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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Which thalamic nucleus receives auditory input from the inferior colliculus?
MGB
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
Propofol

2. What endogenous pigment found in the substantia nigra and melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine?
Non - Hodgkin lymphoma
6 years old
Melanin
Proteus

3. What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is priapism?
Trazodone
Polycythemia vera (Remember - polycythemia vera is a risk factor for acute leukemias.)
Vimentin
Ethacrynic acid

4. What organism causes Q fever?
Concentration gradient
Coxiella burnetii
Clindamycin
Myasthenia gravis

5. What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?
Atropine and 2- PAM (pralidoxime)
HBeAb
QRS complex
It causes a buildup of dATP - which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate - a precursor of DNA - resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.

6. What is the largest nucleus in the midbrain?
Terminal bronchioles. (No gas exchange occurs here.)
Test - retest reliability
The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.
GH- producing adenoma

7. With What two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?
Asbestosis and silicosis
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.
Ampulla
Fossa ovale

8. What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE- mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
At least 5 lobes
Factitious disorder
Eosinophils

9. What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photoreceptors?
The optic disk is the blind spot.
N- Acetylcysteine
Bcl -2
The hairpin loop made by reverse transcriptase at the 3' end of the first strand is the primer.

10. What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased hematocrit - blood viscosity - basophils - and eosinophils; intense pruritus; and gastric ulcers due to histamine release from basophils - increased LAP - and plethora?
DNA polymerase - d
Polycythemia vera (Remember - polycythemia vera is a risk factor for acute leukemias.)
Fibrillary protein - amyloid protein - and glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate mainly)
Empyema

11. Name the most common type or cause - Noniatrogenic hypothyroidism in the United States
Taenia saginata
Nitrofurantoin
Macrophages
Hashimoto thyroiditis

12. What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin K- dependent factors?
GH deficiency
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
Cefamandole - cefoperazone - and moxalactam
Breast cancer

13. What neurotransmitter is presynaptically inhibited by reserpine and guanethidine?
Trypsin
NE
Arginine
Constriction of efferent arteriole

14. Pseudorosettes
Ewing sarcoma
Coagulative
Deferoxamine - penicillamine
Tinea favosa (favus)

15. What is the most common one? - Renal cell cancer type
Chlamydia trachomatis
The resting membrane potential of the cell is -90 mV because of the intracellular proteins.
Prevalence increases.
Clear cell

16. What hormone's release is strongly associated with stage 4 sleep?
Fusobacterium
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24- hour period is during stage 4 sleep.
Arterioles
Calcium oxylate

17. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Teratogenicity
Metronidazole
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin - ACh - and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.
Acute rejection
Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase

18. Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?
Superior vena cava
RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.
Iron (Fe)
Secondary hypercortisolism (pituitary)

19. What enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamides?
Left coronary artery
Dihydropteroate synthetase
gram positive
Keloid

20. What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by x Increased total body sodium - ECF volume - plasma volume - BP - and pH; decreased potassium - renin and AT II activity; no edema?
Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest velocity in systemic circulation
Public speaking (Remember: stage fright)
Oxytocin
Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)

21. What enzyme catalyzes the reversible oxidative deamination of glutamate and produces the TCA cycle intermediate a - ketoglutarate?
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Sympathetic nervous system
ater flows from a low - solute to high - solute concentrations.

22. Multiple pregnancies - early age of intercourse - multiple sexual partners - OCP use - smoking - HIV - and STDs.
Proencephalon
CD14
As flow increases - the urine becomes more dilute because of decreased time for H2O reabsorption.
Risk factors for cervical cancer

23. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x CA-125
Prostatic carcinoma
Arch of the aorta
Ovarian cancer
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and therefore is considered the active form.

24. What artificial sweetener must patients with PKU avoid?
3- Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)
The greater the cell diameter - the greater the conduction velocity.
Aspartame
Measles (rubeola)

25. What benign solitary papillary growth within the lactiferous ducts of the breast commonly produces bloody nipple discharge?
Intraductal papilloma
It normally does not play a role in filtration but becomes important when there is an obstruction downstream.
Hapten (not immunogenic)
pH of 2 and 9

26. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Hypoglossal canal
give a warning
CN IX - X - and XI; sigmoid sinus
CN XII
p -53

27. Name the Hgb - O2 binding site based on the following information: x Greatest affinity of the three remaining sites for attachment; requires PO2 levels of 26 mm Hg to remain attached
Site 2
Posterior
Osteosarcoma
Free polysomes. Membrane - associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.

28. Lucid interval
Spermatogonia (type B)
Pancreatic insufficiency
Epidural hematoma
There would be two Fab and Fc regions.

29. What enzyme is deficient in selective T cell immunodeficiency?
Rhombencephalon
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
A low - resistance system is formed by resistors added in parallel.
Adipose tissue

30. What hormone controls relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter during swallowing?
Somatomedins (IGF-1)
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary
Carbamazepine

31. What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in atrophy - chorea - dementia - and personality changes?
C4 (the upper border of the thyroid cartilage)
Zileuton
Huntington disease
Propranolol

32. What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly - ascites - and abdominal pain due to hepatic vein thrombosis?
Phase 2
Budd - Chiari syndrome
Class 1 (1A - 1B - and 1C)
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling phase.

33. What scale has a true zero point - graded into equal increments - and also orders them?
Early distal tubule
Exhibitionism
Aspiration pneumonia
Ratio scale

34. What purine base is contained in inosine monophosphate?
GH and prolactin are produced by acidophils; all others are by basophils.
CHF
LTB4
Hypoxanthine (remember - IMP is a precursor for AMP and GMP)

35. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x Amount of air in the lungs after maximal inspiration
Total lung capacity (TLC)
CN I
Staphylococcus aureus
PTH increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT of the kidney and decreases PO4- reabsorption in the PCT.

36. Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?
Hepatitis E (enteric)
Phallus
Teratoma (dermoid cyst)
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)

37. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Thymus
Naloxone or naltrexone
Carbamazepine
Leydig cell tumor
Superior and anterior

38. In high altitudes - What is the main drive for ventilation?
PTH
Graves disease
The main drive shifts from central chemoreceptors (CSF H+) to peripheral chemoreceptors monitoring low PO2 levels.
Nocardia asteroides

39. What ovarian disease involves psammoma bodies?
Pregnancy
Persistent truncus arteriosus
Serocystadenocarcinoma
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia

40. What Brodmann area is associated with x Primary motor cortex?
Depolarization (i.e. - Na+ influx)
Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery
Amyloidosis
Area 4

41. What antihypertensive agent produces cyanide and thiocyanate as byproducts?
Adult T- cell leukemia
Relative refractory period
a - Blockers (- zosins)
Nitroprusside

42. Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean type of what deficiency?
Breast cancer
Right brachiocephalic artery
8 weeks (response to a face)
G-6- PD deficiency

43. What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to epiphyseal fusion?
Anticipation
CD28
Rickets prior to fusion - osteomalacia if the deficiency occurs after epiphyseal fusion.
Voyeurism

44. Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio - Mississippi - Missouri - and Eastern Great Lakes - is found in soil with bird and bat feces - and is associated with infections in spelunkers and chicken coop cleaners?
Liver
Affinity decreases; they are inversely proportional.
SLE; ANA - anti - dsDNA and anti - Sm (anti - Smith)
Histoplasma capsulatum

45. Name the RNA subtype based on the following: x RNA molecules with enzymatic activity
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
Epinephrine
Ribozymes
Misoprostol

46. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Calcitonin
eEF-1
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive - compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Squamous cell carcinoma

47. What are the two broad - spectrum penicillins?
The alveolar PO2 and PCO2 levels
Ampicillin and amoxicillin
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. Microvilli (600 times)
Filtration is greater than excretion for net reabsorption to occur.

48. Being college educated increases a man's risk of having...
It is rare with normal grief; however - it is relatively common in depression
Positive reinforcement
Quinolones
premature ejaculation

49. Results in vitamin B12 malabsorption.
Citrate - via the citrate shuttle
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP- SMX)
Pancreatic insufficiency
Functions of hepatocytes

50. Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae family members
Succinylcholine
All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and Proteus.
Strongyloides stercoralis is treated with thiabendazole.
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate