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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Epidermis
REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.
Labile
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
2. Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly responsible for outgoing (efferent) information?
Disorganized schizophrenia
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ('I Love Science' muscles)
Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.
3. What direct - pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike facies - stooped posture - cogwheel rigidity - pill - rolling tremor at rest - and a gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center of gravity?
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4. In the classical conditioning model - when a behavior is learned - what must occur to break the probability that a response will happen?
Calcium oxylate
Medial meniscus
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)
Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs most often in the first third of sleep.
5. Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
Axis I
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
Mesonephric duct
Somatization
6. What are the four muscles of mastication?
Lactose must be present and glucose must be absent
Alveolar macrophages
Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host - whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host.
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
7. What disorder - experienced more than half of the time for a 6- month period - is described as being fearful - worrisome - or impatient and having sleep disturbances - poor concentration - hyperactivity - and an overall sense of autonomic hyperactivi
Rheumatoid arthritis
Generalized anxiety disorder
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb
Arsenic - thorotrast - and vinyl chloride
8. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Alkylating agents
Serum 25- hydroxy- vitamin D (25- OH- D)
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increase in cardiac output - resulting in a minimal change in BP.
Northern blot
G0 phase
9. What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?
It is best to begin with open - ended questions - allowing patients to describe in their own words What troubles them. You can then move to closed - ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis.
Foramen of Monro
C- peptide levels
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
10. Name the hormone
Vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine)
CN V - VI - VII - and VIII
Amantadine
Glucagon
11. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Pineal gland
Primary hypogonadism (postmenopausal women)
Chlamydia trachomatis
Parasympathetic
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
12. What nerve roots constitute the cervical plexus?
C1 through C4
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
GLUT 2
Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)
13. What event signifies the first day of the menstrual cycle?
Anemia
Endometrial cancer
Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)
Onset of bleeding
14. What virus lies dormant in the x Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?
The promoter indicates where transcription will begin.
Folic acid
Herpes II
Upper outer quadrant (left more than right)
15. What is the term for a unit of DNA that encodes a particular protein or RNA molecule?
A gene (a rather simple definition but accurate)
H 2
No - it is used in chronic treatment of gout to decrease the uric acid pools in the body.
Epstein - cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve
16. What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? - AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion - resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia - ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss - contralateral loss of pain and temperature to the
Microsporum
Tropomyosin
Lateral pontine syndrome
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
17. What acid form of H+ in the urine cannot be titrated?
Tetracycline
NH4+(ammonium)
Staphylococcus aureus
Finasteride
18. What happens to flow and pressure in capillaries with arteriolar dilation? Arteriolar constriction?
Capillary flow and pressure increase with arteriolar dilation and decrease with arteriolar constriction.
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Circumvallate papillae
Eosinophils
19. What antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
Stereocilia
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
Type II pneumocytes
Terbinafine
20. What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?
Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin with P.)
Cytochrome c
Keratinocytes - the most numerous cells in the epidermis - carry melanin and produce keratin.
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland release PTH in response to hypocalcemia.
21. What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction - splits to contribute to the rectus sheath - contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon - and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle of the sperm
Penicillamine - EDTA (calcium disodium edetate) - or dimercaprol
Internal abdominal oblique
Autosomal recessive
With an increased depth of breathing both the total and alveolar ventilation increase. This concept is always tested on the boards - so remember it.
22. What disease is X- linked recessive - is associated with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections - involves a decrease in serum IgM and in the T cell - dependent paracortical areas of the lymph nodes - and m
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
The cat
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome
Areas 41 and 42
23. What are the four posttranslational modifications done by the Golgi apparatus?
They are directly related; the greater the preload - the greater the passive tension in the muscle and the greater the prestretch of a sarcomere.
GLUT 2
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino acids
24. What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis should or should not be rejected?
H 1
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling phase.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis
25. The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?
Closure of the aortic valve indicates the termination of the ejection phase and the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
CSF
Gubernaculum
26. What is the term for the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures?
Epidural hematoma
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta - Hypertrophy of the right ventricle - Interventricular septal defect - Pulmonary stenosis
Pulse pressure
27. What condition is characterized by a 46XY karyotype - testes present - and ambiguous or female external genitalia?
Swan - neck deformities
Adjustment disorder. It is a diagnosis of exclusion (used if no other choice).
cDNA - when it is made from mRNA
Male pseudohermaphrodite (dude looks like a lady!)
28. Damage to what nerve will give you winged scapula?
Nominal scale (categorical - e.g. - male or female)
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery.
Lead poisoning
PCR
29. What is the most common one? - Tumor arising within the bone
Multiple myeloma
Prostate and lung cancer - respectively
Fibrinous exudates
EF-2 and GTP
30. What is the most common one? - Site of ischemia in the GI tract
Parafollicular C cells
Erythromycin
Splenic flexure
Aldosterone
31. At What age does a child develop x Endogenous smile?
Preoperational (2-6 years)
At birth (reflex)
Paramyxovirus
The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.
32. Name the associated chromosome - Tay- Sachs disease
Chromosome 15q
Basal cell carcinoma
No enzymes are needed. When the stop codon reaches the A site - it results in termination.
Sadism
33. What are the three stimuli that result in the reninangiotensin - aldosterone secretion?
Conversion disorder
1. Low pressure in the afferent renal arteriole 2. Low sodium sensed by the macula densa 3. Increased Beta-1- sympathetic stimulation of the JG cells
Fructose; both glucose and galactose are actively absorbed via secondary active transport.
Burkitt lymphoma
34. Name the end product or products: x Fatty acid synthesis
Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)
Poststreptococcal GN
Mercury
almitate
35. Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?
M 2
2% of population - 2 cm long - 2 feet from ileocecal valve - 2 years old - and 2% of carcinoid tumors
The systemic veins have the largest blood volume - and the pulmonary veins have the second largest blood volume in the cardiovascular system. They represent the reservoirs of circulation.
Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to membrane thickness and is directly proportional to membranes surface area.
36. What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon and rectum?
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37. What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon xanthomas?
Lithium
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Reye syndrome
38. What are the four capsular polysaccharides used in the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?
Retinoblastoma
Y - W-135 - and C and A capsular polysaccharides
S phase
Regardless of the rate of infusion - it takes 4 to 5 half - lives to reach steady state.
39. Which hepatitis B serology markers
SER
The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.
Phase II
HBsAb IgG
40. Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties - IgG or IgM Abs against a specific target cell or tissue; complement - dependent or ADCC.
Down syndrome
Glutamate
Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)
Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted
41. Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties - Reaction - mediated by sensitized T- cells
Pregnancy
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell - mediated)
Gout
Chi - square (when you are in doubt and have nominal data - use chi - square)
42. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Aromatic amines and azo dyes
Left coronary artery
Clonidine
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Sensitivity (it deals with the sick)
43. What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase?
Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.
The CD4 T cell; the APC is the first cell in the immune response.
Subatmospheric pressure acts to expand the lung; positive pressure acts to collapse the lung.
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
44. What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? - Corpus cavernosus - corpus spongiosum - and glans and body of the penis
Superficial spreading melanoma
Phallus
Glutamate
Arginine
45. Name the most common type or cause - Erysipelas
The central vein of the liver lobule
S phase
Streptococcus pyogenes
Protease - integrase - and reverse transcriptase
46. Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca 2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
Adhesions and hernias
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed - type hypersensitivity (type IV)
Proencephalon
47. What is the main inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
Lead
Trichophyton
Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
Macule (e.g. - a freckle)
48. Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties - IgE- mediated release of chemical mediators from basophils and mast cells; need prior exposure to Ag in the past; eosinophils amplify and continue reaction; can be system
Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)
Eosin
Metronidazole
Renshaw neuron
49. What is the primary risk factor for suicide?
H1 histones
Previous suicide attempt
Patent urachus
Interval scale (a ruler - for example)
50. What form of depression is due to abnormal metabolism of melatonin?
Goodpasture disease
Enterokinase
Paget disease (osteitis deformans)
Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light therapy)