Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What four factors shift the Hgb - O2 dissociation curve to the right? What is the consequence of this shift?
Respiratory depression
Fluconazole
6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates per glucose are produced - and 2 NADHs result from production of acetyl CoA - so 6 ATPs)
Increased CO2 - H+ - temperature - and 2 - 3- BPG levels all shift the curve to the right - thereby making the O2 easier to remove (decreased affinity) from the Hgb molecule.

2. What malignant bone tumor is associated with familial retinoblastoma?
Osteosarcoma
Phase 0
Peyer's patch
RNA polymerase III

3. What two AAs have a pKa of 10?
Primary hypocortisolism (Addison's disease)
N- Acetylcysteine
Lysine and tyrosine
Bactericidal

4. What is the rate - limiting step of the following? - Ketogenolysis
100%; the percentage of blood flow through the pulmonary and systemic circulations are equal.
Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise deterioration in cognitive function.
HMG CoA synthase
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember - for major articulations - wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)

5. What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase?
Massive influx of calcium
1. Increased glucose uptake by fat cells 2. Increased triglyceride uptake by fat cells 3. Increased conversion of CHOs into fat 4. Decreased lipolysis in fat tissue 5. Decreased ketone body formation
Schistosoma haematobium
PKU

6. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Hemolytic anemia
Opsonization
Testicular tumors
Nitrofurantoin
Hepatitis A (infectious)

7. What is the most common one? - Lymph node affected in non - Hodgkin lymphoma
Aortic insufficiency
Gout
Monocytosis
Periaortic lymph nodes

8. Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?
Middle
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
They are in ganglia in the PNS.
Orbitomedial frontal lobe

9. What is the most common one? - Cardiac anomaly in children
PDA
Serum 25- hydroxy- vitamin D (25- OH- D)
C5- C8 deficiency
Renin secretion

10. What substance is used to test platelets' response in patients with von Willebrand disease?
Empyema
Ristocetin
Risperidone
Hypoventilation - which increases CO2 - shifting the reaction to the right and increasing H+

11. When more than one explanation can account for the end result - what form of bias occurs?
Embolic
Positive predictive value
Confounding bias
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)

12. What cell type in the bone is responsible for bone deposition?
Osteoblast (Remember - blasts make - clasts take)
Look for broken blood vessels in the baby's eyes.
Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent cells as the name states - do not proliferate.)
Iron deficiency anemia

13. What type of healing occurs in a clean surgical incision?
AT II
p -53
Major
Primary intention

14. What is the function of the cerebellum?
Planning and fine - tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember - the function of the basal ganglia is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.
IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is for Lymphoid)
CD16 and CD56
Rapid efflux of potassium

15. What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?
Stretch receptors prevent overdistension of the lungs during inspiration.
Estrogen use
Glucocorticoids and amphetamines
Tropomyosin

16. What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? - Slow - growing acoustic neuroma producing CN VII deficiencies
Hydroxyapatite
Escherichia coli
Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition - the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a decreased level of cortical excitation.
Pontocerebellar angle syndrome

17. What are the three polymorphonuclear leukocytes? Be specific.
Neutrophils - eosinophils - and basophils
A gene (a rather simple definition but accurate)
CD40
CD4+T cells

18. What cells of the retina see in black and white and are used for night vision?
reflexes
Correlation. No - correlation does not imply causation.
Rods
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. Microvilli (600 times)

19. What subtype of IgG does not bind to staphylococcal A protein?
ATP production
IgG3
Elevated ASO titers and serum complement levels
ACL

20. What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?
Chordae tendineae
Skeletal muscles
Lateral part of the hemispheres
Squamous cell carcinoma

21. What TCAD causes sudden cardiac death in children?
Pompe's disease
Desipramine
Gap junctions
Ovarian cancer

22. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x Volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
greater

23. What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be characterized by Kayser - Fleischer rings - decreased ceruloplasmin levels - and increased urinary copper excretion and tissue copper levels?
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
2 ATPs - because RBCs use only anaerobic metabolism.
Wilson disease. (Remember - patients commonly present with psychiatric manifestations and movement disorders but may be asymptomatic.)
Live vaccines

24. Is CO2 a perfusion - or diffusion - limited O2 gas?
Vitamin D3
Since CO2 is 24 times as soluble as O2 - the rate at which CO2 is brought to the membrane determines its rate of exchange - making it perfusion - limited a gas. For O2 the more time it is in contact with the membrane - the more likely it will diffuse
Ciliary ganglion
IgG4

25. Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: x Found in most tissues - including brain and RBCs
GLUT 3 and 4
Short - chain fatty acids
Uracil
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep - deprived individuals.

26. What is the only Ig that crosses the placenta?
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland release PTH in response to hypocalcemia.
Stable
IgG
Spironolactone

27. What acid form of H+ in the urine cannot be titrated?
Teratoma (dermoid cyst)
Lateral collateral ligament
NH4+(ammonium)
Metronidazole

28. What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.
Osteoblasts - which in turn stimulate osteoclasts to break down bone - releasing Ca2+ into the interstitium. (Remember - blasts make - clasts take.)
Cryptococcus neoformans
Microvillus

29. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Left subclavian artery
Superior
Pantothenic acid
Hepatitis C
Appendix (second is terminal ileum)

30. What is the most common form of dementia?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

31. What are the three platelet aggregating factors?
1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2
Superior
Superior
HHV 8

32. What five things are checked in the APGAR test?
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T- cell lymphoma)
1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR - Appearance - Pulse - Grimace - Activity - Respiration
EF- Tu and EF- Ts of the 30S ribosomal subunit

33. What chromosome codes for HLA gene products?
Mitral stenosis
It normally does not play a role in filtration but becomes important when there is an obstruction downstream.
The short arm of chromosome 6
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)

34. Mandibular hypoplasia - down - slanted palpebral fissures - colobomas - malformed ears - and zygomatic hypoplasia are commonly seen In what pharyngeal arch 1 abnormality?
Treacher Collins syndrome
The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly in the first half of sleep.
28 L - 40% of body weight
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increase in cardiac output - resulting in a minimal change in BP.

35. What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon and rectum?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

36. Name the DNA virus: x Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus
Adenovirus
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)
The secretory phase is progesterone - dependent and 14 days long - whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
Aspiration pneumonia

37. What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? - Ovarian and round ligaments
C- peptide levels
Glucose and galactose
T cells - B cells - and macrophages
Gubernaculum

38. When a patient closes the eyes while standing with feet together - the visual and cerebellar components of proprioception are removed - so you are testing the dorsal columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a positive Romberg's sign indicating a lesion i
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together
C1 inhibitor (C1- INH)
Cholera toxin
There would be two Fab and Fc regions.

39. What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Pairing noxious stimuli to an inappropriate behavior?
Alveolar dead space
Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Aversive conditioning
Medial nuclear group (limbic system)

40. Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? - Recovery from injury
The one start codon - AUG - in eukaryotes codes for methionine and in prokaryotes formylmethionine.
Coagulative
Positive
Minocycline

41. Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? - Nails and skin only
Epidermophyton
Fever - night sweats - and hemoptysis
Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery
Insulin increases intracellular K+ stores while decreasing serum K+ levels.

42. Multiple pregnancies - early age of intercourse - multiple sexual partners - OCP use - smoking - HIV - and STDs.
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a substance is equal - the substance is freely filtered by the kidney.
Risk factors for cervical cancer
38 ATPs if aerobic - 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2 ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)
Chromosome 22q

43. What is the most likely causative organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
Superior and middle
Antidigoxin Fab fragments

44. What is the most common one? - Organ involved in amyloidosis
Th2
Being awake
Kidney
Zafirlukast

45. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Carotid canal
Vaginismus; it is the female counterpart of premature ejaculation.
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
Methanol
Ventral lateral nucleus

46. What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze the substrate - level phosphorylations?
Decreasing potassium conductance - which results in increased excitability
Clear cell
Chromosome 7
3- Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)

47. Name the T- cell CD marker: x Interacts with MHC class II molecules
The oncotic pressure of plasma promotes reabsorption and is directly proportional to the filtration fraction.
21-Beta- Hydroxylase deficiency leads to hypotension - hyponatremia - and virilization.
Herpes I
CD4

48. With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure - what happens to x Stroke volume?
Nasal polyps - rhinitis - and aspirin hypersensitivity
Decreases
Frontal lobe
Aversive conditioning

49. A Japanese man has weight loss - anorexia - early satiety - epigastric abdominal pain - and a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node. On endoscopy you find a large - irregular ulcer with elevated margins on the lesser curvature of the stomach. What
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium - phosphorus - and alkaline phosphatase.
Secondary hypocortisolism (pituitary)
Waldeyer's ring
Gastric carcinoma

50. The opening of what valve indicates the beginning of the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle?
Capillaries
Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal
Superior
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.