SUBJECTS
|
BROWSE
|
CAREER CENTER
|
POPULAR
|
JOIN
|
LOGIN
Business Skills
|
Soft Skills
|
Basic Literacy
|
Certifications
About
|
Help
|
Privacy
|
Terms
|
Email
Search
Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. How far below ideal body weight are patients with anorexia nervosa?
Pulmonary shunt (i.e. - pulmonary embolism)
At least 15%
Class III
Bladder cancer
2. Which class of diuretics is used to treat metabolic acidosis - acute mountain sicknesses - and glaucoma and to aid in the elimination of acidic drug overdoses?
Broca's aphasia
Borderline
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide and dorzolamide)
Coccidioides immitis
3. Name the ocular lesion; be specific - A right lateral compression of the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal carotid artery)
Thrush
Streptococcus agalactiae
Right nasal hemianopsia
The interposed nucleus
4. Name the most common type or cause - Meningitis in renal transplantation patients
Listeria monocytogenes
In the first 3 months
Mumps
Pseudohyphae
5. What is the term for the pH range where the dissociation of H+ occurs?
Superior and middle
Rickets
pK (think of it as where half is base and half is acid)
Stereocilia
6. What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells - opsonizes - and is the Ig of the secondary immune response?
G-6- PD deficiency
IgG
Janeway lesions
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat
7. What is the most common one? - Cancer of the esophagus in the world
C1 - C2 - or C4 deficiency
Anaerobes
Labile
Squamous cell carcinoma
8. What cell type in the bone is responsible for bone deposition?
Secondary hypercortisolism (pituitary)
0.2
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant - so there is a large change in their size and volume and therefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.
Osteoblast (Remember - blasts make - clasts take)
9. Name the most common type or cause - Childhood heart disease in the United States
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
This is the triad of renal cell carcinoma
Berry aneurysm
Congenital heart disease
10. What type of bias is it when the information is distorted because of the way it is gathered?
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Measurement bias
Superior
Pseudomembranous colitis
11. What is the most common one? - Tumor of the female genital tract
Papule
TCA cycle.
Leiomyoma (fibroids)
Trichophyton
12. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with x Sacral vertebrae?
The energy of activation
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Superior
Rhabdomyoma
13. What drug that penetrates the blood - brain barrier is found in asthma preparations and used as a nasal decongestant?
Rationalization
Ephedrine
Increased erection and libido
Thymic epithelial cells - dendritic cells - and macrophages
14. Based on operant conditioning - What type of reinforcement is described when x Removing a stimulus stops a behavior?
Stable
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle - delaying the closure of the pulmonic valve.
Extinction
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)
15. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Vincristine
Cysticerci
Mitosis
Shigella
3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
16. What test - by using specific Abs to different receptors - allows for rapid analysis of cell types in a blood sample?
Riedel thyroiditis
First - pass effect
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)
Flow cytometric analysis
17. What agent is used IM to treat acute dystonias?
Reverse transcriptase
Acetyl CoA - FADH2 - and NADH
Area 8
Diphenhydramine
18. What AD syndrome produces hamartomatous polyps in the small intestine and pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa?
Direct fluorescent Ab test
Voltage - gated channel
Conversion disorder
Peutz - Jeghers syndrome
19. Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
Glucose -6- phosphatase
2 ATPs - because RBCs use only anaerobic metabolism.
Fibroadenoma
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver - it results in hepatomegaly.
20. What two vitamins are inactivated when they come in contact with acetaldehyde?
Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients with alcaptonuria.
Systolic interval decreases secondary to increased contractility; diastolic interval decreases secondary to an increase in heart rate.
Thiamine and folate
Pancreatic cancer
21. What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests x The efficacy and occurrence of side effects in large group of patient volunteers?
Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral blood flow.
Nerve fibers with small diameter and high firing rates are most sensitive to local blockade
Psammoma bodies
Phase III. It is considered the definitive test.
22. What two factors are required for effective exocytosis?
Regular insulin
Somatoform pain disorder
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged macromolecules to be extruded from the cell.
Increase (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
23. Name the type of exudate - given the following examples - Rickettsial infection
Hemorrhagic exudates
Lewy bodies
Chromosome 17
C- peptide levels
24. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot
SITS
Metronidazole
Lateral compartment of the leg - superficial peroneal nerve
1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell division or complementation 3. Control the level of the response 4. Remove foreign material
25. What HPV serotypes are associated with increased risk of cervical cancer?
HPV serotypes 16 - 18 - 31 - and 33
Metronidazole
Effective dose for 50% of drug takers (median effective dose)
Motor
26. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Beta - hCG
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors
Bladder cancer
Capillary flow and pressure increase with arteriolar dilation and decrease with arteriolar constriction.
27. What type of healing occurs in a clean surgical incision?
IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
Rochalimaea quintana (now called Bartonella quintana)
Primary intention
Steroid synthesis - drug detoxification - triglyceride resynthesis - and Ca2+handling
28. What type of erythema do you see in x Ulcerative colitis?
Erythema nodosum
IQ
Ethyl alcohol
Physiologic antagonism
29. Are excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
GABA and glutamic acid
Rectum
C3 deficiency
Adhesions and hernias
30. What protein deficiency results in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?
DNA polymerases
Factors II - VII - IX - and X and proteins C and S.
Deficiency in surfactant
Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)
31. What is the name of the process that ensures that each B cell produces only one heavy- chain variable domain and one light chain?
Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl CoA transferase
7 to 14 days
Ritodrine and terbutaline
Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.
32. Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?
Minocycline
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
VSD - RVH - overriding aorta - and pulmonary stenosis
Stage 1
33. Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? - Hair and skin only
Microsporum
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Calcitriol
Celiac - aorticorenal - and superior mesenteric ganglias. (Remember all ' Splanchnics' are Sympathetic except for the Pelvic splanchnics - which are Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers.)
34. What is the second leading cause of death in children aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
Indirect or unconjugated
N-5- methyl THF
TCA cycle.
Cancer
35. Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? - Sydenham chorea
Major
The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g. - long bone fracture)
Filtration is greater than excretion for net reabsorption to occur.
36. What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates x The submandibular and sublingual glands?
Ligamentum venosum
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)
Clostridium perfringens
Apoptosis (Remember - there is a lack of inflammatory response.)
37. Which virus is treated with the monoclonal antibody palivizumab?
Superior vena cava
RSV
Atracurium
Stapedius muscle
38. What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?
Fentanyl
Neisseria meningitidis
Papule
1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP
39. What is the name of the B cell that secretes Ig?
Pick's disease
Doxacurium
Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower water concentrations.
40. What hormone causes contractions of smooth muscle - regulates interdigestive motility - and prepares the intestine for the next meal?
Epinephrine
The vestibulo - ocular reflex
Motilin
Ovarian cancer
41. Which three CNs send sensory information to the solitary nucleus?
MstII; changing codon 6 (from A to T) destroys the restriction site.
Schistosoma haematobium
As the name indicates - there is no change in volume but there is an increase in pressure.
CN VII - IX - and X; taste and general sensation for the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus.
42. What is the best measure of total body vitamin D if you suspect a deficiency?
IgM
Subthreshold potential
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient - greater diffusion rate) 2. Surface area (greater surface area - greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility (greater solubility - greater diffusion rate) 4. Membrane thickness (thicker the membrane - slowe
Serum 25- hydroxy- vitamin D (25- OH- D)
43. What is the most common one? - Site of Crohn disease
Melatonin. It is a light - sensitive hormone that is associated with sleepiness.
Eclipse period
Terminal ileum
IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI disturbances.
44. What is the statistical term for the proportion of truly nondiseased persons in the screened population who are identified as nondiseased?
Cryptococcus
DHEA (androgens) Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
Chromosome 15
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
45. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Hypothalamus
Hepatitis A (infectious)
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the - oti - is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)
Intermediate part of the hemispheres
46. What prion - associated CNS pathology produces rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus - involuntary movements - and death within 6 to 12 months?
Rhinoviruses for summer and fall; coronaviruses for winter and spring
Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease
Cleft lip
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors
47. What three vitamin deficiencies are associated with homocystinemia?
Langerhans cells
Rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes (with HLA- DR3)
Folate - vitamin B12 - and vitamin B6
Cyproheptadine
48. RBCs in the urine
6 weeks 10 weeks
Bladder carcinoma
IgM
Primary hyperparathyroidism
49. What is the term for production of a DNA copy from an RNA molecule?
Tolcapone and entacapone
Stage 4
Reverse transcription
Prodrugs
50. Name the muscle type based on the histological features: x Actin and myosin in sarcomeres; striated; multinuclear; lacks gap junctions; troponin:calcium binding; T tubules and SR forming triadic contacts; highest ATPase activity; no calcium channels
Tylosis
SITS
Epispadia
Skeletal muscle
Can you answer 50 questions in 15 minutes?
Let me suggest you:
Browse all subjects
Browse all tests
Most popular tests
Major Subjects
Tests & Exams
AP
CLEP
DSST
GRE
SAT
GMAT
Certifications
CISSP go to https://www.isc2.org/
PMP
ITIL
RHCE
MCTS
More...
IT Skills
Android Programming
Data Modeling
Objective C Programming
Basic Python Programming
Adobe Illustrator
More...
Business Skills
Advertising Techniques
Business Accounting Basics
Business Strategy
Human Resource Management
Marketing Basics
More...
Soft Skills
Body Language
People Skills
Public Speaking
Persuasion
Job Hunting And Resumes
More...
Vocabulary
GRE Vocab
SAT Vocab
TOEFL Essential Vocab
Basic English Words For All
Global Words You Should Know
Business English
More...
Languages
AP German Vocab
AP Latin Vocab
SAT Subject Test: French
Italian Survival
Norwegian Survival
More...
Engineering
Audio Engineering
Computer Science Engineering
Aerospace Engineering
Chemical Engineering
Structural Engineering
More...
Health Sciences
Basic Nursing Skills
Health Science Language Fundamentals
Veterinary Technology Medical Language
Cardiology
Clinical Surgery
More...
English
Grammar Fundamentals
Literary And Rhetorical Vocab
Elements Of Style Vocab
Introduction To English Major
Complete Advanced Sentences
Literature
Homonyms
More...
Math
Algebra Formulas
Basic Arithmetic: Measurements
Metric Conversions
Geometric Properties
Important Math Facts
Number Sense Vocab
Business Math
More...
Other Major Subjects
Science
Economics
History
Law
Performing-arts
Cooking
Logic & Reasoning
Trivia
Browse all subjects
Browse all tests
Most popular tests