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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA- B27- positive young females and presents with the triad of conjunctivitis - urethritis - and arthritis affecting the knees and ankles?
Reiter syndrome
Carbamazepine
FSH
Flow cytometric analysis

2. What vessels have the largest total cross - sectional area in systemic circulation?
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Chromosome 20q (deficiency in adenosine deaminase)
Capillaries
Actually - yes. You should encourage your patient to try other forms of medicine as long as they are not contraindicated with the patient's preexisting illness. You must be able to accept the health beliefs of your patients - even if you don't agree.

3. What viral infection is known to cause intracerebral calcifications?
Eosinophilic exudates
CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite.
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase.
Positive

4. What two AAs act as excitatory transmitters in the CNS - generating EPSPs?
Glutamine and aspartate
IgA nephropathy
Vimentin
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)

5. In the classical conditioning model - when a behavior is learned - what must occur to break the probability that a response will happen?
Metformin
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)
Beryllium

6. Influenza - Vibrio cholera - hepatitis A - rabies - and adenovirus.
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower water concentrations.
Being awake
Are inactivated vaccines available in the United States
Down syndrome

7. What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand as its sign?
Median nerve lesion
CD28
Splenic flexure
Lesch - Nyhan syndrome

8. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Controls balance and eye movements?
Reverse transcription
Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all of medicine!)
Myasthenia gravis
Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers (median toxic dose)

9. What is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with CLL?
Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL have abnormal karyotypes.)
Glucokinase
1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater
Liver (hepatocytes)

10. If the P value is less than or equal to .05 - What do you do to the null hypothesis?
HBeAb
Reject it
Glycogen phosphorylase
Truncus arteriosus

11. What is the most common one? - Site for an ectopic abdominal pregnancy
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)
Xanthine oxidase
Water soluble
The rectouterine pouch (of Douglas)

12. What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?
Rotavirus
Ribonucleotide reductase
Common and internal carotid arteries
CD40

13. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: x Alpha waves
Immature B cells
Budd - Chiari syndrome
Being awake
0.2

14. What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?
Pompe's disease
Ethyl alcohol
Bacillus anthracis
EBV infections resulting in infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the Monospot test. (Remember - it may be negative in the first week of the illness - so retest if you have a high index of suspicion.)

15. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meio
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver - it results in hepatomegaly.
Ependymoma
Pneumococcus
Fungi

16. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Nitrosamines
Homocysteine methyl transferase
Increases
Gastric cancer
NADPH oxidase is deficient - resulting in an inability to produce toxic metabolites.

17. What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur - humerus - and tibia?
Ependymoma
H 1
Hyperkalemia
Caisson disease

18. What is the most common one? - Primary CNS tumor
Atropine and 2- PAM (pralidoxime)
Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise deterioration in cognitive function.
Potter facies
Glioblastoma multiforme

19. What component of the inner ear x Contains perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of the head?
It forms a germinal tube at 37
Semicircular canal
Class III
Squamous cell carcinoma

20. What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?
Operon
Punishment
Beryllium
Terminal bronchioles. (No gas exchange occurs here.)

21. What enzyme catalyzes the rate - limiting step in fatty acid oxidation?
Berry aneurysm
Schizoid
Mitochondria - linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.
Carnitine acyltransferase - I

22. What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE- mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
EBV
Fragile X syndrome

23. Shuffling gait - cogwheel rigidity - masklike facies - pill - rolling tremor - and bradykinesia describe what form of dementia?

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24. What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as x Autoantibodies directed against platelet integrin?
Neisseria gonorrhea (history of STD in patient with monoarticular infectious arthritis: think gonococcus)
Parvovirus B-19
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
Glucose -6- phosphatase

25. What AD syndrome produces hamartomatous polyps in the small intestine and pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa?
Surface tension; in the alveoli - it is a force that acts to collapse the lung.
Peutz - Jeghers syndrome
Cocaine - induced coronary ischemia
B lymphocyte

26. What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? - Aerospace industry - nuclear reactors
Mesonephric duct
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'- deiodinase enzyme)
Berylliosis
Voltage - gated sodium channel

27. What is the rate - limiting step in the synthetic pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve terminal?
Vitreous humor
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Zero - order elimination

28. All AAs have titration plateaus At what pH values?
Liver - kidneys - and pituitary gland via 5' deiodinase enzyme
3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
pH of 2 and 9
Malassezia furfur (treat with selenium sulfide)

29. What organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice?
de Quervain thyroiditis
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)
They are inversely proportional to each other; as pulse pressure increases - compliance decreases.
Bacillus cereus

30. What nerve and artery could be affected in a midshaft humeral fracture?
Spermatogonia (type A)
Insulin
G2 phase (gap 2)
Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery

31. What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry- red spots on the retina?
Niemann - Pick and Tay- Sachs diseases
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
The fasciculus cuneatus
Shortens

32. What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is priapism?
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Chlortetracycline
Unconjugated free bilirubin
Trazodone

33. What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?
CD4+T cells
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
Nephrotoxic oxylate stones
wave

34. What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick - weak bones and is associated with high - output cardiac failure?
Paget disease (osteitis deformans)
Spectinomycin
Thymus - independent Ags
Metronidazole

35. What cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated in response to hypercalcemia?
The internal laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information from above the vocal cords while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information below.
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.
NO!! Remember - only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia.

36. Name the type of graft described by these transplants: x From one site to another on the same person
Autograft
NADPH and molecular O 2
Endometriosis
Medial umbilical ligaments

37. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Cartilage abnormalities
Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an efferent pupillary defect (CN III) - B/L constrict when light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the affected eye.
Stable angina
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
Quinolones

38. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Midbrain
Mesencephalon
Plasma concentration and excretion rate
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused.
2 ATPs - via the amino acyl tRNA synthase enzyme

39. In prokaryotes - What is the term for a set of structural genes that code for a select group of proteins and the regulatory elements required for the expression of such gene?
Achalasia
Ganciclovir
Operon
Primary spermatocyte

40. What form of estrogen is of placental origin?
Estriol
Sinus venosus
Ristocetin
Hapten (not immunogenic)

41. What cardiomyopathy is due to a ventricular outflow obstruction as a result of septal hypertrophy and leads to sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic subaortic stenosis - or IHSS)
Vitamin E
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T- cell lymphoma)
Glutamate dehydrogenase

42. What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
Amiloride
Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)
EF- Tu and EF- Ts of the 30S ribosomal subunit
Compulsions. They are actions done to fix the bad thoughts. Obsessions are the thoughts.

43. Blue - domed cysts
Squamous cell carcinoma
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Left colic - superior rectal - and sigmoidal arteries
Hypotonic - because NaCl is reabsorbed in the salivary ducts

44. What agent is used IM to treat acute dystonias?
Diphenhydramine
Complex 4
Reaction formation
Lymph nodes

45. What is the DOC for hyperprolactinemia?
Radial nerve
HMP shunt
Autism. Head - banging - rocking - and self - injurious behaviors are also common in autism.
Pergolide

46. Name the macrophages by location: x Liver
Kupffer cells
Shortens
Compliance; the more compliant a lung is - the easier it is to inflate.
Thiamine

47. Fixing impulses by acting out the opposite of an unacceptable behavior
Group A Beta- hemolytic streptococci
Capillary flow and pressure increase with arteriolar dilation and decrease with arteriolar constriction.
Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an efferent pupillary defect (CN III) - B/L constrict when light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the affected eye.
Undoing

48. From What embryonic structure are the following structures derived? - The right and left atria
A decrease in Ca2+ and an increase in PO4
Seven - eighths of nephrons are cortical - with the remainder juxtamedullary.
Tylosis
Primitive atrium

49. What encephalopathy causes ocular palsies - confusion - and gait abnormalities related to a lesion in the mammillary bodies and/or the dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus?

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50. What is the most common one? - Primary tumor metastasis to the bone
Semipermeable membrane; a selectively permeable membrane allows both water and small solutes to pass through its membrane.
C3a - C4a - C5a
Lactulose
Breast