Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme hexosaminidase A?
Tay- Sachs disease
Type II
S phase
Flumazenil

2. What is the most common one? - Type of hernia seen in males more than 50 years old
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)
Direct; in males less than 50 years old indirect hernias are the most common type.
Production of HCO3- - shifting the reaction to the left and thereby decreasing H+
Rationalization

3. Name the macrophages by location: x Liver
Naloxone - naltrexone
Somatomedins (IGF-1)
Krukenberg tumor
Kupffer cells

4. What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be characterized by Kayser - Fleischer rings - decreased ceruloplasmin levels - and increased urinary copper excretion and tissue copper levels?
Separation anxiety
Inactivated
Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud)
Wilson disease. (Remember - patients commonly present with psychiatric manifestations and movement disorders but may be asymptomatic.)

5. In a ventricular pacemaker cell - what phase of the action potential is affected by ACh?
Persistent truncus arteriosus
CN III - VII - IX - and X
Hydatidiform mole
Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via increasing potassium conductance - taking longer to reach threshold and slowing the rate of firing.

6. When a drug is administered orally and enters into portal circulation - it undergoes hepatic metabolism. What is the name of this effect?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)
Ependymoma
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)
First - pass effect

7. What is the most common one? - Primary malignant tumor of the ovary
Serocystadenocarcinoma
HPVs 16 and 18
pH of 2 and 9
Exogenous steroids suppress LH release and result in Leydig cell atrophy. Testosterone - produced by Leydig cells - is needed for spermatogenesis.

8. What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? - Upper subscapularis nerve
2 to 4 hours
Bruton X- linked hypogammaglobinemia. Tyrosine kinase deficiency leads to inadequate B cell maturation.
It is best to begin with open - ended questions - allowing patients to describe in their own words What troubles them. You can then move to closed - ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis.
Subscapularis

9. If the radius of a vessel is decreased by half - what happens to the resistance?
From the wall of the yolk sac
The resistance increases 16- fold.
The pulsatile release of GnRH
At least 15%

10. What is the term of the viral growth period when no viruses can be found intracellularly?
enveloped
Both
Sarcoidosis
Eclipse period

11. What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with severely burned or traumatic patients?
Curling ulcers (think curling iron = burn)
Aminoglycosides
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus - or GBS)
Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase

12. What are the four functions of SER?
Lispro insulin
Toxoplasma gondii
Central/neurogenic diabetes insipidus; in the nephrogenic form there is sufficient ADH available - but the renal collecting ducts are impermeable to its actions.
Steroid synthesis - drug detoxification - triglyceride resynthesis - and Ca2+handling

13. Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

14. What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole - abortion - or normal pregnancy?
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)
Malignant mesothelioma
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)
Ligamentum arteriosum

15. What part of the ANS (i.e. - PNS or CNS) controls the constriction of the pupil in response to light?
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Parasympathetic
gamma and delta chains
Western blot

16. What enzyme catalyzes the reversible oxidative deamination of glutamate and produces the TCA cycle intermediate a - ketoglutarate?
Glioblastoma multiforme
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
Leucine and lysine

17. What CNs arise from x The midbrain?
t the end of the PCT 25% of Na+ - Cl - - K+ is left
CN III and IV
PALS
It causes a buildup of dATP - which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate - a precursor of DNA - resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.

18. Describe the organism based on the following information: x Beta - hemolytic Streptococcus sensitive to bacitracin
Pubis - ilium - and ischium
Streptococcus pyogenes
The portal tract of the liver lobule
relaxation

19. What very aggressive lung cancer metastasizes early and is associated with smoking and paraneoplastic syndromes?
Two - way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time.
antiemetic
Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
Ampulla of the fallopian tube

20. Is an anti - HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recent infection?
Fever - night sweats - and hemoptysis
Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterial vessels - small changes in pressure result in large changes in blood volume.
Congenital heart disease
Anti - HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti - HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.

21. Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?
Series circuit
M 2
Left coronary artery
Infection

22. Name the type of exudate - given the following examples - Meningococcal infection
As the isotype is switched - the Ab specificity does not change because it does not affect the variable chains.
Purulent exudates
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
Streptococcus pneumoniae

23. What is the only dsRNA virus?
NE
Reovirus
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
Depression

24. What causes a skeletal muscle contraction to terminate?
When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR - skeletal muscle contraction stops.
Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII.
ater flows from a low - solute to high - solute concentrations.
gram positive

25. What organism causes Q fever?
Lesser curvature of the antrum of the stomach
Isocitrate dehydrogenase - a - ketoglutarate dehydrogenase - and malate dehydrogenase
IgM
Coxiella burnetii

26. More Ag is needed to produce a ____________ than a first immune response.
Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and has an elevated cellular content.
Terminal collecting duct has the highest concentration and Bowman's capsule has the lowest concentration of inulin.
secondary immune response
Thymine

27. What diagnosis ensues from finding well - demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the knees - elbows - and scalp along with nail bed pitting and discoloration?
Mebendazole
Psoriasis
Ribonucleotide reductase
1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis

28. What Brodmann area is associated with x Frontal eye fields?
Sjogren's syndrome - active hepatitis - systemic lupus erythematosus (with HLA- DR2) and type 1 diabetes (with HLA- DR4)
Area 8
Venous pressure above the heart is subatmospheric - so a puncture there has the potential to introduce air into the system.
Seminoma

29. Name the most common type or cause - Viral pneumonia leading to death
HBcAb IgM
RSV
No - therapeutic indices can tell which drug is safer - not more toxic.
Recovery and death

30. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output - Input from inferior colliculus; output to primary auditory cortex
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis
MGB (think EARS)
Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time and increased PT - and vitamin C deficiency has increased bleeding time and normal PT.
Chlamydia

31. What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with x Dopamine agonists?
Increased erection and libido
igantism
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
PCR

32. What type of erythema do you see in x Rheumatic fever?
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Erythema marginatum
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
Paramyxovirus

33. What is the term for failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum?
Cortisol
Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth.
Gardner syndrome
Xanthine oxidase

34. What primary acid - base disturbance is caused by a loss in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the right - thereby increasing HCO3- levels?
NO!! Remember - only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).
Primary hypoparathyroidism
The wall tension is greater because the aneurysm has a greater radius than the surrounding vessel.
Metabolic alkalosis (summary: high pH - low H+ and high HCO3-)

35. What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? - ICF
28 L - 40% of body weight
Burkitt lymphoma
Lisch nodules
Nodes of Ranvier

36. What ovarian carcinoma is characterized by psammoma bodies?
Fc portion of IgG - C3b - and mannose - binding proteins
Cystadenocarcinoma
Lente insulin and either NPH or protamine zinc insulin (PZI)
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)

37. What is the term for the pH range where the dissociation of H+ occurs?
pK (think of it as where half is base and half is acid)
The sensory limb is via CN IX - and the motor limb is from CN X.
Thalassemia minor
Gastric cancer

38. What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? - Zona glomerulosa
Granulosa cell
Aldosterone Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
2 days prior to ovulation
Oxytocin

39. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Hematopoietic cells
Achondroplasia
Labile
Albendazole
Caput medusa - internal hemorrhoids - esophageal varices - retroperitoneal varices - and splenomegaly

40. With What is cherry red intoxication associated?
Acute CO poisoning
Gain of isotonic fluid (isotonic saline)
Maxillary artery
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50 - making O2 more difficult to remove from the Hgb molecule.

41. What is the term for flexion of the PIP and extension of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
Suppression
Muscles of the internal eye
Boutonni
Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?)

42. Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: x Continuous involuntary contraction - uninuclear striated branched fibers - actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern - dyadic T tubules - intercalated discs - troponin and desmin as a Z disc
Risk factors for breast cancer
Parasympathetic
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.
Cardiac muscle

43. In a negatively skewed curve is the mean greater than the mode?
Secondary hypocortisolism (pituitary)
GH deficiency
Yes. In a negatively skewed distribution the mean is greater than the median is greater than the mode.
Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest velocity in systemic circulation

44. Where does the parotid (Stensen's) duct enter the oral cavity?
Opposite the second upper molar tooth
Melasma
Vancomycin
Anatomical dead space - which ends at the level of the terminal bronchioles.

45. What ocular muscle x Adducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
CMV - Toxoplasma gondii - and Listeria
Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries
Spectinomycin

46. What is the site of action of the following? - Osmotic diuretics
Ligament teres
gag gene
Nocardia asteroides
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb

47. What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison population?
Antisocial personality
Chromosome 21
Solved as 30% T + 30% A = 60%; therefore - C + G = 40%; then C = 20% and G = 20% (example of Chargaff's rule)
Alendronate

48. What HIV structural gene produces GP120 and GP41?
NADPH and molecular O 2
env structural protein
Multiple myeloma
Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels and therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP and CAP.

49. What is the MCC of death in the United States?
Metastatic calcification
Heart disease
Hemiballismus
Rhombencephalon

50. What type of muscle contraction occurs when the muscle shortens and lifts the load placed on it?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Isotonic contraction
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and polydipsia.