Instructions:

• Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
• If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
• Match each statement with the correct term.
• Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Cough?
Nephrotoxicity (esp. with Cephalosporins) - Ototoxicity (esp. with Loop Diuretics)
- Shifts the curve to the right - increases Km
Dobutamine has more of an affintiy for beta -1 than beta -2 - and is used for treating heart failure and shock. Albuterol and terbutaline is the reverse - and is used in treatment of acute asthma.
- ACE inhibitors (Losartan>no cough)


2. What side effect of using atropine to induce pupillary dilation would you expect?
- Barbiturates - phenytoin - carbamazipine - rifampin - griseofulvin - quinidine
AmOxicillin has greater Oral bioavailability
Atropine would also block the receptors in the ciliary muscle - causing an impairment in accommodation (cycloplegia).
Atropine pts are suffering from Cholinestrase inhibitor poisining (Nerve gas/Organophosphate poisining)


3. What are four advantages of newer low - molecular - weight heparins (Enoxaparin)?
- Tamoxifen
- polymyxins
1. Better bioavailability 2. 2 to 4 times longer half life 3. Can be administered subcutaneously 4. Does not require laboratory monitoring
thick ascending limb


4. What is a Ribavirin toxicity?
Alpha -1 antagonist
Megaloblastic anemia - Leukopenia - Granulocytopenia
- DNA intercalator - Hodgkin's - myeloma - sarcoma - and solid tumors - Cardiotoxicity & alopecia
Hemolytic anemia


5. Adverse effects of ganglionic blockers?
- Steroids - Tamoxifen
Diarrhea
severe orthostatic hypotension - blurred vision - constipation - sexual dysfunction
Gram + cocci - Proteus mirabilis - E. coli - Klebsiella pneumoniae (PEcK)


6. MOA: Disrupt fungal cell membranes
1. Infertility (pulsatile) 2. Prostate cancer (continuous: use with flutamide) 3. Uterine fibroids
Chronic gout.
Amphotericin B - Nystatin - Fluconazole/azoles
- Cimetidine - ketoconazole - spironolactone - digitalis - EtOH - estrogens


7. What is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of Warfarin therapy?
Gram + cocci - Gram - rods - and Anerobes
The PT.
- Cimetidine - ketoconazole - spironolactone - digitalis - EtOH - estrogens
1. Significant: nephrotoxicity 2. Peripheral neuropathy 3. Hypertension 4. Pleural effusion 5. Hyperglycemia.


8. Adverse effects of Loop Diuretics?
Inhibits cell wall mucopeptide formation - Bactericidal
K+ wasting - metabolic alkalosis - hypotension - ototoxicity
Neutropenia
RESPIre


9. What cholinergic inhibitor acts by directly inhibiting Ach release at the presynaptic terminal
- Corticosteroids - heparin
AV nodal cells
Protamine Sulfate is used for rapid reversal of heparinization (positively charged molecule that binds to negatively charged heparin).
Botulinum


10. What is clinical use for Carbenicillin - Piperacillin - and Ticarcillin?
Pseudomonas species and Gram - rods
Immediate anticoagulation for PE - stroke - angina - MI - DVT.
YES
GI distress - Skin rash - and Seizures at high plasma levels


11. What is the formula for Clearance (CL)
Centrally acting alpha agonist - thus causing a decrease in central adrenergic outflow - spairing renal blood flow
first dose orthostatic hypotension - dizziness - headache
CL= (rate of elimination of drug/ Plasma drug conc.)
Warfarin interferes with the normal synthesis and gamma - carboxylation of vitamin K- dependent clotting factors II - VII - IX - and X - Protein C and S via vitamin K antagonism.


12. What are the indications for using amphetamine?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183


13. Beta Blockers - CV toxicity?
Selectively inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) isoform 2 - Which is found in inflammatory cells nad mediates inflammation and pain; spares COX-1 Which helps maintain the gastric mucosa.
- Steroids - Tamoxifen
Blocks Peptide Bond formation at the 50S subunit - Bacteriostatic
bradycardia - AV block - CHF


14. Aztreonam is not ________ with penicillins
cross - allergenic
Acetylcholinesterase; ACh is broken down into choline and acetate.
Anaerobes
Oxygen


15. ___________ are Teratogenic
Extended spectrum penicillin: certain Gram + bacteria and Gram - rods
Aminoglycosides
1. Peptic ulcer 2. Gastritis 3. Esophageal reflux 4. Zollinger - Ellison syndrome
Stimulates beta adrenergic receptors


16. What are five possible toxic effects of Aspirin therapy?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183


17. What are the clinical uses for 2nd Generation Cephalosporins?
Gram + cocci - Haemophilus influenza - Enterobacter aerogenes - Neisseria species - P. mirabilis - E. coli - K. pneumoniae - Serratia marcescens ( HEN PEcKS )
Inhibit DNA Gyrase (topoisomerase II) - Bactericidal
Increases mean - systolic - and diastolic bp - while there is little change in pulse pressure.
YES


18. MOA: Block nucleotide synthesis
Ciprofloxacin - Norfloxacin - Ofloxacin - Grepafloxacin - Enoxacin - Nalidixic acid
Sulfonamides - Trimethoprim
Because they require some residual islet function.
Antibiotic - protein synthesis inhibitor.


19. What is the mechanism of Tacrolimus (FK506)?
Similar to cyclosporine; binds to FK- binding protein - inhibiting secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines.
Chronic (weeks or months)
Benzodiazepine.
Phenothiazine (neuroleptic - antiemetic).


20. Name the Protease Inhibitors (4)
Rifampin
hypertrichosis - pericardial effusion - reflex tachycardia - angina - salt retention
Saquinavir - Ritonavir - Indinavir - Nelfinavir
Hydralazine and Minoxidil


21. ________ ae not resistant to penicillinase - - but they are less susceptible than the other Beta lactams
Epinephrine to treat anaphylaxis. Also useful if you have open angle glaucoma - asthma - or hypotension.
Cephalosporins
- EDTA - dimercaprol - succimer - & penicillamine
Pretreat with antihistamines and a slow infusion rate


22. What is the MOA for Methicillin - Nafcillin - and Dicloxacillin?
Dopamine; causes its release from intact nerve terminals
Same as penicillin. Act as narrow spectrum antibiotics
- Isoniazid
torsade de pointes


23. What sympathomimetic would you not prescribe for hypotension in a pt with renal artery sclerosis.
DOC in diagnosing and abolishing AV nodal arrhythmias
1. Better bioavailability 2. 2 to 4 times longer half life 3. Can be administered subcutaneously 4. Does not require laboratory monitoring
Norepinephrine (Alpha1 -2 and beta 1)
Penicillin.


24. For Warfarin What is the Treatment for overdose
IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma
- Phenytoin
Phosphorylation by a Viral Kinase
Does not cross


25. Resistance mechanisms for Macrolides

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183


26. List the mechanism - clinical use - & toxicity of Doxorubicin.

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183


27. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Aplastic anemia (5)?
Vd= (Amt. of drug in body/ Plasma drug conc.)
- Chloramphenicol - benzene - NSAIDS - PTU - phenytoin
Rifampin - Ethambutol - Streptomycin - Pyrazinamide - Isoniazid (INH)
Antimetabolite derivative of 6- mercaptopurine that interferes with the metablolism and synthesis of nucleic acid.


28. What are Polymyxins used for?
sedation - sleep alterations
- Phase I (clinical tests) - Phase II - Phase III - PhaseIV (surveillance)
new arrhythmias - hypotension
Resistant Gram - infections


29. What are Aminoglycosides synergistic with?
Beta - lactam antibiotics
Beta lactams - inhibit cell wall synthesis - Bactericidal
Hemicholinium inhibits the transport of choline into the nerve - thus inhibiting formation of ACh.
1. Reliable (<1% failure) 2. Lowers risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer 3. Decreased incidence of ectopic pregnancy 4. Lower risk of pelvic infections 5. Regulation of menses


30. Which Tetracycline is used in patients with renal failure? / Why?
Enterobacter
Acute coronary syndrome; coronary stenting. Decreases the incidence or recurrence of thrombotic stroke.
Doxycycline - because it is fecally eliminated
Blocking muscarinic receptors in the circular fibers of the eye - results in unopposed action of radial muscles to dilate.


31. What is the memory key for the effect of aluminum hydroxide overuse?
Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - K+ sparing diuretics
- Protamine
AluMINIMUM amount of feces.


32. What is the mechanism of Azathioprine?
Inhibits bacterial Dihydrofolate Reductase - Bacteriostatic
Antimetabolite derivative of 6- mercaptopurine that interferes with the metablolism and synthesis of nucleic acid.
Succinylcholine
Ipratropium


33. Ca2+ channel blockers - site of action?
viral kinase
Sotalol - Ibutilide - Bretylium - Amiodarone
Cell membrane Ca2+ channels of cardiac sarcomere
Oxygen


34. Why does atropine dilate the pupil?
Epinephirine(Alpha1 -2 and Beta 1 -2)
1. Antipyretic 2. Analgesic 3. Anti - inflammatory
Blocking muscarinic receptors in the circular fibers of the eye - results in unopposed action of radial muscles to dilate.
post MI and digitalis induced arrhythmias


35. What is the clinical use for Sucralfate?
- Alkalinize urine & dialysis
1. Buffalo hump 2. Moon facies 3. Truncal obesity 4. Muscle wasting 5. Thin skin 6. Easy bruisability 7. Osteoporosis 8. Adrenocortical atrophy 9. Peptic ulcers
Peptic ulcer disease.
Aminoglycosides - Tetracyclines


36. What is the chemical name for Ganciclovir?
Malaria (P. falciparum)
Tricyclic antidepressant.
DHPG (dihydroxy-2- propoxymethyl guanine)
Inhibits IMP Dehydrogenase (competitively) - and therefore blocks Guanine Nucleotide synthesis


37. Mg+- clinical use?
decrease AP duration - affects ischemic or depolarized Purkinje and ventricular system
effective in torsade de pointes and digoxin toxicity
Muscarinic antagonist; competatively blocks muscarinic receptors - preventing bronchoconstriction.
Methylxanthine.


38. What is the definition of zero - order kinetics? Example?
severe hypertension - CHF
Tendonitis and Tendon rupture
- Constant AMOUNT eliminated per unit time. - Etoh & ASA
Rash - Pseudomembranous colitis


39. Which cancer drugs inhibit nucleotide synthesis(3)?
1. Antipyretic 2. Analgesic 3. Anti - inflammatory
- Clindamycin
- Atropine & pralidoxime
- Methotrexate - 5 FU - 6 mercaptopurine


40. How is Rifampin used clinically?
Well tolerated in general but occasionally - Nephrotoxicity - Ototoxicity - Thrombophlebitis - diffuse flushing='Red Man Syndrome'
Modification via Acetylation
Sulfonamides - Trimethoprim
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 2. Delays resistance to Dapsone When used of Leprosy 3. Used in combination with other drugs


41. Why would you use pralidoxime after exposure to an organophosphate?
Pralidoxime regenerates active cholinesterase.
Na/K ATPase
Babiturate.
diuretics - sympathoplegics - vasodilators - ACE inhibitors - Angiotensin II receptor inhibitors


42. Why is Cilastatin administered with Imipenem?
Leukopenia - Neutropenia - Thrombocytopenia - Renal toxicity
To inhibit renal Dihydropeptidase I and decrease Imipenem inactivation in the renal tubules
Sotalol - Ibutilide - Bretylium - Amiodarone
decrease myocardial O2 consumption by: 1- decreasing end diastolic volume 2- decreasing BP 3- decreasing HR 4- decreasing contractility 5- decreasing ejection time


43. What is the memory aid for subunit distribution of ribosomal inhibitors?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183


44. Are Ampicillin and Amoxicillin are not...
- Tricyclic antidepressants
Aminoglycosides - Tetracyclines
penicillinase resistant
Gentamicin - Neomycin - Amikacin - Tobramycin - Streptomycin


45. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Pulmonary fibrosis(3)?
1. Gastric ulceration 2. Bleeding 3. Hyperventilation 4. Reye's syndrome 5. Tinnitus (CN VIII)
- Bleomycin - amiodarone - busulfan
AV nodal cells
Aminoglycosides - Tetracyclines


46. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Hot flashes?
Inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the early distal tubule. Decreases Ca2+ excretion.
vasodilator - increases cGMP to induce smooth muscle relaxation (arterioles>veins; afterload reduction)
- Tamoxifen
Yes - it does not cross the placenta.


47. How is Amphotericin B used clinically?
Wide spectrum of systemic mycoses: Cryptococcus - Blastomyces - Coccidioides - Aspergillus - Histoplasma - Candida - Mucor
Aminoglycosides
Small lipid - soluble molecule
1. Acarbose 2. Miglitol


48. Furosemide increases the excretion of What ion?
Ca2+ (Loops Lose calcium)
- Halothane - Valproic acid - acetaminophen - Amantia phalloides
depresses ectopic pacemakers - especially in digoxin toxicity
Inhibits organification and coupling of thyroid hormone synthesis. Also decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.


49. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Digitalis
- Normalize K+ - Lidocaine - & Anti - dig Mab
1. In liver - increases storage of glucose as glycogen. 2. In muscle - stimulates glycogen and protein synthesis - and K+ uptake. 3. In adipose tissue - facilitates triglyceride storage.
- Alkalating agents+cisplatin - Doxorubicin+Dactinomycin - Bleomycin - Etoposide
Directly of indirectly aid conversion of plasminogen to plasmin Which cleaves thrombin and fibrin clots. (It is claimed that tPA specifically converts fibrin - bound plasminogen to plasmin.)


50. Furosemide - toxicity? (OH DANG)
Cyclooxygenases (COX I - COX II).
Gram + and Anerobes
Ototoxicity - Hypokalemia - Dehydration - Allergy (sulfa) - Nephritis (interstitial) - Gout
blocks SR Ca2+ channels