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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used IV in the management of status asthmaticus ?
Pirenzepine
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T- cell lymphoma)
Transient protein C deficiency - because of its relatively short half - life - may result if warfarin is instituted alone.
Aminophylline

2. Are used in combination with estrogens to decrease the risk of endometrial cancer.
mRNA
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1 - and they inhibit GH secretion. GHRH stimulates GH secretion.
Limbic system
Progestins

3. What is the most common one? - Cardiac tumor
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect.
Hepatitis - with or without necrosis
RSV
Left atrial myxoma

4. What causes an increase in bone mineralization and Ca2+ along with PO4- absorption from the GI tract and kidney tubules?
Theca cell
1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the patient say? 3. What is in the patient's best interests?
Vitamin D
Selegiline

5. What is the term for the pH at which the structure carries no charge?
Between the renal arteries and at the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
Marrow failure - cancer - and leukemia
pI (isoelectric point)
Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)

6. What HPV serotypes are associated with increased risk of cervical cancer?
The resting membrane potential of the cell is -90 mV because of the intracellular proteins.
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
HPV serotypes 16 - 18 - 31 - and 33
Fovea

7. What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis?
GM2 ganglioside Caused by a deficiency of Beta- hexosaminidase A
Subarachnoid hematoma
Leydig cell tumor
Estrogen

8. How many oogonia are present at birth?
Degenerates
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
Range
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)

9. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase
Clindamycin
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.
Prostate cancer
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve

10. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Nitrosamines
PRPP aminotransferase
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome
Gastric cancer
Chi - square.

11. What is the most common one? - Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the world
Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff's syndrome.
Proencephalon
Superior
Cervical neoplasia

12. Are the following parameters associated with an obstructive or restrictive lung disorder: decreased FEV1 - FVC - peak flow - and FEV1/FVC; increased TLC - FRC - and RV?
Lipoxygenase pathway - from arachidonic acid
Obstructive lung disorders. The opposite changes (where you see decrease exchange it for increase and vice versa) are seen in a restrictive pattern.
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
antiemetic

13. WBCs in the urine
The Beta- subunit; remember - the a - subunit is nonspecific.
Ulcerative colitis
Acute cystitis
Mentally disabled

14. What hormone is required for 1 - 25- dihydroxy- vitamin D (1 - 25- diOH- D) to have bone resorbing effects?
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50 - making O2 more difficult to remove from the Hgb molecule.
Hypersegmented neutrophils
PTH
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma

15. What nerves carry the sensory and motor components of the blink reflex?
CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the motor component of the blink reflex.
Ependymal cells
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF- gamma also)

16. What is the most common one? - Tumor of the female genital tract
Avidity (more than one binding site)
Leiomyoma (fibroids)
Clofazimine
Generalized anxiety disorder

17. Does the heart rate determine the diastolic or systolic interval?
No - unsaturated fatty acids have double bonds.
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam ( OTL - Outside The Liver)
Hydralazine - isoniazid - and procainamide (HIP)
Heart rate determines the diastolic interval - and contractility determines the systolic interval.

18. What is the most common form of dementia?

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19. How many days after the LH surge is ovulation?
Celecoxib
1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile
One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the estrogen peak.
Hepatitis C

20. What is the DOC for coccidioidomycosis?
Fluconazole
Axis I
Iatrogenesis
1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. Reovirus (Remember PCR)

21. What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?
Oligodendroglioma
C1 - C2 - or C4 deficiency
Uricosuric
Prostatic carcinoma

22. Where are the preganglionic neuron cell bodies - the CNS or the PNS?
Yes - they stimulate the growth of mammary tissue but block milk synthesis. At parturition - the decrease in estrogen lifts the block on milk production.
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.
Hypertension
Phenylalanine hydroxylase

23. From What embryonic structure are the following structures derived? - The ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk
Negative
Variable ratio If it is based on time - it is an interval - and if it is based on the number of responses - it is a ratio.
CHF
Truncus arteriosus

24. Name the DNA virus: x Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus
Adenovirus
Erythema marginatum
BPH
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion

25. Close before the valves on the left side of the heart.
Transcortical aphasia
Auspitz sign
Right - sided valves
Libman - Sacks endocarditis

26. What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?
Euchromatin - the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
Altruism
Posterior
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels

27. What complement factor or factors are associated with x Membrane attack complex (MAC)?
C5- C9
Celecoxib
Filiform papillae
Nitrofurantoin

28. Name the antidote - Nitrates
K1 capsule
Acetazolamide
Chromosome 19
Methylene blue

29. Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: x Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to open slowly
Northern blot
Gain of hypertonic fluid (mannitol or hypertonic saline)
Voltage - gated calcium channel
Urogenital sinus

30. What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?
Kayser - Fleischer rings
Familial polyposis coli
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream - and the -35 promoter site is self - explanatory.
Posterior cruciate ligament

31. What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion?
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell
During stage 3 and 4 (remember - it is called deep sleep.)
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane
Sideroblastic anemia

32. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - DNA
Gastric ulcer
Hydatidiform mole
Southern blot
Roth spots - and they are seen in bacterial endocarditis.

33. Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? - Pain and pruritus
Medial medullary syndrome
Anterior tibial artery
H 1
Under normal resting conditions no - but they are strongly stimulated when PO2 arterial levels decrease to 50 to 60 mm Hg - resulting in increased ventilatory drive.

34. Name three opsonins.
Variable interval
Fc portion of IgG - C3b - and mannose - binding proteins
Osteoblasts - which in turn stimulate osteoclasts to break down bone - releasing Ca2+ into the interstitium. (Remember - blasts make - clasts take.)
The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen from the body as urea in the urine.

35. What are the three mechanisms of action for atrial natriuretic peptide's diuretic and natriuretic affects?
1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole 2. Constriction of the efferent arteriole 3. Inhibition of reabsorption of sodium and water in the collecting ducts
Acute pyelonephritis
Mitral stenosis
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)

36. What ocular muscle x Abducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
Griseofulvin
Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3
Integument (skin and its derivatives)
Early distal tubule

37. What is the first Ag seen in an individual with hepatitis?
HBsAg (incubation period)
In early- morning sleep - usually between the sixth and eighth hours
Coagulative
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)

38. What antiviral agents inhibit neuraminidases of influenza A and B?
Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
Ventricular contraction Atrial - Contraction - Venous
Zanamivir and oseltamivir
Pyruvate carboxylase

39. What small - facultative gram - negative intracellular rod's transmission is associated with unpasteurized dairy products and undulant fever?
CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the motor component of the blink reflex.
Brucella
Fading
Anemia of chronic disease

40. What is the PO2 of aortic blood in fetal circulation?
60%
Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud)
Cricothyroid muscles
Superego

41. Name the most common type or cause - Acute renal failure in the United States
Acute tubular necrosis
H 2
Fibrous pericardium
RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.

42. What cestode causes cysticercosis?
Mitral valve stenosis
Minor
Taenia solium
The promoter indicates where transcription will begin.

43. What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with hypoglycemia - sweating - hunger - confusion - and increased C- peptide levels?
Bacillus anthracis
The alveoli at the apex are almost completely inflated prior to inflation - and although they are large - they receive low levels of alveolar ventilation.
Insulinoma
1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR

44. If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus - which way is the fast component directed - toward or away from the lesion?
Adulthood
The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.
Nitrates
Catechol - O- methyl transferase (COMT)

45. What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female reproductive cycle?
Live vaccines
5- hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5- HIAA)
Hypotonic - because NaCl is reabsorbed in the salivary ducts
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)

46. What is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic?
Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral blood flow.
Congenital heart disease
Calcium oxalate
Schistosoma have separate males and females.

47. What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA- B27- positive young men - involves the sacroiliac joints - has no subcutaneous nodules - and has a bamboo spine appearance on radiograph?
Coxiella burnetii
Turner syndrome
Ankylosing spondylitis
Sideroblastic anemia

48. Name the form of spina bifida - Defect in the vertebral arch
Isovolumetric contraction
Large intestine. Water is passively removed from the lumen.
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion to occur.

49. Lack platelets.
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
Blood clots
Glutamine
Renin

50. Which hepatitis virus is in the Picornaviridae family?
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Hepatitis A
Intermediate part of the hemispheres
Nodular sclerosis