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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Name the most common type or cause - Death in the United States
Beta- Hydroxybutyrate
NO!! Remember - only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).
Stratum spinosum
Ischemic heart disease (MIs)
2. In a parallel circuit - what happens to resistance when a resistor is added in parallel
JC virus
Resistance decreases as resistors are added in parallel.
NE
Meckel diverticulum
3. What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair is unable to be done?
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells - so it is considered the thymic - dependent area.
Swan - neck deformities
100% - with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year
p -53
4. There is a strong ________ between IQ and academic achievement.
positive correlation
Both
As sample size increases - the lower the chance of error.
DHEA (androgens) Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
5. When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into the embryo?
Chromomycosis
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)
6 weeks 10 weeks
Cocaine
6. What is the pentad of TTP?
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7. A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps - vomiting - diarrhea - and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato salad at a picnic; What is the most likely responsible organism?
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.
The central vein of the liver lobule
Succinyl CoA synthetase
Staphylococcus aureus
8. Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: x Discontinuous voluntary contraction - multinuclear striated unbranched fibers - actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern - triadic T tubules - troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate fila
Skeletal muscles
For males it's prostate cancer - and for females it's breast cancer.
Kl
LDL
9. Name the antidote - Atropine
Squamous cell carcinoma
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein - mediated transport
Infection
Physostigmine
10. Name the most common type or cause - GN in the world
IgA nephropathy
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
Hexosaminidase A
Deltoid
11. Name the most common type or cause - Cellular injury
Gastric carcinoma
Hypoxia
Thalassemia minor
Heparin - intrinsic pathway - PTT; warfarin - extrinsic pathway - PT (mnemonic: hPeT - wPiTT)
12. The nucleus is the site of...
Phase 0
1:1. Remember - the flow through the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit are equal.
Minimal change disease
transcription
13. Two weeks after her son has a throat infection - a mother takes the boy to the ER because he has fever - malaise - HTN - dark urine - and periorbital edema. What is your diagnosis?
Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus)
Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.
Western blot
Poststreptococcal GN
14. Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics - apo E - apo B-100 - apo C- II
VLDL
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.
The increased H+ moves intracellularly and is buffered by K+ leaving the cells - resulting in intracellular depletion and serum excess. (Intracellular hypokalemia is the reason you supplement potassium in diabetic ketoacidosis - even though the serum
Decreasing potassium conductance - which results in increased excitability
15. What component of the inner ear x Contains endolymph and gravity receptors monitoring linear acceleration and deceleration of the head - noting changes in head position?
The fasciculus cuneatus
Utricle and saccule
Hydatidiform mole
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful) - which lies closest to the midline of the spinal cord.
16. What happens to free hormone levels when the liver decreases production and release of binding proteins?
Taenia saginata
Premature ejaculation
Free hormone levels remain constant - and the bound hormone level changes with a decrease in binding hormones.
Primary hyperparathyroidism
17. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Having a stimulus take over the control of the behavior (unintentionally)?
Paget disease (osteitis deformans)
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged macromolecules to be extruded from the cell.
Hemostasis
Stimulus control
18. What is the most common one? - Type of PUD
Helicase (requires ATP for energy)
Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies.
Look for broken blood vessels in the baby's eyes.
Duodenal ulcers (4 times as common as gastric)
19. Which hepatitis virus is in the Flaviviridae family?
Ribavirin
Hepatitis C
Parietal cells (Remember - they secrete HCl - too.)
HMP shunt
20. What two stress hormones are under the permissive action of cortisol?
Sickle cell anemia - Caisson disease - chronic steroid use - and Gaucher disease
Glucagon and epinephrine
CMV - Toxoplasma gondii - and Listeria
GnRH
21. Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: x Pain and fever
PGE2
Major
Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.
Neuroblastoma
22. What Brodmann area is associated with x Frontal eye fields?
Area 8
Ischemia
ACh - histamine - and gastrin
Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn - crosses over - and ascends contralateral in the spinal cord - brainstem - thalamus - and postcentral gyrus.
23. What are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals?
Skin - liver - and kidneys
Nystagmus and ataxia
The negative charge inhibits the filtration of protein anions.
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism
24. What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP (5- Phosphoribosyl -1- Pyrophosphate)?
Orotic acid (purine metabolism)
von Hippel - Lindau syndrome
Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here result in obesity.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MGN)
25. What is given to pregnant women within 24 hours after birth to eliminate Rh+ fetal blood cells from their circulation?
Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) - an anti - RhD IgG antibody - prevents generation of RhD- specific memory B cells in the mother.
3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' end.
Valine
Meningocele All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
26. Myelin is produced by which cells in the PNS? In the CNS?
Tyrosine
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
Toxoplasma gondii
In the PNS - myelin is produced by Schwann cells - in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.
27. What infection is associated with ring - enhancing lesions seen on computed tomography (CT) of the brain in an HIV- positive individual?
Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)
Chromosome 21
Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)
Rubor (red) - dolor (pain) - calor (heat) - tumor (swelling); also sometimes there is loss of function
28. Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes - Ohio - Mississippi - eastern seaboard of the United States - and southern Canada?
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Sexual aversion disorder
Potter facies
Molluscum contagiosum
29. What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase - massive organomegaly - zebra bodies - and foamy histiocytes and is associated with chromosome 11p?
Parvovirus
Niemann - Pick disease
Without children (but don't think about this one for too long)
Brain abscess
30. What is the MCC of death in children aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
Accidents
Orbitomedial frontal lobe
Lente insulin and either NPH or protamine zinc insulin (PZI)
HMG- CoA reductase
31. Is the bound form or free form of a lipid - soluble hormone responsible for the negative feedback activity?
Friedreich ataxia
Free form determines hormone activity and is responsible for the negative feedback loop.
Ascending limb
Listeria monocytogenes
32. What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response - the reinforcement is given x On a set time schedule?
No. Remember - tests do not diagnose - they confirm or refute your diagnosis. Also - diagnosis of MI requires two of three criteria: chest pain consistent and characteristic of MI - elevated cardiac enzymes consistent with MI - and ST segment elevati
Arboviruses (bunyavirus - flavivirus - and togavirus)
Fixed interval
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.
33. Leukopenia - neutropenia - and mental deterioration are signs of what mineral deficiency?
Copper
IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.
F- Met - Peptides
Dendrites receive information - whereas axons send information.
34. What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty acid synthase and acyl CoA?
Axis III
Erectile dysfunction
Direct; in males less than 50 years old indirect hernias are the most common type.
Pantothenic acid
35. What three steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?
Succinyl CoA synthetase
Parvovirus B 19
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. a - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol
36. After a longstanding left - to - right shunt reverses - causing cyanosis - and becomes a right - to - left shunt - What is it termed?
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37. In regard to motor development during infancy - choose the motor response that happens first - Palms up or down
Blastoconidia
Palms - up before palms - down maneuvers
Candida albicans
Secondary spermatocyte
38. What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone lead to?
Areas 5 and 7
igantism
Ischemic
C3a - C4a - C5a
39. What Ig is associated with mucosal surfaces and external secretions?
The notochord
After the latent period
IgA
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant - but the size - placement - erasures - and distortions are relevant.
40. What are five clinical signs of portal HTN?
G-6- PD deficiency
Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves
Caput medusa - internal hemorrhoids - esophageal varices - retroperitoneal varices - and splenomegaly
The resistance increases 16- fold.
41. How long is the transit time through the large intestine?
3 to 4 days
Dantrolene
Areas 41 and 42
Amphotericin B
42. The DSM- IV- TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In What axis would you place x Clinical disorders (e.g. - schizophrenia)?
Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA - are fragmented - and contain all sequences found in the particular genome copied.
Astrocytoma
Axis I
Mitosis
43. What are the three C's of a TCAD overdose?
Hematogenous
Aspiration
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)
Coma - convulsions - and cardiotoxicity
44. What cell type involves humoral immunity?
Loss of isotonic fluid (diarrhea - vomiting - hemorrhage)
Because they do not block D2A receptors - they are antagonists of 5HT2 receptors.
B lymphocyte
1. a - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vital to tissue respiration. It is required for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl - coenzyme A -
45. What two vitamins are inactivated when they come in contact with acetaldehyde?
When showing two pictures in rapid succession - you split the pictures half a second apart - resulting in the second picture masking the first (indicating poor short - term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of schizophrenic patients.
Osteosarcoma
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. GTP
Thiamine and folate
46. In a positively skewed curve the mean is ______ than the mode.
Dimercaprol
greater
The fasciculus cuneatus
1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP
47. What ascending sensory system carries joint position - vibratory and pressure sensation - and discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?
28 L - 40% of body weight
The DCML system. (Remember - everything but pain and temperature.)
Spleen
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)
48. What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in a child resulting in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of the adrenal glands?
Contralateral muscle weakness when above the decussation - whereas an UMN injury below the pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral muscle weakness.
Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome
S phase
Polycystic ovary disease (Stein - Leventhal syndrome)
49. What is the most common cause of vitamin B6 deficiency?
Melanoma
Isoniazid treatment
Atelectasis
Dihydrotestosterone
50. What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?
Avoidant
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.
Mitochondria
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)