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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Name the type of mutation: x Unequal crossover in meiosis with loss of protein function
Shaping (successive approximation)
Large segment deletions
G0 phase
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
2. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Naphthylamine
There would be a Fab' region; thus - it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.
Lateral collateral ligament
Ag - Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus.
Bladder cancer
3. What oral antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by disrupting microtubule structure and depositing keratin?
Common and internal carotid arteries
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed - type hypersensitivity (type IV)
Griseofulvin
Impotence
4. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot
CN IX and X
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
Parvovirus
Lateral compartment of the leg - superficial peroneal nerve
5. What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? - Percentage of Na+ - Cl - - K+ left in the lumen
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
Pituitary hypogonadism
Fading
t the end of the PCT 25% of Na+ - Cl - - K+ is left
6. What disorder is defined by inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax with swallowing and a bird beak barium swallow result?
Rhinovirus
Ulcerative colitis
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
Heroin
7. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: x Skill - based memory - verbal recall - balance - refined voluntary movements
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
Galactitol
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis
Cerebellum
8. What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14 days long?
Potency
The secretory phase is progesterone - dependent and 14 days long - whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
Mumps
Decreases
9. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Vagus nerve
The lung will expand; also the opposite is true.
Posterior
Axis V
At birth (reflex)
10. In what stage of psychosexual development - according to Freud - do children resolve the Oedipus complex?
Latency stage (6-12 years)
Low average
Chromosome 20q (deficiency in adenosine deaminase)
Myeloschisis All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
11. Which class of diuretics is used to treat metabolic acidosis - acute mountain sicknesses - and glaucoma and to aid in the elimination of acidic drug overdoses?
Frotteurism
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide and dorzolamide)
Pulmonary embolism due to a DVT; this is not absolute but a classic description.
ater flows from a low - solute to high - solute concentrations.
12. What hormone excess produces adrenal hyperplasia?
Thymine
reflexes
ACTH
Bronchiectasis
13. What tumor is derived from primitive streak remnants and often contains bone - hair - or other tissue types?
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Medial collateral ligament
Depolarization is from apex to base and from endocardium to epicardium.
Pancreatic delta - cell tumors inhibit CCK secretion
14. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Aortic arch
Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
Superior
The greater the cell diameter - the greater the conduction velocity.
MGB
15. What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus - dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles - and signs of extrapyramidal lesions?
Huntington disease
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity and decreased blood volume.
>5 mm
Turner syndrome
16. What is the most common form of non - Hodgkin lymphoma in the United States?
Pulmonary infections
Negative reinforcement
Follicular lymphoma
Increased CO2 - H+ - temperature - and 2 - 3- BPG levels all shift the curve to the right - thereby making the O2 easier to remove (decreased affinity) from the Hgb molecule.
17. What are the two precursors of heme?
Glycine and succinyl - CoA
Toxoplasma gondii
Erythema multiforme
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower water concentrations.
18. What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: x NADH (hint: 3 enzymes)
Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)
Isocitrate dehydrogenase - a - ketoglutarate dehydrogenase - and malate dehydrogenase
Follicular phase is estrogen - dependent with increased FSH levels - while the luteal phase is progesterone - dependent.
G2 phase (gap 2)
19. What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? - The contraction of the right atrium
Permanent
Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate and choline (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic nerve terminal).
wave
Labioscrotal swelling
20. If the family member of a patient asked you to withhold information - would you?
For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no - but if the information would do more harm than good - withhold. This is very rare but it does occur.
Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm/L)
Herpes I
GH deficiency
21. What is the pancreatic action of CCK?
Cyanocobalamin (B12)
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase - lipase - and proteases for digestion.
EBV
Osteoblast (Remember - blasts make - clasts take)
22. What are the three end products of amylase digestion?
Megaloblasts
1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine
Arsenic
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. a - Limit dextrans (a -1 - 6 binding)
23. Does the zygote divide mitotically or meiotically?
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful) - which lies closest to the midline of the spinal cord.
von Hippel - Lindau syndrome
The carotid body - which monitors arterial blood directly
24. Name the associated chromosomal translocation - Adult familial polyposis
Primary Hemochromatosis
Diethylcarbamazine
Chromosome 5 - 21
Resorb CSF into the blood
25. Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values - Decreased iron - percent saturation - and ferritin; increased TIBC
Snails
Chronic end - stage renal disease
Suppression
Iron deficiency anemia
26. What antihypertensive agent produces cyanide and thiocyanate as byproducts?
Nitroprusside
Cauda equina
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam ( OTL - Outside The Liver)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
27. What happens to dopamine levels when we awaken?
Hypoxanthine (remember - IMP is a precursor for AMP and GMP)
Cardiac muscle
Dopamine levels rise with waking; dopamine is associated with wakefulness.
give a warning
28. Which hepatitis B serology markers
Flumazenil
Renal failure
HBcAb IgG and HBsAb IgG
Class III
29. Serum concentration of what substance is used as a clinical measure of a patient's GFR?
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 48-96 hour latency)
Alveolar dead space
Creatinine
9.3 L - 15% of body weight
30. What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?
MHC class II Ags. This is accomplished via CD4 T cells.
Keratinocytes - the most numerous cells in the epidermis - carry melanin and produce keratin.
Disorganized schizophrenia
1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell division or complementation 3. Control the level of the response 4. Remove foreign material
31. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with x Coccygeal vertebrae?
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a Beta- blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better outcomes than those who do not.
Cryptococcus
One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Lactose must be present and glucose must be absent
32. What hypothalamic hormone is synthesized in the preoptic nucleus?
GnRH
Antisocial
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)
Staphylococcus aureus
33. What is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic?
Schistosoma have separate males and females.
Very superior (<2.5% of the population)
Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle
The vermis
34. What are the glycoprotein receptors that platelets and fibrinogen cross - link to when forming a thrombus?
GP IIb and IIIa receptors
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)
Meclizine
Waldenstr
35. Metformin is contraindicated in ________ because of weight gain as its side effect.
Obese patients
Pulse pressure
Decreases
Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. Remember it like this:- ili - in ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)
36. What is the most common one? - Location of a duodenal ulcer
Pyridoxine
The parasympathetic nervous system
Anterior wall of the first part of the duodenum
Lung recoil - being a force to collapse the lung - increases as the lung enlarges during inspiration.
37. Early menses - late menopause - history of breast cancer - obesity - and multiparity.
Chromosome 17
Rhombencephalon
Chromosome 4p
Risk factors for breast cancer
38. What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the respiratory epithelium?
NO!! Remember - only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).
P1 protein
No CHO - AA - ketones - or peptides are left in the tubular lumen.
The second pharyngeal pouch and groove
39. Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72- hour fever spike pattern
Atrial contraction Atrial - Contraction - Venous
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation
Plasmodium malariae
ACh
40. What type of erythema do you see in x Rheumatic fever?
Erythema marginatum
Trimethoprim
Homogentisic oxidase
Streptococcus viridans
41. What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? - Selective T- cell immunodeficiency
Salpingitis
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a problem with alcohol.
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
42. What three bacteria are positive to quellung reactive test?
Extracellular
Yersinia pestis
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Muscles of the internal eye
43. What part of the heart forms x Left border?
Biotin (only if eaten in large quantities)
Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium
Dihydrofolate reductase
The carotid sinus reflex
44. Based on the following information - is the renal transplantation rejection acute - chronic - or hyperacute? - Weeks to months after transplantation; abrupt onset of oliguria and azotemia; seen as neutrophilic vasculitis and interstitial lymphocytes
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary junction.
Ceramide
Acute rejection
45. Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: x Only muscle to abduct the vocal cords
Marfan syndrome
Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral blood flow.
Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
P wave
46. What is the most common opportunistic infection of the CNS in HIV?
Coccidioides immitis
Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) or human placental lactogen (hPL)
M- cells
Toxoplasmosis
47. What area of the GI tract has the highest activity of brush border enzymes?
Jejunum (upper)
Ratio scale
It is best to begin with open - ended questions - allowing patients to describe in their own words What troubles them. You can then move to closed - ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis.
Insulin increases intracellular K+ stores while decreasing serum K+ levels.
48. What Brodmann area is associated with x Primary auditory cortex?
The tsetse fly
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and therefore is considered the active form.
The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly in the first half of sleep.
Areas 41 and 42
49. What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?
Hypoventilation - which increases CO2 - shifting the reaction to the right and increasing H+
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
Parasympathetic stimulation - via the vagus nerve - results in bronchoconstriction - whereas sympathetic stimulation results in bronchodilation.
The rate of infusion
50. Shuffling gait - cogwheel rigidity - masklike facies - pill - rolling tremor - and bradykinesia describe what form of dementia?
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