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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?
Hypertension
Stable
Rhombencephalon
Reverse transcriptase

2. Can be secreted.
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
IgG
B- cell Ag receptors
Eosinophilic exudates

3. The probability that a person with a negative test result is truly disease free refers to what value?
Negative predictive value
Osteoblast (Remember - blasts make - clasts take)
Positive reinforcement
Candida

4. What syndrome has multiple adenomatous colonic polyps and CNS gliomas?
Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis)
Isoniazid
Turcot syndrome
Follicular phase is estrogen - dependent with increased FSH levels - while the luteal phase is progesterone - dependent.

5. What negative sense RNA virus is associated with parotitis - pancreatitis - and orchitis?
There is a difference; it takes about 7 to 8 half - lives to reach mathematical steady state and 4 to 5 half - lives to reach clinical steady state.
Areas 44 and 45
Parvovirus B 19
Mumps

6. What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? - Chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin
Plasma cell
Fibrinoid necrosis
GERD
Trypsin

7. What are the three platelet aggregating factors?
Water soluble
Streptococcus pyogenes
1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2
IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF- gamma also)

8. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Hemolytic anemia
Pearson correlation
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X.
All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and Proteus.
Nitrofurantoin

9. How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment?
Reye syndrome
Long - term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.
Mitosis
Negative reinforcement

10. What are the adult remnants of the following structures? - Ductus arteriosus
Right - sided valves
Aspiration
Ligamentum arteriosum
Procainamide

11. It degenerates 4 to 5 days post fertilization - and implantation occurs __ days post fertilization!
7
G0 phase
Complex 4
IgG

12. At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children x Have abstract thinking?
Pheochromocytoma
Formal operations (> 12 years)
Pearson correlation
Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis

13. Which group of antihypertensive agents best decreases left ventricular hypertrophy?
Coarctation of the aorta
Major
Selenium (Se)
Thiazide diuretics

14. What hypothesis states that the findings of a test are a result of chance?
Estrogen use
Type II pneumocytes
Null hypothesis (what you hope to disprove)
Paneth cells

15. What is the formula to calculate IQ?
Cytosine
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score - where MA = mental age and CA = chronological age
Tyramine
Anatomical dead space - which ends at the level of the terminal bronchioles.

16. What is the leading cause of school dropout?
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant - but the size - placement - erasures - and distortions are relevant.
Pregnancy
Prevalence increases. (Remember - prevalence can decrease in only two ways - recovery and death.)
Pneumothorax

17. What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?
Ch
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
Reovirus
Howell - Jolly bodies

18. What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates x The lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?
Caisson disease
Courvoisier's law
Atropine with pralidoxime
Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the only ganglion left.)

19. Name the most common type or cause - Spontaneous pneumothorax
Emphysematous bleb
Riboflavin (B2) deficiency
Order of attachment is site 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - and for release is 4 - 3 - 2 - 1.
Gilbert's syndrome

20. What disease involves a lack of both T cell - mediated and humoral immune responses that can be either X- linked or AR?
Resistance and vessel length are proportionally related. The greater the length of the vessel - the greater the resistance is on the vessel.
Ligament teres
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Hematoxylin

21. What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops testes and female external genitalia?
Glucose
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
AT II
Long - term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.

22. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: x Cells cease replicating (i.e. - nerve cell)
The short arm of chromosome 6
Serotonergic crisis may be precipitated when an SSRI is mixed with MAOIs - TCADs - dextromethorphan - and meperidine. Treat it with cyproheptadine.
G0 phase
Subarachnoid hemorrhage

23. What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?
Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
Coronary circulation
Are inactivated vaccines available in the United States
Ampulla

24. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x N- myc
cDNA - when it is made from mRNA
Anticipation - associated with fragile X syndrome; Huntington's disease is also associated with a decrease in onset of age.
Neuroblastoma
Latency stage (6-12 years)

25. What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? - Ovarian and round ligaments
Risk factors for breast cancer
IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI disturbances.
Peau d'orange
Gubernaculum

26. What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? - External genitalia
CN XII
Phallus - urogenital folds - and labioscrotal swellings
p -53
6 years old

27. What hormone can be affected by dopamine release in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.
Seminoma
In the JG cells of the kidney
Areas 44 and 45

28. Indicates the patient has active pulmonary disease.
A positive PPD skin test
Glycine/arginine
Amiloride
Methylation of bacterial DNA

29. Name the reaction that appears in babies who are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age - peaks around 8 months - and decreases at 12 months.)
Fever - night sweats - and hemoptysis
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive - compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.
Separation anxiety
Doxycycline and minocycline

30. What are the five pieces of information considered necessary for fully informed consent?

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31. What substance is used to test platelets' response in patients with von Willebrand disease?
Metastatic carcinoma
Unconjugated (indirect)
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Ristocetin

32. What two AAs have a pKa of 4?
Proencephalon
Scleroderma
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
Interferons

33. What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger - cleaning up cellular debris after injury?
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 48-96 hour latency)
Aspiration pneumonia
Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)
Ergosterol

34. What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from x Neutrophils?
Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months.
Impotence
Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)
Succinylcholine

35. What is the best measure of total body vitamin D if you suspect a deficiency?
Lymphoblastic lymphoma
Serum 25- hydroxy- vitamin D (25- OH- D)
Raynaud's phenomenon
Group A Beta- hemolytic streptococci

36. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: SVC
Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and left auricles
Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex) - but with CN VII the LMN of the upper face receives bilateral input but the lower facial LMNs receive only c
Glanzmann syndrome
Superior and middle

37. At what stage of sleep is GH output elevated?
Stage 4
Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light therapy)
Marijuana
Hemolytic uremic syndrome

38. What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is synthesized by platelets?
TXA2
Cori cycle
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
Chromosome 5p

39. What variant of polyarteritis nodosa is associated with bronchial asthma - granulomas - and eosinophilia?
Axis I
Churg - Strauss syndrome
Surface tension; in the alveoli - it is a force that acts to collapse the lung.
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and therefore is considered the active form.

40. Stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea.
High - frequency sound waves
Infliximab
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember - for major articulations - wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)
Round and ovarian ligaments

41. In a ventricular pacemaker cell - what phase of the action potential is affected by NE?
Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.
Yolk sac tumor
Secondary hyperthyroidism (Increased TSH results in increased T4 production and increased negative feedback on to hypothalamus and decreased release of TRH.)
Phase 4; NE increases the slope of the prepotential - allowing threshold to be reached sooner - and increases the rate of firing.

42. What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?
H 1
Proximal tubule
Ribonucleotide reductase
Yes - by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners - being overweight - and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused females.

43. What is the most common one? - Female genital tract malignancy resulting in death
Fluconazole
Ovarian cancer
Polycystic kidney disease of childhood
Adenovirus

44. Which anticonvulsant causes gingival hyperplasia?
Alzheimer disease
Hypnozoite
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in gingival hyperplasia)
MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This allows the body to eliminate tumor cells - virus - infected cells

45. In eukaryotes - What transcription factor binds to the TATA box before RNA polymerase II can bind?
DiGeorge syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease
Transcription factor IID

46. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - CNS neurons
IgG4
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla - Areola - and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production) - and if confronted by an APE - your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innerva
Intraductal papilloma
Permanent

47. What primary acid - base disturbance is caused by a loss in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the right - thereby increasing HCO3- levels?
Metabolic alkalosis (summary: high pH - low H+ and high HCO3-)
Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)
Hydrolysis
gamma and delta chains

48. What is the costliest health care problem in the United States?
Benign nevus (mole)
Hepadnavirus
Boutonni
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country approximately $100 billion a year.

49. What CN nucleus receives auditory information from both ears via the cochlear nuclei?
Superior olivary nucleus
>5 mm
Streptococcus agalactiae and Escherichia coli
Profound (I.Q. range < 20)

50. Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?
Pinpoint pupils - decreased respiratory rate - and coma
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
CN I - II - III - VI - and XII Add 1 + 1 = 2 - 1 + 2 = 3 - 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 - 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12
Nystagmus is named by the fast component - Which is the corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in response to the initial slow phase.