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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What family do the following viruses belong to? - Measles
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
Paramyxovirus
Hematoxylin
Renal failure

2. In a ventricular pacemaker cell - what phase of the action potential is affected by NE?
Phase 4; NE increases the slope of the prepotential - allowing threshold to be reached sooner - and increases the rate of firing.
Moving objects - along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs.
The pulmonary vein - which carries oxygenated blood from the lung to the left atrium.
Lysine and arginine

3. What is the term for tissue - based basophils?
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Mast cells
Polycythemia vera (Remember - polycythemia vera is a risk factor for acute leukemias.)
They block the midcycle surge of LH.

4. What are the two most important features in the diagnosis of malaria?
Total lung capacity (TLC)
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of suspicion)
Preoperational (2-6 years)
1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical substances 2. Chemical specificity needed for transportation 3. Zero - order saturation kinetics (Transportation is maximal when all transporters are saturated.) 4. Rate of transportation faster than i

5. What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations on the surface of their membrane - commonly seen in uremia?
Menses
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Burr cells (echinocytes)
Preductal (infantile)

6. What complement factor deficiency leads to x Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?
C3 deficiency
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
Glioblastoma multiforme
The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it harms the fetus.

7. What is the triad of Reiter syndrome?

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8. What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Diarrhea associated with raw or undercooked shellfish
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Coxiella burnetii
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24- hour period is during stage 4 sleep.

9. Blood and its vessels form During What embryonic week?
NE - via its vasoconstrictive action on blood vessels
Nodes of Ranvier
Lung and bronchus cancer
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.

10. What hemoflagellate species is the cause of Chagas disease?
Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2 sleep.
Trypanosoma cruzi
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve
Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via increasing potassium conductance - taking longer to reach threshold and slowing the rate of firing.

11. What antiviral agent for ganciclovir - resistant infections has limited utility because of its nephrotoxic side effect?
Right nasal hemianopsia
Risk factors for breast cancer
Duodenum
Foscarnet

12. Failure to accurately recall the past leads to what form of bias?
Yolk sac tumor
Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies.
Site 2
Papovavirus

13. Which CNS ACh receptor or receptors are excitatory? Inhibitory?
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor is inhibitory.
Loss of isotonic fluid (diarrhea - vomiting - hemorrhage)
Metronidazole
Hypersegmented neutrophils

14. How many caf
At least six
Pirenzepine
Penicillin V
Nodular melanoma

15. What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors and is associated with HIV- positive patients?
Macula densa
Molluscum contagiosum
Kayser - Fleischer rings
Rhabdomyoma

16. What is the only NSAID that causes irreversible inhibition of the cyclooxygenase pathway?
ASA
CMV; remember - EBV is associated with heterophile - positive mononucleosis.
The urea cycle
Pergolide

17. How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24 hours to produce the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?
>3.5 g/day of protein - along with generalized edema - hypoalbuminemia - and hyperlipidemia
Accuracy (think of it as all the trues - because they are the ones correctly identified)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

18. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Cartilage abnormalities
M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)
Quinolones
Liver
Phase 2

19. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Hematopoietic cells
Labile
Increased REM sleep - decreased REM latency - and decreased stage 4 sleep - leading to early morning awakening
A transport maximum (Tm) system
Lentigo maligna melanoma

20. What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with x a1- Blockers?
Methylene blue
In the mouth with salivary a - amylase (ptyalin)
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium - phosphorus - and alkaline phosphatase.
Impaired ejaculation

21. Name the most common type or cause - Neonatal septicemia and meningitis
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus - or GBS)
Single - strand DNA binding protein
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

22. What family do the following viruses belong to? - California encephalitis
GnRH
IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - and IgM
Galactose and glucose
Bunyavirus

23. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Azygos vein
Aedes (the same for yellow fever)
Hemiballismus
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
Superior and posterior

24. What genus of bacteria is described by catalase - positive - gram - positive cocci in clusters?
Staphylococcus
Motor
Isograft
IQ

25. What is the term for the type of pupil seen in neurosyphilis - and what ocular reflexes are lost?
Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis)
Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both direct and consensual light reflexes - but the accommodation - convergence reaction remains intact. It can also be seen in patients with pineal tumors or multiple sclerosis.
Preoperational (2-6 years)
Vmax

26. What is the term to describe the inability to feel any pleasant emotions?
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)
Anhedonia
Thrombocytopenia - eczema - and immunodeficiency is the triad of this X- linked recessive disorder.
Erectile dysfunction

27. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Carotid canal
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a problem with alcohol.
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
Seminoma
Beta2- Adrenergic agents

28. What agent used in the treatment of BPH and baldness is a 5- a - reductase inhibitor?
Folate deficiency (very common in the elderly)
Finasteride
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Mesonephric duct

29. Are modified skeletal muscle fibers. They are the sensory component of the stretch reflexes.
Extinction
Both
Muscle spindles
Specific rate (e.g. - men aged 55-60)

30. Setting up to be let down (it is unconscious; if conscious - you're just rude)
Primary follicle (in the white pulp)
Passive - aggressive
The wall tension is greater because the aneurysm has a greater radius than the surrounding vessel.
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)

31. Which nicotinic receptor antagonist causes hypotension and is associated with malignant hyperthermia?
d - Tubocurarine
Vitamin E
Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate and choline (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic nerve terminal).
Fibroadenoma

32. What percent of unwed mothers are teenagers?
Aorta - azygos vein - and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
Site 1
50% - with 50% of them having the child
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed - type hypersensitivity (type IV)

33. Name these immature defense mechanisms: x Inability to remember a known fact (aware of forgetting)
Blocking
Bipolar disorder (manic - depressive disorder)
The central vein of the liver lobule
At least 30% blast in the bone marrow

34. Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with G-6- PD deficiency?
Breast
Heinz bodies
Mitral valve closure indicates the termination of the ventricular filling phase and beginning of isovolumetric contraction.
ELISA. It detects anti - p24 IgG.

35. What bonds are broken by exonucleases?

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36. What paraphilia is defined as x Deriving sexual pleasure from being abused or in pain?
Puborectalis
Masochism
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung - esophagus - ureter - and kidney - just to Name a few.
Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery

37. How long after ovulation does fertilization occur?
Squamous cell carcinoma (skin - lung) and angiosarcoma of the liver
8 to 25 hours
premature ejaculation
First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.

38. What is the drug of choice for threadworm - trichinosis - and larva migrans?
Superior and anterior
Thiabendazole
GABA and glutamic acid
Latissimus dorsi

39. What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is x 90 to 109
Protein A
Calcium influx secondary to slow channel opening
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
Average

40. Do the PO2 peripheral chemoreceptors of the carotid body contribute to the normal drive for ventilation?
Skeletal muscles
Ventral lateral nucleus
Under normal resting conditions no - but they are strongly stimulated when PO2 arterial levels decrease to 50 to 60 mm Hg - resulting in increased ventilatory drive.
HBcAb and HBeAb. You see the antibodies c and e.

41. What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?
Keratinocytes - the most numerous cells in the epidermis - carry melanin and produce keratin.
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus
Double - blind study. It is the most scientifically rigorous study known.
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.

42. What direct - pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike facies - stooped posture - cogwheel rigidity - pill - rolling tremor at rest - and a gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center of gravity?

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43. What happens to capillary oncotic pressure with dehydration?
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
Oncotic pressure increases because of the removal of water.
antiemetic
CN VII

44. What growth factors are chondrogenic - working on the epiphyseal end plates of bone?
Somatomedins (IGF-1)
Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger - to - nose test.
CN XII
Ventral posterolateral nucleus

45. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Left common carotid artery
Superior
First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.
Inhaled anesthetics with low lipid solubility have low potency (directly related) - so they have rapid induction and rapid recovery; vice versa for drugs with high lipid solubility.
Chromosome 5q21

46. What scale has a true zero point - graded into equal increments - and also orders them?
Ratio scale
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
Iodine (I)
Libman - Sacks endocarditis

47. Has analgesic and antipyretic activities but lacks anti - inflammatory effects.
Acetaminophen
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve
Isotonic contraction
Mode

48. What three AAs must patients with maple syrup urine disease not eat?
Cerebral aqueduct
Schwannoma
Isoleucine - leucine - and valine
Isograft

49. Why is spermatogenesis decreased with anabolic steroid therapy?
Exogenous steroids suppress LH release and result in Leydig cell atrophy. Testosterone - produced by Leydig cells - is needed for spermatogenesis.
Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.
AT II
12 days after ovulation

50. What is the direction of growth for the primitive streak - caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?
Pedophilia
Tetracyclines
The primitive streak grows caudal to rostral.
Chromosome 13