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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. In eukaryotes - What transcription factor binds to the TATA box before RNA polymerase II can bind?
Transcription factor IID
CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve
almitate
The thyroid gland
2. What is the primary end product of pyrimidine synthesis?
Pneumotaxic center (short - fast breaths)
Depression
Mural infarct
UMP
3. What is the most serious form of tinea capitis - which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. a - Limit dextrans (a -1 - 6 binding)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Tinea favosa (favus)
Dynorphin
4. What branch off the vertebral artery supplies x The cerebellum and the dorsolateral part of the medulla?
PICA
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)
Anaerobes
Uracil
5. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Cerebral hemispheres
Mitral valve prolapse
Carbonic anhydrase
Proencephalon
Passive - aggressive
6. What Brodmann area is associated with x Primary somatosensory cortex?
Areas 1 - 2 - and 3
Site 4
Selegiline
Salmonella typhi
7. What is the name of the spinal cord passing within the subarachnoid space and forming the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?
The central vein of the liver lobule
IgM
refuse
Cauda equina
8. What Beta2- agonist is used as a prophylactic agent in the treatment of asthma?
Salmeterol
Translation
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)
Craniopharyngioma
9. Neurofibrillary tangles
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
S phase
Alzheimer disease
10. What are the three polymorphonuclear leukocytes? Be specific.
Neutrophils - eosinophils - and basophils
Mesangial macrophages
During stage 3 and 4 (remember - it is called deep sleep.)
Hypervariable region
11. What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
Laminin
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)
Amiloride
Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular capillaries (promotes filtration)
12. What component of an ECG is associated with the following? - Atrial depolarization
Lactulose
P wave
Burr cells (echinocytes)
Cyanide
13. What is the most common STD?
Selection bias
Albinism
Succinate dehydrogenase
HPV
14. At What age do children begin to understand the irreversibility of death?
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy persons have them - but schizophrenics do not.
At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view death as a form of punishment.
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)
15. In the alveoli - what cell type is x responsible for producing surfactant?
ATP/ADP Translocase
Type II pneumocytes
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase - lipase - and proteases for digestion.
HMG- CoA reductase
16. Renal epithelial casts in the urine
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus - or GBS)
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
H1 histones
Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
17. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Nitrosoureas
Correlation. No - correlation does not imply causation.
Area 4
Mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma
G0 phase
18. Regarding the viral growth curve - is the external virus present before or after the latent period?
Chloral hydrate
Sinus venosus
After the latent period
Achondroplasia
19. What cytokines do Th2 cells secrete to inhibit Th1 cell function?
Vitamin D3
Ewing sarcoma
Pearson correlation
IL-4 - IL-10 - and IL-13
20. What vascular pathology is associated with HTN in the upper extremities - hypotension in the lower extremities - and a radial - femoral delay?
Chlamydia trachomatis
A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication - and the jaw deviates to the right.
There would be a Fab' region; thus - it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.
Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)
21. Dopamine antagonists are...
antiemetic
3'-5' direction - synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction
One - and it provides the energy for mechanical contraction.
3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
22. How do elevated blood glucose levels decrease GH secretion? (Hint: what inhibitory hypothalamic hormone is stimulated by IGF-1?)
In bone; nearly 99% of Ca2+ is stored in the bone as hydroxyapatite.
Rhombencephalon
Isotypes
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1 - and they inhibit GH secretion. GHRH stimulates GH secretion.
23. Using Laplace's relationship regarding wall tension - why is the wall tension in an aneurysm greater than in the surrounding normal blood vessel's wall?
Ligamentum venosum
Minor
Oxytocin
The wall tension is greater because the aneurysm has a greater radius than the surrounding vessel.
24. What is the term for granuloma at the lung apex in TB?
There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face.
Class IV
Native Americans
Simon focus
25. Name at least three bacteria that use capsules to prevent immediate destruction from the host's defense system.
Streptococcus pneumoniae - Klebsiella pneumoniae - Haemophilus influenzae - Pseudomonas aeruginosa - and Neisseria meningitidis; also Cryptococcus neoformans - a fungus
Urachus
alpha - Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on - cells and inhibitory effects on - cells.
Ungated potassium channel
26. What CD4 T- cell receptor does the HIV virus bind to?
Peau d'orange
Endometrial cancer
gp120
HMP shunt
27. What happens to intraventricular pressure and volume during isovolumetric contraction?
RSV
The aorta
As the name indicates - there is no change in volume but there is an increase in pressure.
1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI mucosa
28. What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C infections?
embranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive - compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.
Humor
Auspitz sign
29. What is the most common one? - Stone type associated with cholecystitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
CHF - cirrhosis - and nephrosis
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle - delaying the closure of the pulmonic valve.
30. What is pumped from the lumen of the ascending loop of Henle to decrease the osmolarity?
It normally does not play a role in filtration but becomes important when there is an obstruction downstream.
Dorsal prefrontal cortex
NaCl is removed from the lumen to dilute the fluid leaving the loop of Henle.
p -53
31. Name the B- cell CD marker: x Required for class switching signals from T cells
Metaproterenol and albuterol
Stable
Chromosome 11p
CD40
32. What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and PO4?
Avidity (more than one binding site)
Nonsense
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also - but it is not a sphingolipid)
Thick skin
33. What Freudian psyche component is described as x The conscience - morals - beliefs (middle of the road)?
Posterior compartment of the leg - tibial nerve
Hematoxylin
Hemostasis
Superego
34. What is the term for pus in the pleural space?
Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level of the lesion
Foramen of Winslow
Empyema
Copper (Cu+)
35. A suspected dermatophyte infection is stained with KOH. What spore type do you expect to see?
Sadism
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells - so it is considered the thymic - dependent area.
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Arthroconidia with hyphae
36. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x sis
Id (pleasure principle)
The vestibulo - ocular reflex
Glucose -6- phosphatase
Astrocytoma
37. What disorder is associated with decreased platelet count - prolonged PT and PTT - decreased fibrinogen - and increased fibrin split products (D- dimers)?
Y - W-135 - and C and A capsular polysaccharides
Clostridium perfringens
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
38. What pathway uses HMG CoA synthetase in the cytoplasm?
Griseofulvin
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
Myasthenia gravis
Cholesterol biosynthesis
39. Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? - Subcutaneous nodules
Marfan syndrome
CN X
The pH of CSF is 7.33 - acidotic.
Major
40. What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?
Ptosis (eyelid drooping) - miosis (pupillary constriction) - and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1- to T4 are obstructed.
Hemangioma (benign)
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore - they are not used if a patient has hypertriglyceridemia.
Prolactinoma
41. What cell of the duodenum contains high concentrations of lysozymes and has phagocytic activity?
Paneth cells
Absolutely not! Answer any question you are asked.
Clonidine
Nerve fibers with small diameter and high firing rates are most sensitive to local blockade
42. What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis of the Okazaki fragments - 3' exonuclease activity - and 5' exonuclease activity?
Filiform papillae
Rhabdomyoma
DNA polymerase I
At least 5 lobes
43. What term is defined as a patient unconsciously placing his or her thoughts and feelings on the physician in a caregiver or parent role?
Transposons
Transference. When it is from the physician to the patient it is called countertransference.
Asparagine
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
44. Is jugular venous distention a presentation of isolated left or right heart failure?
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization - ischemia - aging - and a host of other causes.
Right - sided
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream - and the -35 promoter site is self - explanatory.
Fixation (arrested development)
45. What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? - Cortisol increased - ACTH decreased
Axis II
Hyperacute rejection
Splenic flexure
Primary hypercortisolism
46. What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Forcing patients to confront their fears by being exposed to them until they are extinguished?
Exposure
Spironolactone
Crohn disease
Yohimbine
47. What is the primer for the synthesis of the second strand in production of cDNA from mRNA?
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48. What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is priapism?
PTH
Trazodone
EF-2 and GTP
Melanocytes
49. What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences because of an inability to retrieve them?
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50. How many oogonia are present at birth?
Fever - night sweats - and hemoptysis
Distal convoluted tubules
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.