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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What syndrome results when there is a deletion to paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?
Rochalimaea quintana (now called Bartonella quintana)
GLUT 3 and 4
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged macromolecules to be extruded from the cell.
Prader - Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome - respectively

2. Have catalase.
Streptococci
Hydralazine
Pancreatic cancer
1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the patient say? 3. What is in the patient's best interests?

3. Which B- cell neoplasm has the following cell surface markers: CD19 - CD20 - CD5 (T- cell marker) - CD23; and are CD10- negative?
gram positive
Varicella virus and influenza virus
CLL (B- cell origin)
LC4 - LD4 - and LE 4

4. What are the five hormones produced by Sertoli cells?
Marfan syndrome
1. Inhibin 2. Estradiol (E2) 3. Androgen - binding protein 4. Meiosis inhibiting factor (in fetal tissue) 5. Antim
The cat
Affinity decreases; they are inversely proportional.

5. Insulin - induced hypoglycemia is the most reliable (by far not the safest) test For what hormone deficiency?
>5 mm
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary immune response (shorter lag period).
GH deficiency

6. Which mycoplasma species is associated with urethritis - prostatitis - and renal calculi?
Hyperventilation - which decreases CO2 - shifting the reaction to the left and decreasing H+
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Motilin
Psoriasis

7. In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle - where it is converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before being taken back to the liver?
Sporothrix schenckii
Alanine cycle
Posterior
Ventral posteromedial nucleus

8. What is the most common one? - Helminthic parasite worldwide
At least 30% blast in the bone marrow
Ascaris lumbricoides
2.0 or greater
Ratio scale

9. Why are eukaryotes unable to perform transcription and translation at the same time like prokaryotes?
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling phase.
Chemotaxis
In eukaryotes transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm.
NE

10. What paraphilia is defined as x Having sex with cadavers?
Hypersegmented neutrophils
Cryptococcus
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
Necrophilia

11. Bence - Jones proteinuria
Taenia solium
Pneumotaxic center (short - fast breaths)
Cancer
Multiple myeloma

12. Name the most common type or cause - Cellular injury
Left: stomach - spleen - and left kidney; right: liver - duodenum - and right kidney
greater
Hypoxia
Volume of distribution is decreased when a large percentage of drug is protein bound.

13. What carcinoma produces hematuria - flank pain - and a palpable mass?
Saccule and utricle
CN IX - X - and XII CN XI arises from the cervical spinal cord.
H 2
This is the triad of renal cell carcinoma

14. Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action - Peak - 8 to 12 hours; duration - 18 to 24 hours
Lente or NPH insulin (neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin)
Third week
The Palmar interosseus ADducts - whereas the Dorsal interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB)
C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH)

15. Are the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver functionally part of the left or right lobe?
Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver because they receive their blood supply from the left hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part of the right lobe of the liver.
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
Epispadia

16. Name the most common type or cause - Acute renal failure in the United States
Ag - Ab binding
Acute tubular necrosis
1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the length of the vessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4. Decrease the number of parallel channels
Aspiration pneumonia

17. Which two tetracyclines have the highest plasma binding?
Histiocytes
Doxycycline and minocycline
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
Moving objects - along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs.

18. The increased oxygen consumption after phagocytosis is for...
Diazoxide
Proencephalon
When it crosses the teres major
ATP production

19. Is bone deposition or resorption due to increased interstitial Ca2+concentrations?
Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO 4- concentrations - whereas resorption (breakdown) is increased when there are low levels of Ca2+ or PO4-.
CMV retinitis and HSV-2
Middle meningeal artery
The number of Ags that the Ab can bind

20. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x Additional air that can be taken in after normal inspiration
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
They are inversely proportional to each other; as pulse pressure increases - compliance decreases.
14 days in most women (Remember - the luteal phase is always constant.)
Inferior phrenic artery

21. Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? - Right eye can't look left - left eye nystagmus - and convergence is intact
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Transtentorial (uncal)
Autosomal dominant
Microvillus

22. Name the MCC of death - In SLE
Chromosome 15
Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Renal failure

23. What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase?
Hemophilia A
Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.
Enterokinase
Because incidence is defined as new events; treatment does not decrease the number of new events. It does decrease the number of individuals with the event (prevalence would decrease).

24. What enzyme is blocked by methotrexate/ trimethoprim?
From the adrenal medulla; NE is mainly derived from the postsynaptic sympathetic neurons.
Dihydrofolate reductase
Pancreatic insufficiency
Astrocytoma

25. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - DNA
Beta- Blockers
Lesch - Nyhan syndrome
Southern blot
Relative refractory period

26. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with x Thoracic vertebrae?
Membranous glomerulonephritis
Thiamine
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal - middle colic - right colic - ileocolic - and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries
Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

27. Increases the risk of developing ovarian cancer.
Hyperplasia
Estrogen use
Medial collateral ligament
Renal circulation

28. What enzyme of the TCA cycle also acts as complex II of the ETC?
Rhabdomyoma
HBsAb IgG
Occipital lobe
Succinate dehydrogenase

29. Name the macrophages by location: x Liver
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
Kupffer cells
Glucokinase
Streptomycin

30. What is the first branch of the abdominal artery?
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
Inferior phrenic artery
Cholera toxin
CD16 and CD56

31. How many carbons do estrogens have?
Estrogens are 18- carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.)
Parkinson disease
Hydralazine
Phase 1

32. To What does aldose reductase convert galactose?
Galactitol
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat
Pneumococcus
Parasites

33. From What aortic arch are the following structures derived?
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases - there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.
Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery
Foramen of Monro
Regression

34. Where do sperm go for maturation?
catalase - negative
Rifampin
Ductus epididymis - Which is lined by pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia.
Yes - as long the illness does not threaten limb or life. If illness is critical or an emergency - treat the child.

35. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Cartilage abnormalities
Upper outer quadrant (left more than right)
Quinolones
DiGeorge syndrome
DiGeorge's syndrome

36. Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in...
reflexes
IGF-1
Major
3'-5' direction - synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction

37. What two post - transcriptional enzymes in collagen synthesis require ascorbic acid to function properly?
Procainamide
Glycine/arginine
Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases
IgG

38. What disorder is associated with loss of polarity - anaplasia - pleomorphism - discohesiveness - increase in the nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio - hyperchromasia - and increase in the rate of mitosis?
Osteopetrosis (Albers - Sch
Malignancy
On the superior body of the posterior wall of the uterus
Carcinoid tumor

39. You would not prescribe __________ for a patient with gout who is an overexcretor of uric acid.
Aromatase
Probenecid
Pasteurella multocida
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)

40. What three things are needed to produce a double bond in a fatty acid chain in the endoplasmic reticulum?
Krukenberg tumor
apo A-1
Listeria monocytogenes
NADPH - O2 - and cytochrome b5

41. What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is x Below 69
The Halsted - Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation - speech sound perception - rhythm - tactual - and category testing.
Major
White muscle; short term too
Mentally disabled

42. What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia
Borrelia recurrentis
Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular capillaries (promotes filtration)
Scrofula

43. What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased hematocrit - blood viscosity - basophils - and eosinophils; intense pruritus; and gastric ulcers due to histamine release from basophils - increased LAP - and plethora?
Polycythemia vera (Remember - polycythemia vera is a risk factor for acute leukemias.)
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.
Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the corpus callosum.
GABA - quantitatively

44. Have no GI tract They absorb nutrients from the host's GI tract.
Cestodes
Dihydropteroate synthetase
Toxoplasma gondii
12 to 16 weeks (in response to mother's face)

45. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Liver
Mitosis
Spironolactone
Vancomycin
Stable

46. Which calcium channel blocker is used to treat subarachnoid hemorrhages by preventing posthemorrhagic vasospasms?
IgG
Nimodipine
The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high venous PO2) difference in the body because of the overperfusion of the kidneys resulting from filtration.
The Beta -2- microglobin. It is the separately encoded Beta - chain for class I Ags.

47. What body fluid preferentially breaks down esters?
Blood
Amantadine
It is best to begin with open - ended questions - allowing patients to describe in their own words What troubles them. You can then move to closed - ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis.
Dilation of the internal mammary arteries results in erosions on the inner surface of the ribs and is seen as notching.

48. Which antimicrobial agent is used with pyrimethamine to treat toxoplasmosis?
Phase 1
Opioids cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in increased intracerebral pressure.
Empyema
Clindamycin

49. What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? - Thoracodorsal nerve
Latissimus dorsi
Aminoglycosides
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream - and the -35 promoter site is self - explanatory.
Acetyl CoA carboxylase

50. What is the term for the amount of blood in the ventricle after maximal contraction?
Hodgkin lymphoma
Fibrinous exudates
31 pairs
Residual volume