Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone?
Corticospinal tract
Osteocyte
Orbitomedial frontal lobe
Pneumothorax

2. What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? - Long thoracic nerve
Parainfluenza virus
Series circuit
In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.
Serratus anterior

3. What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol
Pinpoint pupils - decreased respiratory rate - and coma
Circumvallate papillae
Thyroid hormones are necessary for conversion of carotene to vitamin A.

4. Would a G- C or an A- T rich dsDNA sequence have a higher melting point? Why?
G- C rich sequences - because they have 3 hydrogen bonds - where A- T has 2 hydrogen bonds - resulting in higher melting points.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
Paget disease of the breast
Coombs test

5. Regarding the Lac operon - for What do the following genes code? - Z gene
CHF - cirrhosis - and nephrosis
Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium
Beta- Galactosidase
Elevated ASO titers and serum complement levels

6. As what AAs do muscles send nitrogen to the liver?
Vitamin B6
Alanine and glutamine
Risperidone
Stable

7. What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to epiphyseal fusion?
Rhombencephalon
Shortens
Rickets prior to fusion - osteomalacia if the deficiency occurs after epiphyseal fusion.
Superoxide dismutase - glutathione peroxidase - catalase

8. What component of the trigeminal nuclei x Supplies the muscles of mastication?
Motor nucleus of CN V
Chloramphenicol
Filtered and secreted: Cx > Cin (i.e. - PAH). Filtered and reabsorbed: Cx < Cin (i.e. - glucose) - where Cx = clearance of a substance and Cin = clearance of inulin.
Wilms tumor

9. What are the two ketogenic AAs?
Liver
Leucine and lysine
100%; the percentage of blood flow through the pulmonary and systemic circulations are equal.
CN VII

10. What sphingolipid cannot be produced without sialic acid and amino sugars?
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
Ganglioside
The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity because of the amount of space the liver occupies.
Ependymoma

11. What is the most common one? - Type of hernia seen in males more than 50 years old
Direct; in males less than 50 years old indirect hernias are the most common type.
X- linked recessive
Staphylococcus aureus
C1 through C4

12. What are the two factors that affect alveolar PCO2 levels?
LTB4
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Ceftriaxone
The fastigial nucleus
Metabolic rate and alveolar ventilation (main factor)

13. What vitamin is necessary for epithelial health?
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country approximately $100 billion a year.
Allopurinol
Reserpine
Vitamin A is responsible for vision and epithelial health.

14. What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in x Tay- Sachs disease?
Beta- Hydroxybutyrate
Hexosaminidase A
Pheochromocytoma
Accuracy (think of it as all the trues - because they are the ones correctly identified)

15. What scale has a true zero point - graded into equal increments - and also orders them?
Pott disease
Psammoma bodies
Ratio scale
Suprachiasmatic nucleus

16. In what condition do you see dimpling on the kidney's surface?
Pyelonephritis
Nasopharynx
Peutz - Jeghers syndrome
PALS

17. What are the three main components of amyloid?
Fibrillary protein - amyloid protein - and glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate mainly)
ASA
rRNA
ACh; think about the ANS.

18. What do the following values indicate? - ED50
Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases
Alveolar dead space
The courts. These are legal - not medical terms.
Effective dose for 50% of drug takers (median effective dose)

19. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - DNA
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
Thyroid hormones increase serum glucose levels by increasing the absorption of glucose from the small intestine.
Southern blot
Fungiform papillae

20. Which medication requires an acidic gastric pH for activation to form a protective gel - like coating over ulcers and GI epithelium?
Valproic acid
At least six
Proportionate mortality rate
Sucralfate

21. What is the term for Ags that activate B cells without T- cell signaling?
Thymus - independent Ags
HBcAb IgM
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country approximately $100 billion a year.
Physiologic antagonism

22. What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? - Following biliary infections
CN V
Enterococcus faecalis
Onion skinning
Terminal collecting duct has the highest concentration and Bowman's capsule has the lowest concentration of inulin.

23. ADH is secreted in response to What two stimuli?
Arthroconidia with hyphae
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity and decreased blood volume.
Aldolase B deficiencies are treated by eliminating fructose from the diet.
Rotavirus

24. What are the four components of the basement membrane?
Short - chain fatty acids
1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen
Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Cori cycle

25. What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a peripheral blood smear?
Hepatitis C
Hypersegmented neutrophils
Pseudogout
The respiratory system

26. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - I band
Eosinophils
Mode
Filtration is greater than excretion for net reabsorption to occur.
Shortens

27. What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?
presence of PMNs
Rhombencephalon
Type I (makes sense - since they have a predisposition for fractures and type I collagen is associated with bones and tendons)
Follicular phase

28. What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair is unable to be done?
2% of population - 2 cm long - 2 feet from ileocecal valve - 2 years old - and 2% of carcinoid tumors
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve
Chromosome 15 - 17
p -53

29. What leukemia is characterized by Philadelphia chromosomal translocation (9;22); massive splenomegaly; peripheral leukocytosis (commonly > 100 - 00); decreased LAP levels; and nonspecific symptoms of fatigue - malaise - weight loss - and anorexia?
CML
Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)
Resistance and vessel length are proportionally related. The greater the length of the vessel - the greater the resistance is on the vessel.
Latissimus dorsi

30. What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia?
Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light therapy)
Parvovirus B-19
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
Lysine and tyrosine

31. What happens to affinity if you increase Km?
Bacterial meningitis
a - Blockers (- zosins)
Test - retest reliability
Affinity decreases; they are inversely proportional.

32. A 20-year - old woman who was recently diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease goes to the ER with a tender - painful - swollen - and erythematous knee (monoarticular). What organism is the likely culprit?
Neisseria gonorrhea (history of STD in patient with monoarticular infectious arthritis: think gonococcus)
In the RBC; remember - you need carbonic anhydrase for the conversion - and plasma does not have this enzyme.
Squamous cell carcinoma
Sensory

33. What happens to the Ab specificity when class switching occurs in mature B cells?
The vaccine contains 23 capsular polysaccharides.
Obturator nerve
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve - Artery - Vein - Empty space - and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament
As the isotype is switched - the Ab specificity does not change because it does not affect the variable chains.

34. What antitubercular agent causes loss of red - green visual discrimination?
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these channels - which are closed in resting conditions.
Ethambutol
Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.
Papillary carcinoma

35. Shuffling gait - cogwheel rigidity - masklike facies - pill - rolling tremor - and bradykinesia describe what form of dementia?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

36. What type of hypersensitivity is an Ab - mediated response against our own cells - receptors - or membranes via IgG or IgM?
Osteoma
Type II hypersensitivity reaction
Cardiac muscle
Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is the same as impotence.)

37. How many months in How many years must a person cough with copious sputum production for the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?
Parainfluenza virus
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
Ciliary ganglion
Alzheimer disease

38. What neurotransmitter is associated with sedation and weight gain?
Renal plasma flow (decrease flow - increase FF)
G-6- PD deficiency
Plasmodium ovale
Histamine

39. What negative sense RNA virus is associated with cough - coryza - and conjunctivitis with photophobia?
Measles (rubeola)
No - it is used in chronic treatment of gout to decrease the uric acid pools in the body.
Afterload
Red pulp (Remember - Red pulp and RBCs begin with R.)

40. Name the type of graft described by these transplants: x From one species to another
The vermis
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.
Xenograft

41. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Hemolytic anemia
S phase
No - it is never acceptable to lie.
DiGeorge syndrome - Which is due to a failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouch development. Remember - B cell deficiencies are associated with extracellular infection. T cell deficiencies are associated with intracellular infections
Nitrofurantoin

42. Prevents restriction endonuclease from cutting its own chromosomes.
Type IV collagen
CN V - VI - VII - and VIII
Interval scale (a ruler - for example)
Methylation of bacterial DNA

43. Are hydrolysis - oxidation - and reduction phase I or II biotransformations?
Phase I
Lead - time bias (remember - patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)
Positive
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.

44. What is the most common one? - Site of Crohn disease
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin - ACh - and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.
Terminal ileum
Phase 1
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve

45. What is the term for RBC fragments?
Schistocytes
Proto - oncogenes
Alcoholic cirrhosis
The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture.

46. What IL down - regulates cell mediated immunity?
prognostic predictors
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes
IgM
IL-10

47. Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: x Diastolic murmur; increased preload - stroke volume - and aortic pulse pressure; decreased coronary blood flow; no incisura; and peripheral vasodilation
Capillaries
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG - IgA - or IgE on its surface.
Aortic insufficiency
Erythema nodosum

48. Name the most common type or cause - Chronic metal poisoning
Lead
Finasteride
Squamous cell carcinoma
Urinary 17- ketosteroids

49. What happens to extracellular volume with a net gain in body fluid?
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is a net gain in total body water and decreases when there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is named in terms of the ECF compartment.
At the beginning of splay is when the renal threshold for glucose occurs and the excess begins to spill over into the urine.
NE
3 years old

50. What happens to prevalence as the number of long - term survivors increases?
Permanent
Dominant temporal lobe
Prevalence increases. (Remember - prevalence can decrease in only two ways - recovery and death.)
VSD