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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Prep 2
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Subjects
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health-sciences
,
usmle
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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study here
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Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. what Cardiac condition does the valsalva maneuver abolish? how? what muscle is most important?
SVT; increases vagal tone; rectus abdominis
Little effect on cell and no change
INTRApartum Abs (ampicillin/penicillin)
Tibial
2. What antibodies are present in CREST? What is the most specific?
Anti centromere; anti DNA topoisomerase
MAO inhibitors; wine and cheese
CGD; t cell dysfxn (diGeorge)
Ceftriaxone; azithromycin
3. which nerve provides innervation for plantar flexion and inversion?
Initiation - pointing; pincer grasp; walking; mama/dada
Increases bronchial and vascular smooth muscle reactivity to catecholamines
ATP binding (resets the myosin head to contract again for next binding)
Tibial
4. in treating an anemia and erythropoiesis results - what would you expect to see in peripheral blood findings transiently?
Atrial
To pump calcium out in cardiac myocytes so that relaxation occurs
SVT; increases vagal tone; rectus abdominis
Increased reticulocytes
5. Where is high frequency sound best recepted? low frequency sound? Which is lost more in elderly?
At cochlear base near round and oval window; near apex of cochlea - helioctrema; high frequency sound
Normal - normal - decreased; normal - normal - increased; normal - decreased - decreased
Medial circumflex artery; avascular necrosis
Elevated GGT and macrocytosis
6. What is somatomedin C?
women
SVT; increases vagal tone; rectus abdominis
Insulin like growth factor 1 (just another name)
Increase in permeability of two ions with equal and opposite equilibrium potentials
7. What are biphosphanate drugs structurally similar to? What are they used in the treatment of?
Pyrophosphate (important comp of hydroxyapatite); osteoporosis - Pagets disease of the bone - malignancy induced hypercalcemia
G to T in p53; HCC
Coagulation factors are made in the liver
Susceptible; soluble (unable to be cultured in bile)
8. which virus inactivates both Rb and p53?
E6 and E7 of HPV knock off p53 and Rb suppressor genes
Pain reliever - reduces pain by locking substance P in the PNS
Prevent phagocytosis
Raphe
9. other than parvo B19 - what else is associated with red cell aplasia?
Thymic tumor
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Faulty positioning of the genital tubercle
Filtration rate - tubular reabsorption rate; GFR x plasma concentration (of that substance); inulin
10. What is it called if psychotic symptoms last less than one month? one to six months? more than six months?
Aortic root dilation or bicuspid aortic valve; diastolic murmur (right sternal border(
Brief psychotic disorder; schizophreniform; schizophrenia
Femoral head; sickle cell - SLE - alcoholism - high steroid therapy
Right before diastole (filling begins)
11. What does the inferior gluteal nerve innervate? how does damage to this nerve manifest?
Sydenham chorea
Gluteus maximus; difficulty getting up from seated position and climbing chair
Not lined by epithelium
women
12. What are the long term consequences of hydrocephalus?
Hgb concentration - PaO2 (pp of O2 dissolved in blood) - and SaO2
NF- KB; responsible for cytokine production
Ether and other organic solvents
Lower extremity spasticity due to stretching of periventricular pyrimadal tracts - visual disturbances and learning disabilities
13. what disease causes hypoxia induced hemolysis? oxidant induced hemolysis?
Permissive - sensitizes vasoconstrictive response from catecholamines - doesnt actually act on them but increases transcription of some genes that creates permissive effect (not additive or synergistic becuase cortisol alone doesnt have any effect on
Sickle cell; G6PD
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Smoking
14. prostaglandin synthesis keeps...
P53 suppressor gene phosphorylates cyclin dependent kinase so that it does not phosphorylate Rb protein; chrom 17
Extrinsic def; instrinsic def; platelet def
PDA open
Vancomycin; histamine mediated
15. What is used to prevent vertical transmission of HIV?
Hypo or hyper pigmentations; after tanning
Nuclei pushed to periphery and nissl susbstance widely dispersed (increased protein repair); axonal reaction; Wallerian degeneration
ZDV or AZT
Vancomycin
16. at three years of age What are social - fine motor - gross motor and language developments?
Enterococci (e. faecalis)- found on genitalia area
Parallel play; reproduce simple shapes; tricycle riding - stair climbing; simple sentences
Injury to common peroneal nerve (d/t trauma or sustained pressure to neck of fibula) causing pain and numbness on dorsum of foot and inability to dorsiflex
T test; chi squared
17. What do you treat s. epidermidis with?
P450 mitochondrial monooxygenase
Vancomycin
Enterococci (e. faecalis)- found on genitalia area
Localized dermatologic pain that persists for more than one month after zoster eruption
18. at four years of age - What are the social - fine motor - gross motor - and language developments?
Cooperative play - toilet use; dresses self with help; running without difficulty; complex sentences with pronoun and plural use
By IgE activation (IgE binds to them as they are in the blood and then bind to Fc receptor on eos)- ADCC
Normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (used for LA pressure measurement)
Susceptible; soluble (unable to be cultured in bile)
19. which viruses require a protease?
IgE
glycerol kinase
liver specific
SS +rNA
20. Where does vasopressin act - on the medullary or cortical segment of collecting tubule?
Medullary
Acute gastric mucosal defects (superficial or full thickness)
Pineal region; precocious puberty and parinaud syndrome - obstructive hydrocephalus
Dissolved in plasma and attached to Hgb
21. where are the two classical places that the ulnar nerve can be injured?
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22. What are the two mcc of focal brain lesions in HIV positive patients?
Sarcoid
1. s. pneumo 2. non typable h. influenzae and 3. moraxella cattarhalis
Toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma (EBV B cell induced)
Painless ulcer with black eschar and local edema; b. anthracis; D glutamate
23. What are the potassium sparing diuretics?
4 - 4 - 9
T test; chi squared
Amiloride - spironolactone - triamterene
Muscarinic antagonist; pralidoxime because atropine doesnt work at nicotinc receptors and organophospates act at all cholinergic (muscle paralysis not solved with only atropine)
24. what commonly happens in GI in response to acute physiologic stress?
Varying; erythema nodosum is common
Both sides
Acute gastric mucosal defects (superficial or full thickness)
Neisseria induced small cell vasculitis (including hands and soles)
25. does congenital renal hypoplasia cause secondary hypertension? how about unilateral renal artery stenosis?
17 hydroxylase deficiency; pregnelone to 17 hydroxypregnelone
Vancomycin
No and yes
DIC; TTP- HUS dont bleed that much
26. which antiarrythmic is associated with blue gray discoloration ?
Amiadarone
Because left renal vein passes between aorta and SMA and hardening of SMA can cause renal vein compression
Boiling - bleach - formalin - UV irradiation
Increase in permeability of two ions with equal and opposite equilibrium potentials
27. what should you think of with coarctation of aorta - bicuspid valves and horseshoe kidney?
P450 mitochondrial monooxygenase
S. saprophyticus - and s. epidermidis; novobiocin
Turners`
Hereditary angioedema; ACE inhibitors
28. facial pain and headache in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is highly suggestive of what? How do you diagnose? What is a char finding?
Large stroke volumes with ventricular contraction; aortic regurg
Mucor - rhizopus infection (Mucormycosis); mucosal biopsy; black necrotic eschar in nasal cavity
Primary
Susceptible; soluble (unable to be cultured in bile)
29. which congenital hyperbilirubinemia actually presents with serious symptoms? which are less serious/
Criggler Najjar (UGT enzyme in bilirubin glucoronidation) ; Dubin Johnson (transport protein lacking - Black liver) and Rotor syndrome - defects in hepatic uptake and excretion of bile (numerous defect)
Chrom 8
IgE
Acute gastric mucosal defects (superficial or full thickness)
30. biotin is used By what in tissues responsible for gluconeogenesis
Octreotide
Trochlear nerve (IV); abducens nerve (VI)
As a CO2 carrier with the carboxylase enzyme
Shock symptoms (blood loss); amennorhea history; decidualized stroma (hormone changes are exactly the same) but no chorionic villi
31. What are some side effects seen in TCAs?
TSh (in testicular tumors can cause hyperthyroidism)
Inhaled animal dander allergens
Lack of calcium to bind oxaloacetate; crohns prevents fat absorption from lack of bile reabsorption in the terminal illeum which leads to fats pulling calcium and lack of calcium reabsorption
Cardiac arrhthymias (quinidine like long QT) - orthostatic hypotension (antagonism of alpha adrenergic receptors) - urinary retention (d/t anticholinergic effects) - seizures
32. what dissolves the lipid bilayer of a viral envelope?
Normal; low
Fibrosis; macrophages
Protamine sulfate
Ether and other organic solvents
33. What causes alpha helical proteins in alzheimers to become insoluble and prone to aggregating?
Purkinje system; AV node
Hereditary angioedema; ACE inhibitors
Hgb concentration - PaO2 (pp of O2 dissolved in blood) - and SaO2
Become beta pleated and then form neurofibrillary tangle!
34. What is the difference between Acyl CoA carboxylase and Acyl CoA dehydrogenase?
Anti - apoptotic (prevents going into apoptosis)- 18; 14
The first is involved in fatty acid synthesis; the other is involved in beta oxidation of fatty acids to make ketones (ketone synthesis)
Little effect on cell and no change
Aortic root dilation or bicuspid aortic valve; diastolic murmur (right sternal border(
35. What causes curlings ulcers?
indomethacin
RER; copper
Ulcers in esophagus - stomach - or duodenum and high ICP can cause perforation or ulcers in duodenum d/t acute physiologic stress
Excessive collagen formation during tissue repair in susceptible individuals
36. What type of disease has selective proteinuria? What is found in urine? What is not?
Minimal change disease; lmw proteins: albumin and transferrin; IgG or alpha 2 microglobulin
NSAIDs; nausea and diarrhea; when you have renal failure (cant have either NSAIDs or colchicine)
External illiac - superficial femora - or common femoral or profunda femoris (ipsilateral); pudendal branches of internal illiac
Filtration rate - tubular reabsorption rate; GFR x plasma concentration (of that substance); inulin
37. what makes bruits?
Myasthenia gravis
Squatting - sitting - lying supine - passive leg raising
Because ACE blocks breakdown of bradykinin and hereditary angioedema patients have high levels of bradykinin; high levels of bradykinin - C3a - and C5a mediate edema by increasing vascular permeability and vasodilation
Turbulence
38. which congenital adrenal hyperplasia presents with ambiguous genitalia in females and salt retention?
Little effect on cell and no change
Apocrine; eccrine
11beta hydroxylase deficiency (11 deoxycortisol to cortisol)
G to T in p53; HCC
39. how does eos release MBP to kill protozoa etc?
<1% - 55% - concentration dependent
E6 and E7 of HPV knock off p53 and Rb suppressor genes
Closer to head; closer to diaphragm
By IgE activation (IgE binds to them as they are in the blood and then bind to Fc receptor on eos)- ADCC
40. How do you explain the selective proteinuria of loss to albumin only in MCD?
Loss of negatively charged components in the GBM so that the loss of those particles destroys the negative - negative repulsion between GBM and albumin
Localized dermatologic pain that persists for more than one month after zoster eruption
Inhaled animal dander allergens
Pain and discomfort from dilation and stretching of the renal capsule from all the cysts!; hypertension - hematuria
41. What is capacitance inversely proportional to?
P53 mutation; DCC is also required for adenoma to carcinoma
Elastance
Inhibits it
Minimal change disease; lmw proteins: albumin and transferrin; IgG or alpha 2 microglobulin
42. why does neutrophila occur with corticosteroids?
Demargination of neutrophils from the vessel walls
Elastance
CD31 (endothelial cell marker)- a PECAM for leukocyte migration actually!
In ER of bile canaliculi
43. which anti epileptic is preferred in patients with both absence and tonic clonic seizures?
Well
4 - 4 - 9
Valproate
...
44. What is diphenoxylate and What is it used for? what drug is it structurally similar to? What allows for potent anti diarrheal effect without signigicant opiate effects?
Opiate anti diarrheal that binds to mu opiate receptors in GI tract and slows motility; meperidine; low doses - but therapeutic doses combined with atropine (under marked brand name lomotil)
Octreotide
Ig A deficiency
Epinephrine; adrenal medulla; phenylethanolamine N methyltransferase; cortisol
45. What is the neurologic manifestation of ADPKD?
PDA open
V fib; v. failure
Intracranial berry aneurysms and when rupture can cause subarachnoid hemorrhage
Bronchogenic carcinoma
46. What can chronic vit A toxicity cause?
Clindamycin; covers anaerobic oral flora and aerobic bacteria
Dry skin - papilledema - intracranial pressure - alopecia - hyperlipidemia - hepatoxicity - hepatosplenomegaly -
21 hydroxylase deficiency; progesterone to 11 deoxycorticosterone; ambiguous genitalia in females and salt wasting
women
47. when arrested in prophase of meiosis I - What are primary oocytes chrom number? What about the secondary oocytes that are stuck in metaphase of Meiosis II?
Highly negative resting potential
46 - 4N; 23 2N
Phase 4 (sodium current); reducing the rate of spontaneous depolarization
Mycoside (made of two mycolic acids) and is responsible for inactivating neutrophils - mit damage - and induced release of TNF; mycobacteria virulence; serpentine cords
48. Is there edema in primary Conns? secondary hyperaldosteronism? why?
Acute interstitial nephritis
Sodium escape due to ANP activation results in no edema; edema is the precipitating factor
Protamine sulfate
The term used to describe decreased drug responsiveness with repeated administration
49. What is capsaicin? Where does it work?
Joints d/t increased purine production and thus uric acid production
Southern - western
Pain reliever - reduces pain by locking substance P in the PNS
gram positive organisms
50. What is the preferred treatment for DKA?
H. influenzae type B; polyribosyl phosphate (PRP); cherry red uvula - dysphagia - stridor (sometimes) - difficulty breathing - fever - drooling - positive 'thumbs up sign' on lateral xray of cervical region d/t swollen epiglottis
Radial nerve damage
Regular insulin (Not fast acting - regular better)
Cluster
Sorry!:) No result found.
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