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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. When attempting to make up sleep - what stage of sleep is recovered?
About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered - approximately half of REM is recovered - and only one - third of total sleep is ever made up.
Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X) Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
Wegener granulomatosis
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA - UGA - UAG) code for the termination of translation.

2. What is the bone marrow maturation time for a phagocytic cell?
Subacute combined degeneration - Which is bilateral below the level of the lesion.
14 days
GLUT 4
Acetyl CoA carboxylase

3. What breast pathology involves malignant cells with halos invading the epidermis of the skin?
Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
HBeAb
The vermis
Paget disease of the breast

4. In an adult - Where does the spinal cord terminate and What is it called?
The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.
Hodgkin lymphoma
Anxiety disorders; for men it is substance abuse.
after abortion

5. Name the four right - to - left congenital cardiac shunts.
Plasmodium ovale
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
LTC4 and LTD4

6. What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with Homer - Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur - pelvis - and tibia; and chromosome 11;22 translocation?

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7. What cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated in response to hypercalcemia?
Coagulative necrosis
DNA polymerase -?
Free ionized Ca2+
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia.

8. What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with blood and pus in the stool - is transmitted via fecal - oral route - is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool - and forms liver abscesses and inverted flask - shaped lesions in the large int
Sublimation
Entamoeba histolytica (treat with metronidazole)
N- Acetylcysteine
Melanin

9. Name the most common type or cause - Cirrhosis in the United States
Alcohol consumption
Cervical neoplasia
EF-1 and GTP
Bladder carcinoma

10. What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
Ventilation of an unperfused lung segment is highly suspicious for pulmonary embolism.
The rate of infusion
Alcoholic cirrhosis

11. Name the most common type or cause - UTIs
Iron (Fe)
Multiple myeloma
Escherichia coli
Yohimbine

12. What is the main inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
Yersinia pestis
Rhabdovirus
Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.

13. What toxicities are caused by the following agents? - Occupational nitrous oxide exposure
Sideroblastic anemia
Chromosome 15
Arginine
Anemia

14. Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: x Lesion in Brodmann area 22; impaired comprehension; incoherent rapid - fluent speech; verbal paraphrasias; trouble repeating statements

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15. Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: x Synthesizes tRNA - snRNA - and the 5S rRNA
Palindrome
Sublimation
Moderate (35-49)
RNA polymerase III

16. What drug is an M1- specific antispasmodic?
Diffuse proliferative GN
Papovavirus
Pirenzepine
Chlamydia psittaci

17. What is the only way to increase O2 delivery in the coronary circulation?
Free - unprocessed Ag
1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment
Hyperventilation - which decreases CO2 - shifting the reaction to the left and decreasing H+
Increasing blood flow is the only way to increase O2 delivery in the coronary circulation because extraction is nearly maximal during resting conditions.

18. What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? - Ovarian and round ligaments
Cleft lip
Semipermeable membrane; a selectively permeable membrane allows both water and small solutes to pass through its membrane.
Gubernaculum
REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.

19. What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?
Transient ischemic attack
Fat necrosis
Poxvirus
Dantrolene

20. What is the term for severe and protracted vomiting resulting in linear lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction?
Mallory- Weiss syndrome
When it crosses the teres major
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Narcissistic

21. Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies - Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Hepatic adenomas
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
Escherichia coli
Central/neurogenic diabetes insipidus; in the nephrogenic form there is sufficient ADH available - but the renal collecting ducts are impermeable to its actions.

22. With What three enzymes is thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP) associated?
ELISA. It detects anti - p24 IgG.
1. a - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vital to tissue respiration. It is required for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl - coenzyme A -
Ipratropium
Areas 1 - 2 - and 3

23. What part of the heart forms x The right border?
Aedes mosquito
Right atrium
Adult T- cell leukemia
Increases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

24. What a1- agonist - not inactivated by catechol - O- methyl transferase (COMT) - is used as a decongestant and for treatment of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?
Hydralazine - isoniazid - and procainamide (HIP)
Gaucher disease
Isovolumetric contraction
Phenylephrine

25. What is the most common one? - Benign tumor of the ovary
Parkinson disease
Serocystadenoma
HBcAb IgG - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg
The left is a branch of the aortic arch - while the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk.

26. What is the central chemoreceptor's main drive for ventilation?
Arthroconidia with hyphae
Amnesia. (The person is aware of the memory loss.)
Tryptophan
CSF H+ levels - with acidosis being the main central drive - resulting in hyperventilation (the opposite being true with alkalosis)

27. What segment of the small intestine is associated with Brunner's glands?
Quaternary structure
Tay- Sachs disease
Exhibitionism
Duodenum

28. What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?
Hypnozoite
Progestins
Capillary flow and pressure increase with arteriolar dilation and decrease with arteriolar constriction.
IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF- gamma also)

29. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?
Ganglioside
The vermis
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen production.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

30. The vertebral artery is a branch of What artery?
The subclavian artery
Inferior phrenic artery
Musculocutaneous nerve
The coding strand is identical to mRNA - and the template strand is complementary and antiparallel.

31. Name the associated chromosome - Down syndrome
Upper third skeletal muscle - middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle - and lower third smooth muscle
Extracellular
Thymic epithelial cells - dendritic cells - and macrophages
Chromosome 21

32. What is the term to describe a man who has x The ability to have an erection sometimes and other times not?
Cortisol
Selective erectile disorder
C3b
Rhombencephalon

33. What IL is important in myeloid cell development?
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
Papovavirus
DiGeorge syndrome - Which is due to a failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouch development. Remember - B cell deficiencies are associated with extracellular infection. T cell deficiencies are associated with intracellular infections
The vermis

34. What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? - von Gierke's disease
Transitional cell carcinoma
CD40
Nominal scale (categorical - e.g. - male or female)
Glucose -6- phosphatase

35. What is the DOC for bipolar disorder?
Lithium
Target cell
Efficacy
Rheumatic fever

36. Which four bacteria require cysteine for growth?
Primary hypoparathyroidism
Small to medium - sized cerebral vessels
Pasteurella - Brucella - Legionella - and Francisella (all of the - ellas)
Somatoform disorder

37. Which hepatitis B serology markers
Chromosome 14 - 18
HBsAb IgG
Spermatogonia (type B)
Hepatic adenomas

38. What are the three naked RNA viruses?
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies - indicating high protein synthesis.
Sulfonamides
1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. Reovirus (Remember PCR)
Heroin

39. What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to thrive - mental retardation - motor incoordination - and stunted growth?
Isovolumetric contraction
Osteosarcoma
Iodine - resulting in congenital hypothyroidism
IL-8. It not only is chemotactic - it also acts as an adhesive for neutrophils.

40. What CNS tumor cells stain positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)?
Astrocytoma
45XO
Separation anxiety
Nevirapine; it cuts the rate from 20% to 10%. AZT is also used - cutting the rate from 20% to 10%.

41. What part of a neuron receives information?
Terbinafine
Superior gluteal nerve
Dendrites receive information - whereas axons send information.
Minoxidil (orally and topically - respectively!)

42. The clearance of what substance is the gold standard of GFR?
Dissociative fugue. (Patients are unaware of memory loss.)
Thick skin
Inulin
The greater the myelination - the greater the conduction velocity.

43. Do not have MHC class I Ags on their surface.
snRNA
RBCs
Chromosome 6
Positive correlation

44. What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background?
With an increased depth of breathing both the total and alveolar ventilation increase. This concept is always tested on the boards - so remember it.
In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.
Cryptococcus neoformans
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.

45. What subset of CD4 helper T- cell function is helping the development of CD8 T cells?
Paneth cells
Small cell cancer of the lung
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed - type hypersensitivity (type IV)
Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type - DAT). (Remember - Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of dementias seen in patients 65 years old.)

46. What drug causes a sixfold increase in schizophrenia - can impair motor activity - and can cause lung problems?
Sucralfate
Marijuana
During REM sleep
Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl CoA transferase

47. With an increase in arterial systolic pressure - what happens to x Stroke volume?
Increases
Polycystic ovary disease (Stein - Leventhal syndrome)
External 3' - 5' PDE bonds
Phase I

48. What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia - ataxia - paresthesias - monocular blindness and weakness - or spastic paresis?
Decreases
Escherichia coli
Multiple sclerosis
In the first 3 months

49. What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent sinopulmonary infections - uncoordinated muscle movements - and dilation of the blood vessels?
Palms - up before palms - down maneuvers
Brain - spleen - and kidney
Ataxia - telangiectasia
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling phase.

50. Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: x Systolic murmur - increased preload and afterload - decreased aortic pulse pressure and coronary blood flow
absorption
Lymph nodes
Aortic stenosis
Microglia