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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Which IV agent has the lowest incidence of postoperative emesis and has the fastest rate of recovery?
If positive - hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300 mOsm/L); if negative - hypertonic urine (osmolarity > 300 mOsm/L)>>
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Propofol
Clofazimine
2. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: x Everything in the world is perceived as either good or bad . No middle ground; it is all extremes.
42 L - 67% of body weight
Splitting
Edinger - Westphal nucleus (via CN III)
Fovea
3. What is the term for different classes and subclasses of the same gene products?
Osteocyte
The respiratory system
Volkmann's contracture
Isotypes
4. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - Histamine
Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex
Histidine
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Pyloric stenosis
5. Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only inside HBV- infected cells?
Hepatitis D
Thiazide diuretics
Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high - step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.
Hormone - sensitive lipase - Which breaks down triglyceride into glycerol and free fatty acid
6. What are the three C's of a TCAD overdose?
Coma - convulsions - and cardiotoxicity
Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
Fovea
S phase
7. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x CA-19.9 and CEA
Chi - square (when you are in doubt and have nominal data - use chi - square)
Pancreatic cancer
Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome
Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via increasing potassium conductance - taking longer to reach threshold and slowing the rate of firing.
8. What is the most common serotype of enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli?
2 NADPHs per acetyl CoA
0157:H7
Menstruation
Copper (Cu+)
9. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x The maximal volume inspired from FRC
Osteoclasts
Neuroblastoma
Inspiratory capacity
Internal carotid artery
10. What reflex - seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract - is an extension of the great toe with fanning the of remaining toes?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion to occur.
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse - hyperreflexia - spastic paralysis - increased muscle tone - and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.
11. In prokaryotes - What is the term for a set of structural genes that code for a select group of proteins and the regulatory elements required for the expression of such gene?
Rotavirus
Operon
Left anterior descending artery
Permanent
12. What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? - McArdle's disease
Fragile X syndrome
Niemann - Pick disease
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also - but it is not a sphingolipid)
Muscle glycogen phosphorylase
13. What agent antagonizes the effects of heparin?
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.
Protamine sulfate
Chloral hydrate
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest acting.
14. What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the rest of the body?
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
Stage 4
Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four times the general population.
Estrogens are 18- carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.)
15. Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: x Lesion is in the parietal lobe or arcuate fibers because the connection between Broca's and Wernicke's area is severed; word comprehension preserved; inability to write or speak the statement (can't
In the mouth with salivary a - amylase (ptyalin)
Diphenhydramine
Conduction aphasia
1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius
16. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Grey baby syndrome
Gain of isotonic fluid (isotonic saline)
Aged adult
When the intra - alveolar pressure equals zero - there is no airflow.
Chloramphenicol
17. Is Dubin - Johnson or Rotor syndrome associated with black pigmentation of the liver?
Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia - but Dubin - Johnson syndrome is differentiated from Rotor by the black pigmentation of the liver.
Mesencephalon
CN X (Remember - the vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic information from the tip of the pharynx to the end of the midgut and all between.)
Chromosome 15q
18. What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis should or should not be rejected?
catalase - negative
Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of possibilities for the answers are projective.
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion to occur.
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis
19. What size ribosomes do fungi have?
80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)
Water soluble
Rabies
EBV infections resulting in infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the Monospot test. (Remember - it may be negative in the first week of the illness - so retest if you have a high index of suspicion.)
20. Which benzodiazepine has the longest half - life?
Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus toxin)
Flurazepam
5' deiodinase
Pregnancy
21. What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? - Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
PTH increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT of the kidney and decreases PO4- reabsorption in the PCT.
CN III - VII - IX - and X
NE
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells - so it is considered the thymic - dependent area.
22. What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR - RPF - FF - and glomerular capillary pressure? - GFR ? - RPF ? - FF ? - capillary pressure ?
Constriction of efferent arteriole
Ulnar to radial progression
Melanin
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta - Hypertrophy of the right ventricle - Interventricular septal defect - Pulmonary stenosis
23. What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior olivary nuclei on the contralateral side of the body?
Pneumothorax
7 years old
Climbing fibers; - they are monosynaptic input on Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers - also excitatory - are axons of all other sources and synapse on granule cells.
Trypsin
24. What is the primary predisposing factor for vascular dementia?
1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation
Hypertension
Ovarian cancer
Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig levels.
25. What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? - Loss of flexion of the knee and all function below the knee - weakened extension of the thigh
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm
1. Lowers surface tension - so it decreases recoil and increases compliance 2. Reduces capillary filtration 3. Promotes stability in small alveoli by lowering surface tension
Sciatic nerve
1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e. - porphyrin and heme synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency 4. Lead poisoning
26. Are hydrolysis - oxidation - and reduction phase I or II biotransformations?
Melatonin. It is a light - sensitive hormone that is associated with sleepiness.
Phase I
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Internal carotid artery
27. Name the B- cell CD marker: x Required for class switching signals from T cells
CD40
Superior
Resistance decreases as resistors are added in parallel.
Succinyl CoA synthetase
28. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Cribriform plate
emancipates
CN I
Primary spermatocyte
>10 mm
29. The DSM- IV- TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In What axis would you place x Medical or physical ailments?
Axis III
Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.
2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
Transcortical aphasia
30. What is the most common one? - Renal cell cancer type
Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here result in obesity.
Bisphosphonates
Clear cell
Site 2
31. What three bacteria are positive to quellung reactive test?
Gradient - time system
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Chloramphenicol
Arsenic - thorotrast - and vinyl chloride
32. Which carcinoma
Trypsin
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis B and C infections - not with EBV.
Fo/F1 complex
Ribonucleotide reductase
33. What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?
Virchow triad - associated with the formation of a thrombus.
Posterior interventricular artery
4 years old
Laminin
34. What virus is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb
JC virus
Hyperpolarization (i.e. - K+ influx)
Eosin
35. What spirochete is responsible for Lyme disease?
Paranoid
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
Loss of hypotonic fluid (alcohol - diabetes insipidus - dehydration)
Borrelia burgdorferi
36. Name the period described by the following statement: no matter how strong a stimulus is - no further action potentials can be stimulated.
Both
Absolute refractory period is due to voltage inactivation of sodium channels.
Nephrotoxicity
GP Ib
37. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Paclitaxel
Mitosis
Bernard - Soulier syndrome
Ewing sarcoma
Megaloblasts
38. Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?
M 2
Impaired ejaculation
F- Met - Peptides
C wave
39. What judgment states that the decision - by rights of autonomy and privacy - belongs to the patient - but if the patient is incompetent to decide - the medical decision is based on subjective wishes?
Xenograft
Arginine
Substituted judgment. It is made by the person who best knows the patient - not the closest relative.
Site 2
40. If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or insertion of a chest tube - do you use the inferior or the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why?
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)
The superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is your landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border of each rib is the neurovascular bundle - and you would risk injury if you went below the rib.
IgG3
Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the lesion.
41. What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
K1 capsule
Ligament of Treitz
Pseudogout
42. What AA undergoes N- glycosylation?
GP120
Chronic end - stage renal disease
MI
Asparagine
43. Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: x Use of explanations to justify unacceptable behaviors.
NH4+(ammonium)
C3 - C4 - and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!
Hematogenous
Rationalization
44. What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and sinus reflexes?
CN IX and X
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
Acute CO poisoning
45. What is the rate - limiting step in the synthetic pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve terminal?
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
Rifampin
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also - but it is not a sphingolipid)
Nitroprusside
46. Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in...
Hepatitis D
reflexes
Demeclocycline
env structural protein
47. What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?
Endometrial cancer
Brucella
Demeclocycline
Thyroid gland
48. Name the most common type or cause - Chancre
Haemophilus ducreyi
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases
Glycogen phosphorylase
Glioblastoma multiforme
49. Name the RNA subtype based on the following: x The most abundant form of RNA in the cell
Congenital heart disease
CSF H+ levels - with acidosis being the main central drive - resulting in hyperventilation (the opposite being true with alkalosis)
rRNA
Lithium
50. What is the rate - limiting step of the following? - Fatty acid synthesis
Serotonergic crisis may be precipitated when an SSRI is mixed with MAOIs - TCADs - dextromethorphan - and meperidine. Treat it with cyproheptadine.
Brain - spleen - and kidney
The Beta- subunit; remember - the a - subunit is nonspecific.
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Sorry!:) No result found.
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