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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs?
Auspitz sign
Histamine
Nystagmus and ataxia
RSV

2. What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the substrate level phosphorylation?
Chromosome 1
Succinyl CoA synthetase
A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication - and the jaw deviates to the right.
Streptococci

3. Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control?
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
HHV-8
Salmonella
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

4. What is the rate - limiting step of the following? - Ketogenolysis
Adulthood
Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40
HMG CoA synthase

5. What happens to intrapleural pressure when the diaphragm is ontracted during inspiration?
1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile
Chromium (Cr)
A positive PPD skin test
Intrapleural pressure decreases (becomes more negative).

6. What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Bloody diarrhea associated with hamburger ingestion
Endometrial cancer
Duodenal ulcer
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
Hypoxia

7. What pancreatic islet cell secretes glucagons?
Lead
Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect.
alpha - Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on - cells and inhibitory effects on - cells.

8. Takes place in both the cytoplasm and the mitochondria.
Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies.
The urea cycle
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Chromosome 4p

9. What enzyme of heme synthesis is deficient in the autosomal dominant disorder acute intermittent porphyria?
Glanzmann syndrome
Uroporphyrinogen - I synthase
Fever - night sweats - and hemoptysis
Seminoma

10. Name the most common type - Phobia
GP Ib
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)
Phase I
Pneumocystis carinii

11. What are the four types of signaling mechanisms?
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant - so there is a large change in their size and volume and therefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22 - 39 - and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.
Gardner syndrome
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors

12. What bilateral AR disorder seen in infancy as progressive renal failure has multiple small cysts at right angles to the cortical surface?
Systematic desensitization
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity and decreased blood volume.
1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels 2. Administer IgG in high concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells with Ag bound to IgG (complexes) 4. Turn off the original T or B cell with anti - Ab
Polycystic kidney disease of childhood

13. What is the drug of choice for filariasis and onchocerciasis?
Anhedonia
Thymus - independent Ags
Postinfectious GN
Diethylcarbamazine

14. What vitamin deficiency can result in high - output cardiac failure?
Thiamine
Carbamazepine
ELISA test
Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all of medicine!)

15. Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?

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16. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x CA-19.9 and CEA
Anterior compartment of the thigh - femoral nerve
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
Pancreatic cancer
Rhabdovirus

17. Testing of a drug in a small group of volunteers without the disease is a component of which phase of clinical drug testing?
Sucralfate
Osteoporosis
Phase 1
Cystadenoma

18. Would a G- C or an A- T rich dsDNA sequence have a higher melting point? Why?
G- C rich sequences - because they have 3 hydrogen bonds - where A- T has 2 hydrogen bonds - resulting in higher melting points.
Corticospinal tract
Chromosome 11p
Hypertrophic scar

19. What pyrimidine base is found x In both DNA and RNA?
Cytosine
It is produced by the preload on the muscle prior to contraction.
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.

20. Which hepatitis B serology markers
Streptomycin
HBcAb IgM - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg
Transference. When it is from the physician to the patient it is called countertransference.
Yes - they stimulate the growth of mammary tissue but block milk synthesis. At parturition - the decrease in estrogen lifts the block on milk production.

21. What presynaptic receptor does NE use to terminate further neurotransmitter release?
alpha2- Receptors
Prostatic carcinoma
naked viruses
Stage 2

22. What disease is X- linked recessive - is associated with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections - involves a decrease in serum IgM and in the T cell - dependent paracortical areas of the lymph nodes - and m
Lipoprotein lipase
Hypoxia
Oxytocin
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome

23. What epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to act as a sealant?
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion to occur.
Isoleucine - threonine - tryptophan - tyrosine - and phenylalanine
Primitive atrium
Stratum granulosum

24. What form of renal tubular reabsorption is characterized by low back leaks - high affinity of a substance - and easy saturation? It is surmised that the entire filtered load is reabsorbed until the carriers are saturated - and then the rest is excret
Zileuton
A transport maximum (Tm) system
Fetal alcohol syndrome
GLUT 3 and 4

25. What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates x The submandibular and sublingual glands?
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)
Amiloride
Stage 1

26. What is the term when the brachial artery is compressed - resulting in ischemic contracture of the hand?

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27. Name the type of graft described by these transplants: Between genetically identical individuals
Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response)
Osteoarthritis
Isograft
No - it is not a mandatory reportable offense (if you can believe it). Child and elderly abuse are mandatory reportable offenses.

28. What are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals?
Right atrium
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Nystagmus and ataxia
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia.

29. Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: x Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation produced by vascular endothelium
Substantia nigra
IgG
PGI2
Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia

30. What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps - most commonly affects the colorectal area - and is associated with chromosome 5q21?
ll
The left is a branch of the aortic arch - while the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk.
Intrinsic factor (IF)
Familial polyposis coli

31. What antiviral agent is used to treat RSV - influenza A and B - Lassa fever - and hantavirus and as an adjunct to IFN- in hepatitis C?
Ribavirin
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
The rate of infusion
Gap junctions

32. What type of bias is it when the information is distorted because of the way it is gathered?
Ungated channels
Major
Listeria monocytogenes
Measurement bias

33. With What thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7 articulate?
Erythromycin
Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.
Periaortic lymph nodes
Listeria monocytogenes

34. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output - Input from the optic tract; output projects to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe
Aedes mosquito
The muscle's ATPase activity
LGB (think EYES)
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test

35. Name the antidote - AChE inhibitors
3'-5' direction - synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction
Chromosome 3p
Staphylococcus aureus
Atropine with pralidoxime

36. What is the most common one? - Benign breast tumor in females less than 35 years old
Fibroadenoma
Sickle cell disease
NH4+(ammonium)
Malingering

37. What is the major muscle used in the relaxed state of expiration?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Ulnar to radial progression
Epinephrine
Under resting conditions expiration is considered a passive process; therefore - no muscles are used. In the active state the abdominal muscles can be considered the major muscle of expiration.

38. What is the name of the force that develops in the wall of the lungs as they expand?
Posterior cruciate ligament
Lung recoil - being a force to collapse the lung - increases as the lung enlarges during inspiration.
Posterior
Cyproheptadine

39. What chromosome is mutant in patients with cystic fibrosis?
Cross - sectional studies determine prevalence - not incidence or cause and effect.
Patients with cystic fibrosis have a mutation in the chloride channel protein in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7.
Depolarization (i.e. - Na+ influx)
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.

40. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Providing the person with information regarding his or her internal responses to stimuli with methods of controlling them?
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)
Somatoform pain disorder
Biofeedback
Resistance decreases as resistors are added in parallel.

41. If a virus has positive sense RNA - can it be used as mRNA or is a template needed?
Positive sense RNA can be used as mRNA. Negative sense RNA cannot be used as mRNA; it requires special RNA- dependent RNA polymerases.
Protease - integrase - and reverse transcriptase
Ceramide
Cervical neoplasia

42. What are the five pieces of information considered necessary for fully informed consent?

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43. Familial hypercholesteremia is due to a mutation in the LDL receptor gene. What chromosome carries it?
Somatomedins
Calcium influx secondary to slow channel opening
Fibroadenoma
Chromosome 19

44. What three circumstances allow a child to be committed to institutional care?

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45. Name the most common type or cause - Cirrhosis in the United States
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.
Stratum spinosum
CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember - 8
Alcohol consumption

46. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x CDK4
Seminoma
Melanoma
Ratio scale
The rectouterine pouch (of Douglas)

47. What enzyme is inhibited by trimethoprim?
Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles - which are lacking on the palms and soles of the feet.
Dihydrofolate reductase
80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)
Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles

48. Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung - esophagus - ureter - and kidney - just to Name a few.
Propranolol
At least 5 lobes
The sensory component is through the superior laryngeal nerve - and the motor limb is via the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

49. Blood and its vessels form During What embryonic week?
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
Posterior interventricular artery
The enzyme lysyl oxidase requires Cu2+and O2 to function properly.
It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and increases bone mineralization.

50. What DNA virus is associated with heterophile - negative mononucleosis?
HBeAg
CN X
Somatization disorder
CMV; remember - EBV is associated with heterophile - positive mononucleosis.