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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name these immature defense mechanisms: x Inability to remember a known fact (aware of forgetting)
Dantrolene
Zero - order elimination
Blocking
Zileuton

2. What is the most common one? - Site of a cerebral infarct
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
Middle cerebral artery
Bactericidal

3. What type of correlation compares two ordinal variables?
Coccidioides immitis
Primary hypothyroidism (Low T4 has a decreased negative feedback loop - resulting in both the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland to increase TRH and TSH release - respectively.)
Complex I
Spearman correlation

4. Name the most common type or cause - Urethritis in a young - newly sexually active individual
Dynorphin
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Meckel diverticulum
D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.

5. Is it acceptable to lie - even if it protects a colleague from malpractice?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome
No - it is never acceptable to lie.
The limbic system

6. What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with x Serotonin?
Inhibited orgasm
GH - especially IGF-1. GH also increases the incorporation of thymidine in DNA synthesis and uridine in RNA synthesis.
Third week
The mouth

7. All primary oocytes in females are formed By What age?
They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.
Xanthine - hypoxanthine - theophylline - theobromine - caffeine - and uric acid are all purines.
H 2
The left gastric - splenic - and common hepatic arteries

8. What hormone acts on Granulosa cells?
FSH
PGE (along with low oxygen tension)
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA - are fragmented - and contain all sequences found in the particular genome copied.

9. Takes place in both the cytoplasm and the mitochondria.
Transposons
The urea cycle
Spasms of the uterus - bladder - and the biliary tree occur with all of the opioids except meperidine.
T and B- cells belong to the adaptive branch - whereas PMNs - NK cells - eosinophils - macrophages - and monocytes belong to the innate branch.

10. Name three opsonins.
1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable to self - care daily at the appropriate developmental level. 3. The parents or guardians have no control over the child or will not promise to ensure the child's safety e
Convergence
CN IX - X - and XII CN XI arises from the cervical spinal cord.
Fc portion of IgG - C3b - and mannose - binding proteins

11. What water - soluble - vitamin deficiency is associated with cheilosis and magenta tongue?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
Adrenarche
Riboflavin (B2)
Clonorchis sinensis

12. What area of the limbic system is responsible for attaching emotional significance to a stimulus?
ACh receptor
Vitreous humor
Ischemic heart disease (MIs)
Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.

13. What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
Mitosis
They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.
Anterior tibial artery
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2

14. What is the most common one? - Location of ependymomas in children
The promoter indicates where transcription will begin.
Urogenital sinus
In children - the fourth ventricle; in adults - the lateral ventricle or spinal cord
Decreases

15. Fluoroquinolones are...
Filiform papillae
HBeAb
robenecid - a uricosuric agent
Bactericidal

16. All Proteus species are...
urease positive
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase.
Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle
Plasmodium vivax

17. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: x Sawtooth waves - random low voltage pattern
Hypersegmented neutrophils
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Frontal lobe
REM

18. The DSM- IV- TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In What axis would you place x Clinical disorders (e.g. - schizophrenia)?
refuse
Axis I
The alveolar PO2 and PCO2 levels
Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN lesion.

19. What equals the total tension on a muscle minus the preload?
Caisson disease
Resistance of the system increases. (Remember - when resistors are connected in a series - the total of the resistance is the sum of the individual resistances.)
Bioavailability
Afterload

20. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - H zone
HBcAb IgM - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)
Shortens
Rho-immunoglobin

21. What is the name of the B cell - rich area of the spleen?
IgM
Primary follicle (in the white pulp)
de Quervain thyroiditis
Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex

22. What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
Gaucher disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
Methylation of bacterial DNA
competency

23. Name the most common cause - A cold in the winter and summer
Legionella (think air conditioners)
Fitz - Hugh - Curtis syndrome
Coronavirus
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative

24. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meio
O2
Fungi
Free hormone levels remain constant - and the bound hormone level changes with a decrease in binding hormones.
Intermediate part of the hemispheres

25. Multiple pregnancies - early age of intercourse - multiple sexual partners - OCP use - smoking - HIV - and STDs.
Risk factors for cervical cancer
Phase 4
Acting out
Propionic acid

26. Objective tests that base the result of the examination on a preset standard use what form of reference?
Residual volume
Budd - Chiari syndrome
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia
Criterion - referenced tests. You need a certain number correct to pass (e.g. - the USMLE).

27. What immunosuppressive agent is converted to 6- mercaptopurine?
Picornaviridae
Azathioprine
Serocystadenoma
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier - it may become immunogenic.

28. With an increase in arterial systolic pressure - what happens to x Stroke volume?
Class 1 (1A - 1B - and 1C)
Enterococcus faecalis
Ligamentum venosum
Increases

29. Which B- cell neoplasm has the following cell surface markers: CD19 - CD20 - CD5 (T- cell marker) - CD23; and are CD10- negative?
CLL (B- cell origin)
Turner syndrome
Primary hypercortisolism
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein

30. Regarding muscle mechanics - How is passive tension produced?
It is produced by the preload on the muscle prior to contraction.
Pulmonary shunt (i.e. - pulmonary embolism)
Internal 3' - 5' PDE bonds
1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans

31. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Eukaryotic cell - 15 to 25 microns - 80S ribosomes - no cell walls - replicates via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
As the standard deviation increases - the greater the chance of error.
Parasites
Lactulose
Metaphase II

32. What mineral is associated with hypothyroidism?
Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic acid
Minimal change disease
CN IX - X - and XII
Iodine (I)

33. What determines the rate of reaction?
The energy of activation
LTC4 - LTD4 - and LTE4
Voltage - gated sodium channel
Reverse transcriptase

34. What type of membrane is characterized as being permeable to water only?
Stage 1
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
Semipermeable membrane; a selectively permeable membrane allows both water and small solutes to pass through its membrane.
Metaplasia (usually to a more protective cell type)

35. What is the most stressful event as determined by the Holmes and Rahe scale?
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Steroid synthesis - drug detoxification - triglyceride resynthesis - and Ca2+handling
The death of a spouse. The higher the score - the greater the risk of developing an illness in the next 6 months.
Positive

36. What form of immunity is responsible for removal of intracellular infections?
Cystadenocarcinoma
Macula densa
Cell - mediated immunity
Edrophonium

37. Schiller - Duval bodies
Escherichia coli
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell
Yolk sac tumor
ater flows from a low - solute to high - solute concentrations.

38. Which potassium - sparing drug is an aldosterone receptor antagonist ?
Spironolactone
After the eclipse period
Sphingosine
Left colic - superior rectal - and sigmoidal arteries

39. Name the antidote - Iron
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
Deferoxamine - penicillamine
Chronic rejection
Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are.

40. IgE- mediated mast cell release - C3a and C5a - and IL-1 all trigger the release of what vasoactive amine?
Primary follicle (in the white pulp)
Osteosarcoma
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery.
Histamine

41. Where in the GI tract does the reabsorption of bile salts take place?
Nasopharynx
Femoral nerve
Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in the distal ileum.
Ionized drugs are water soluble - and since only lipid - soluble drugs can cross biomembranes - an ionized drug cannot cross them without the help of a carrier.

42. What is the name for the following RBC indices? - The coefficient of variation of the RBC volume
Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)
Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular capillaries (promotes filtration)
C3b
Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 22nd week in utero)

43. RBCs anaerobically use glucose in both the __________ states.
Sporozoites
well - fed and fasting
3- Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)
Demeclocycline

44. What small gram - negative aerobic rod requires Regan - Lowe or Bordet - Gengou medium for growth?
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the number of functioning carriers.
Prokaryotes. Polycistronic and prokaryotes both start with P.
Bordetella pertussis
Axon hillock

45. What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space consists of fibrin - platelets - RBCs - and WBCs?
Thrombus
Glutamate
Anaerobes
Cholera toxin

46. What is the term for pelvic inflammatory disease of the fallopian tubes?
Caseous necrosis
Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic pathway
Paramyxovirus
Salpingitis

47. What toxicities are caused by the following agents? - Occupational nitrous oxide exposure
HMP shunt
Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase
Dapsone
Anemia

48. What is the main factor determining GFR?
Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.
G-6- PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase deficiency is second.
Topoisomerase I (Relaxase)
Glomerular capillary pressure (increased glomerular capillary pressure - increased GFR and vice versa)

49. Stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea.
Enterobius vermicularis; the treatment is albendazole.
High - frequency sound waves
Granulosa cells
Ribonucleotide reductase

50. What is the epithelial cell lining the nasopharynx?
Catechol - O- methyl transferase (COMT)
Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium - which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx.
Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) or human placental lactogen (hPL)
REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.

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USMLE Step 1 Prep

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