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USMLE Step 1 Pharmacology
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Subjects
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health-sciences
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usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What is the category of drug names ending in - operidol (e.g. Haloperidol)
aPTT (intrinsic pathway)
Beta antagonist.
Butyrophenone (neuroleptic).
1. Hydrocortisone 2. Predisone 3. Triamcinolone 4. Dexamethasone 5. Beclomethasone
2. Name three K+ sparing diuretics?
Verapamil - Diltiazem - Bepridil
Spironolactone - Triamterene - Amiloride (the K+ STAys)
- Protamine
- Physostigmine salicylate
3. What are three types of antacids and the problems that can result from their overuse?
1. Aluminum hydroxide: constipation and hypophosphatemia 2. Magnesium hydroxide: diarrhea 3. Calcium carbonate: Hypercalcemia - rebound acid increase - All may cause hypokalemia
The COX-2 inhibitors should not have the corrosive effects of other NSAIDs on the gastrointestinal lining.
Inhibits IMP Dehydrogenase (competitively) - and therefore blocks Guanine Nucleotide synthesis
- Tetracycline
4. How do Sulfonamides act on bacteria?
As PABA antimetabolites that inhibit Dihydropteroate Synthase - Bacteriostatic
Well tolerated in general but occasionally - Nephrotoxicity - Ototoxicity - Thrombophlebitis - diffuse flushing='Red Man Syndrome'
edematous states (CHF - cirrhosis - nephrotic syndrome - pulm edema) - HTN - hypercalcemia
Cardiac glycoside (inotropic agent).
5. Which antimicrobials inhibit protein synthesis at the 50S subunit? (4)
vasodilator - increases cGMP to induce smooth muscle relaxation (arterioles>veins; afterload reduction)
Benzathine penicillin G
1) Chloramphenical = bacteriostatic 2) Erythromycin = bacteriostatic 3) Lincomycin = bacteriostatic 4)cLindamycin = bacteriostatic
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 2. Delays resistance to Dapsone When used of Leprosy 3. Used in combination with other drugs
6. Ca2+ channel blockers - toxicity?
Clavulanic acid
cardiac depression - peripheral edema - flushing - dizziness - constipation
- Oral Contraceptives
Warfarin interferes with the normal synthesis and gamma - carboxylation of vitamin K- dependent clotting factors II - VII - IX - and X - Protein C and S via vitamin K antagonism.
7. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Adrenocortical Insufficiency
Resistant Gram - infections
- Hypersensitivity reactions - Hemolysis - Nephrotoxicity (tubulointerstitial nephritis) - Kernicterus in infants Displace other drugs from albumin (e.g. - warfarin)
atropine - homatropine - tropicamide
- Glucocorticoid withdrawal
8. What are five toxicities associated with Tacrolimus (FK506)?
1. Significant: nephrotoxicity 2. Peripheral neuropathy 3. Hypertension 4. Pleural effusion 5. Hyperglycemia.
compensatory tachycardia - fluid retention - lupus - like syndrome
INH: Injures Neurons and Hepatocytes
Hemicholinium inhibits the transport of choline into the nerve - thus inhibiting formation of ACh.
9. What is the MOA for the Aminoglycosides?
1. Antiandrogen 2. Nausea 3. Vomiting
Acts as a wide spectrum carbapenem
Inhibits formation of Initiation Complex - causes misreading of mRNA - Bactericidal
Gemfibrozil - Clofibrate
10. Describe the MOA of Interferons (INF)
AZT
The PT.
Glycoproteins from leukocytes that block various stages of viral RNA and DNA synthesis
Rapid (seconds)
11. What is the effect of epinephrine infusion on bp and pulse pressure?
loop diuretics - thiazides
Protamine sulfate
Increased systolic and pulse pressure - decreased diastolic pressure - and little change in mean pressure.
reduce levels of Angiotensin II - thereby preventing the inactivation of bradykinin (a potent vasodilator); renin level is increased
12. What are three toxicities of Propylthiouracil?
1. Skin rash 2. Agranulocytosis (rare) 3. Aplastic anemia
acts at the proximal convoluted tubule to inhibit carbonic anhydrase. Causes self - limited sodium bicarb diuresis and reduction of total body bicarb stores.
Muscarinic antagonist; competatively blocks muscarinic receptors - preventing bronchoconstriction.
increase AP duration - increase ERP - increase QT interval - for use When other arrhythmics fail
13. What is the mechanism of action of the Sulfonylureas?
Imipenem
Beta - lactamase cleavage of Beta - lactam ring
Close K+ channels in Beta - cell membrane leading to cell depolarization causing insulin release triggered by increase in Calcium ion influx.
Acute gout.
14. How is Rifampin used clinically?
hypokalemia - slight hyperlipidemia - hyperuricemia - lassitude - hypercalcemia - hyperglycemia
blocking the beta adrenergic receptor leads to decreased cAMP - and decreased Ca2+ flux
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 2. Delays resistance to Dapsone When used of Leprosy 3. Used in combination with other drugs
Clavulanic acid
15. Nifedipine has similar action to?
Nitrates
Giardiasis - Amoebic dysentery (E. histolytica) - Bacterial vaginitis (Gardnerella vaginalis) - Trichomonas
Pyridoxine (B6) administration
Pentamidine
16. What are the products and their toxicities of the metabolism of Methanol by / alcohol dehydrogenase?
- Formaldehyde & formic acid - severe acidosis & retinal damage
Neutropenia
NO
Beta lactams - inhibit cell wall synthesis - Bactericidal
17. What drug is used to treat Trematode/fluke (e.g. - Schistosomes - Paragonimus - Clonorchis) or Cysticercosis
- Upper respiratory tract infections - pneumonias - STDs: Gram+ cocci (streptococcal infect in pts allergic to penicillin) - Mycoplasma - Legionella - Chlamydia - Neisseria
1. Significant: nephrotoxicity 2. Peripheral neuropathy 3. Hypertension 4. Pleural effusion 5. Hyperglycemia.
torsade de pointes - excessive Beta block
Praziquantel
18. MOA for Penicillin (3 answers)?
1)Binds penicillin - binding proteins 2) Blocks transpeptidase cross - linking of cell wall 3) Activates autolytic enzymes
is resistant
Same as penicillin. Extended spectrum antibiotics
Long.
19. What are Amantadine - associated side effects?
1. Gastric ulceration 2. Bleeding 3. Hyperventilation 4. Reye's syndrome 5. Tinnitus (CN VIII)
- Daunorubicin & Doxorubicin
Ataxia - Dizziness - Slurred speech
fetal renal toxicity - hyperkalemia - Cough - Angioedema - Proteinuria - Taste changes - hypOtension - Pregnancy problems - Rash - Increased renin - Lower Angiotensin II (CAPTOPRIL)
20. Aztreonam is not usually...
toxic
1. Antipyretic 2. Analgesic 3. Anti - inflammatory
Neutropenia
They inhibit reuptake of NE at the nerve terminal (as does cocaine).
21. What is the mechanism of action of Sildenafil (Viagra)?
Inhibits cGMP phosphodiesterase - casuing increased cGMP - smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus cavernosum - increased blood flow - and penile erection.
Receptors = D1=D2>beta>alpha - thus increasing heart rate (beta) and blood pressure (alpha vasoconstriction) while maintaining kidney perfusion (dopamine receptors)
GI intolerance (nausea - diarrhea) - Hyperglycemia - Lipid abnormalities - Thrombocytopenia (Indinavir)
Small lipid - soluble molecule
22. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Tubulointerstitial Nephritis (5)?
No
toxic
- Sulfonamides - furosemide - methicillin - rifampin - NSAIDS (ex. ASA)
TMP- SMZ (DOC) - aerosolized pentamidine
23. What is the MOA of Isoniazid (INH)?
Decreases synthesis of Mycolic Acid
1. Antipyretic 2. Analgesic 3. Anti - inflammatory
very short acting
Chronic gout.
24. What are the classic symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning (parathion or other organophosphates)?
Tubocurarine - atracurium - mivacurium - pancuronium - vecuronium - rapacuronium
Diarrhea - Urination - Miosis - Bronchospasm - Bradycardia - Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS - Lacrimation - Sweating - and Salivation = DUMBBELS; also abdominal cramping
Chronic gout.
anuria - CHF
25. Ethacrynic Acid - mechanism?
NO HYPERURICEMIA - NO SULFA AllERGY; same as furosemide otherwise
Increases coumadin metabolism
not a sulfonamide - but action is the same as furosemide
Beta Blockers
26. What organism is Imipenem/cilastatin the Drug of Choice for?
Enterobacter
diuretics - sympathoplegics - vasodilators - ACE inhibitors - Angiotensin II receptor inhibitors
Protease inhibitor.
- polymyxins
27. What is the difference between the affinity for beta receptors between albuterol/terbutaline and dantroline?
- MT polymerization inhibitor(M phase) - MOPP - lymphoma - Willm's & choriocarcinoma - neurotoxicity and myelosuppression
- Tetracycline
Extended spectrum penicillin: certain Gram + bacteria and Gram - rods
Dobutamine has more of an affintiy for beta -1 than beta -2 - and is used for treating heart failure and shock. Albuterol and terbutaline is the reverse - and is used in treatment of acute asthma.
28. What is a possible toxicity of Ticlopidine - Clopidogrel usage?
It affects beta receptors equally and is used in AV heart block (rare).
TMP- SMZ
Neutropenia (ticlopidine); reserved for those who cannot tolerate aspirin.
Used in combination therapy with SMZ to sequentially block folate synthesis
29. Are not penicillinase resistant
Chronic gout.
Carbenicillin - Piperacillin - and Ticarcillin
Diarrhea - Urination - Miosis - Bronchospasm - Bradycardia - Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS - Lacrimation - Sweating - and Salivation = DUMBBELS; also abdominal cramping
fetal renal toxicity - hyperkalemia
30. What organisms does Griseofulvin target?
Dermatophytes (tinea - ringworm)
Beta antagonist.
- Methylene blue
Nitrates
31. What are the products and their toxicities of the metabolism of Ethylene Glycol by / alcohol dehydrogenase?
- Class III antiarrhythmics (sotalol) - class IA (quinidine)
Dermatophytes (tinea - ringworm)
- Oxalic acid - Acidosis & nephrotoxicity
hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis - neuropathy - NH3 toxicity - sulfa allergy
32. Ethacrynic Acid - clinical use?
Potent immunosuppressive used in organ transplant recipients.
Diuresis in pateints with sulfa allergy
- Quinidine - quinine
Paranteral (IV - SC)
33. What is Metronidazole used for clinically?
Antiprotozoal: Giardia - Entamoeba - Trichomonas - Gardnerella vaginalis Anaerobes: Bacteroides - Clostridium
HTN - CHF - calcium stone formation - nephrogenic DI.
Penicillin - G
impotence - asthma - CV effects (bradycardia - CHF - AV block) - CNS effects (sedation - sleep alterations)
34. Quinidine - toxicity?
pulmonary fibrosis - corneal deposits - hepatotoxicity - skin deposits resulting in photodermatitis - neurologic effects - consitpation - CV (bradycardia - heart block - CHF) - and hypo - or hyperthyroidism.
- Vitamin K & fresh frozen plasma
cinchonism: HA - tinnitus - thrombocytopenia - torsade de pointes due to increased QT interval
Clavulanic acid
35. List the mechanism - clinical use - & toxicity of Prednisone.
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36. What is the mechanism of action of the H2 Blockers?
Epinephirine(Alpha1 -2 and Beta 1 -2)
The PTT.
Reversible block of histamine H2 receptors
- Tetracycline
37. What neurotransmitter does Amantadine affect? How does it influence this NT?
Systemic mycoses
1. Peptic ulcer 2. Gastritis 3. Esophageal reflux 4. Zollinger - Ellison syndrome
Slow - limited by half lives of clotting factors
Dopamine; causes its release from intact nerve terminals
38. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Aplastic anemia (5)?
1. Cimetadine 2. Ranitidine 3. Famotidine 4. Nizatidine
1. Hot flashes 2. Ovarian enlargement 3. Multiple simultaneous pregnancies 4. Visual disturbances
- Chloramphenicol - benzene - NSAIDS - PTU - phenytoin
is resistant
39. Antiarrhythmic class IV- primary site of action?
AV nodal cells
torsade de pointes - excessive Beta block
1. Heavy bleeding 2. GI effects (n/v - anorexia) 3. Abdominal pain
Reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase - mostly in CNS. Inactivated peripherally.
40. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Pseudomembranous colitis?
- Alkalating agents+cisplatin - Doxorubicin+Dactinomycin - Bleomycin - Etoposide
decrease
- Clindamycin
1. RNA pol inhibitor 2. Revs up P450 3. Red/orange body fluids 4. Rapid resistance if used alone
41. Antiarrhythmic class IA effects?
Oral
Acetylcholine esterase
- Acetaldehyde - Nausea - vomiting - headache - & hypotension
increased AP duration - increased ERP increased QT interval. Atrial and ventricular.
42. Where does Griseofulvin deposit?
- Niacin - Ca++ channel blockers - adenosine - vancomycin
Doxycycline - because it is fecally eliminated
Keratin containing tissues - e.g. - nails
1. Skin rash 2. Agranulocytosis (rare) 3. Aplastic anemia
43. Ethacrynic Acid - toxicity?
Albuterol - tertbutaline
all except the K+ sparing diuretics Spironolactone - Triamterene - Amiloride
NO HYPERURICEMIA - NO SULFA AllERGY; same as furosemide otherwise
GI distress - Skin rash - and Seizures at high plasma levels
44. A fellow passenger on a Carnival cruise ship looks pale and diaphoretic - What antimuscarinic agent would you give them?
Systemic mycoses
hypertension - angina - arrhythmias
scopolamine
- Bleomycin - amiodarone - busulfan
45. What are the products and their toxicities of the metabolism of ethanol by / alcohol dehydrogenase?
Hemolysis (if G6PD deficient) - Neurotoxicity - Hepatotoxicity - SLE- like syndrome
- Acetaldehyde - Nausea - vomiting - headache - & hypotension
Acute (hours)
PT
46. Reserpine will block the syntheis of this drug and but not its precursor.
sedation - positive Coombs' test
Blocks Norepi - but not Dopamine
The COX-2 inhibitors should not have the corrosive effects of other NSAIDs on the gastrointestinal lining.
- Glucocorticoid withdrawal
47. Esmolol - short or long acting?
Minor hepatotoxicity - Drug interactions (activates P450)
very short acting
hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis - neuropathy - NH3 toxicity - sulfa allergy
collecting ducts
48. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Carbon monoxide
- Protamine
torsade de pointes - excessive Beta block
Similar to cyclosporine; binds to FK- binding protein - inhibiting secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines.
-100% oxygen - hyperbaric
49. What is the mecanism of action - effective period - and ineffective period of use for Cromolyn in treating Asthma?
decrease
The PT.
Forms toxic metabolites in the bacterial cell - Bactericidal
Prevents release of mediators from mast cells. Effective only for the prophylaxis of asthma. Not effective during an acute attack.
50. What is the mechanism of Tacrolimus (FK506)?
IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma
Short.
Milk or Antacids - because divalent cations inhibit Tetracycline absorption in the gut
Similar to cyclosporine; binds to FK- binding protein - inhibiting secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines.
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