Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the term for an inhibitory interneuron?
Acute cystitis
Atelectasis
Renshaw neuron
Aorta - azygos vein - and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12

2. What X- linked recessive disorder that is due to an abnormality in the dystrophin gene - has onset by age 5 with progressive proximal muscle weakness - calf pseudohypertrophy - and elevated CPK levels?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

3. What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?
Neurologic symptoms Renal failure Thrombocytopenia Fever Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (Don't forget it. When I was an intern - my senior resident asked me this question more times than I would like to remember.)
Pia mater
Dominant parietal lobe (Gerstmann's syndrome)
Mitochondria - linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.

4. What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?
Mesonephric duct
HBcAb IgM - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome

5. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Beta - hCG
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score - where MA = mental age and CA = chronological age
Impotence
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50 - making O2 more difficult to remove from the Hgb molecule.

6. What is the name of the pathway that produces leukotrienes?
Lipoxygenase pathway - from arachidonic acid
Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
Staphylococcus aureus
Turcot syndrome

7. What antiviral agent blocks the attachment and penetration of influenza A virus?
Clozapine
Lethal dose for 50% of drug takers (median lethal dose)
Amantadine
C5a

8. What is used as an index of cortisol secretion?
Urinary 17- OH steroids
Hyperkalemia
Epidural hematoma
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these slow channels - and if they are prevented from opening - it will slow down the repolarization phase.

9. Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? - Pyocyanin (blue - green)
Glutamine and aspartate
Hepatitis D
Pimozide
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

10. What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of drug - induced Parkinson's disease?
Amantadine
Disorganized schizophrenia
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
Lysine and arginine

11. What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7 - causing a defect in Cl - transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?
Nephrotoxic oxylate stones
Seven - eighths of nephrons are cortical - with the remainder juxtamedullary.
Eosin
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)

12. Name the DNA virus: x Circular dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is a net gain in total body water and decreases when there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is named in terms of the ECF compartment.
The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture.
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
Papovavirus

13. Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?
Rheumatic fever
Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal - suprachiasmatic - pineal pathway.
Sideroblastic anemia
Exhibitionism

14. What three steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. a - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
The rate of infusion
Serratus anterior
Yes - by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners - being overweight - and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused females.

15. What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD?
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
3 years old
Compliance (think of it as distensibility)
Primary sclerosing cholangitis

16. Why is O2 content depressed in anemic patients?
Papule
Popliteus
Fading
Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in the blood. As for polycythemic patients - their O2 content is increased because of the excess Hgb concentrations.

17. What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?
Pia mater
Craniopharyngioma
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
Type I (makes sense - since they have a predisposition for fractures and type I collagen is associated with bones and tendons)

18. What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? - Urinary bladder and urethra
Urogenital sinus
Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)
REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that we recall.
Streptococcus agalactiae and Escherichia coli

19. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Smooth muscle
Stable
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Calcarine sulcus
Venous pressure above the heart is subatmospheric - so a puncture there has the potential to introduce air into the system.

20. What muscles in the hand adduct the fingers?
Early distal tubule
The Palmar interosseus ADducts - whereas the Dorsal interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB)
Eclipse period
Eosin

21. What is the rate - limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis?
Complex I
Glycogen synthase
Hashimoto thyroiditis
3- Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)

22. Measles - mumps - varicella zoster - and Francisella tularensis.
Increase the concentration of enzymes
Are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States
Dysthymia - Which is also known as nonpsychotic depression. (Think of it as the car running but not well.)
Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit of the limbic system)

23. What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in atrophy - chorea - dementia - and personality changes?
HPV serotypes 1 and 4
The resistance will decrease one - sixteenth of the original resistance.
>10 mm
Huntington disease

24. What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Watery diarrhea from beef - poultry - or gravies
Competitive antagonist
Thymine (B1)
Clostridium perfringens
Cefuroxime and cefaclor

25. Which subtype of AML is most commonly associated with Auer rods?
Male pseudo - intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these individuals are 46XY.
M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)
Autosomal recessive
Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is the same as impotence.)

26. What IL is essential for lymphoid cell development?
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
Bacillus anthracis
secondary immune response
IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is for Lymphoid)

27. What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the respiratory epithelium?
Kayser - Fleischer rings
Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and has an elevated cellular content.
P1 protein
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli

28. What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: x NADH (hint: 3 enzymes)
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
Isocitrate dehydrogenase - a - ketoglutarate dehydrogenase - and malate dehydrogenase
Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and therefore needed for protein digestion.

29. What AA is classified as basic even though its pK is 6.5 to 7?
Histidine - because of the imidazole ring found in the R group - is basic.
Gubernaculum
Nodular sclerosis
Corynebacterium diphtheriae

30. Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore - they are not used if a patient has hypertriglyceridemia.
Agglutination test
Repaglinide
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)

31. What two factors are required for effective exocytosis?
Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2 sleep.
RSV
NE
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged macromolecules to be extruded from the cell.

32. What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with watery diarrhea - hypokalemia - and achlorhydria?
Enterokinase
ELISA. It detects anti - p24 IgG.
Without children (but don't think about this one for too long)
VIPoma

33. What DNA excision and repair enzyme is deficient in patients with xeroderma pigmentosum?
Incidence rate
The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)
Excision endonuclease - which removes thiamine dimers from DNA
Hypnozoite

34. What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: x FADH2
Alcoholic cirrhosis
1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity
The enzyme phenyl ethanolamine N- methyltransferase (PNMT) - used in the conversion of epinephrine - is regulated by cortisol. Removing the anterior pituitary gland decreases ACTH and therefore cortisol.
Succinate dehydrogenase

35. What is the triad of Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome?
Anterior compartment of the leg - deep peroneal nerve
NADPH and molecular O 2
Diphyllobothrium latum
Thrombocytopenia - eczema - and immunodeficiency is the triad of this X- linked recessive disorder.

36. Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

37. Has a sodium - conserving action in the distal colon.
2.0 or greater
Aldosterone
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.
Production of HCO3- - shifting the reaction to the left and thereby decreasing H+

38. What is the leading cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second (Remember - it is mandatory to report STDs to the CDC.)
Chief cell adenoma (80%)
Prokaryotes. Polycistronic and prokaryotes both start with P.
Bacteria

39. Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
Bacillus anthracis
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three Es)
Lead - time bias (remember - patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)
HBsAg (incubation period)

40. What is absorbed in the gallbladder to concentrate bile?
Are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States
1. VSD 2. ASD 3. PDA
Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an efferent pupillary defect (CN III) - B/L constrict when light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the affected eye.
Water

41. What ascending sensory system carries joint position - vibratory and pressure sensation - and discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?
Axis IV
The DCML system. (Remember - everything but pain and temperature.)
AT II
Separation anxiety

42. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Epidermis
Areas 18 and 19
Empyema
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Labile

43. What three structures are in contact with the left colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?
Left: stomach - spleen - and left kidney; right: liver - duodenum - and right kidney
Chromosome 22q
Reaction formation
RBCs

44. What antiviral agent is used to treat RSV - influenza A and B - Lassa fever - and hantavirus and as an adjunct to IFN- in hepatitis C?
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.
Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)
Minor
Ribavirin

45. Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
Pimozide
Folic acid deficiency
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Functional residual capacity (FRC)

46. What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with x Muscarinic receptors (ACh)?
Voltage - gated sodium channel
Left atrium and tip of the right atrium
Granulosa cell
Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy persons have them - but schizophrenics do not.

47. What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris in patients with Down syndrome?
Secondary spermatocyte
Brushfield spots
Euchromatin - the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
Scleroderma

48. What two sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?
Smooth muscle
TCA cycle.
Glucose and galactose
Radial nerve

49. What class 1A antiarrhythmic agent has SLE- like syndrome side effect in slow acetylators?
IgA nephropathy
Procainamide
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember - for major articulations - wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)
Major

50. What vessels in the systemic circulation have the greatest and slowest velocity?
Apoptosis (Remember - there is a lack of inflammatory response.)
D- Penicillamine
The aorta has the greatest velocity and the capillaries have the slowest velocity.
Inactivated