism - Hypertrophic scarring
Lymphangiomas can be:Cystic - Solid or diffuse - Cutaneous
Excision of an entire lung
48. What factors predispose to incisional hernia?
Diffuse enlargement - smooth or nodular - Solitary nodule
Preoperative - Age -Immunocompromised state -obesity -malignancy -abdominal distension from obstruction or ascites - Operate - Poor technical closure of the wound -placing drains through wounds - Postoperative - wound infection or haematoma - early m
Found above the inguinal ligament - Usually reducible - Commoner in males - 6:1 - Risk of strangulation is low - Cough impulse present
Surgery is indicated for: Symptomatic aneurysms - Those containing thrombus - Those greater than 2cm
49. How would you investigate a patient with cervical lymphadenopathy?
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50. What is the aetiology of varicocoeles?
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