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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
GP120
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together

2. Name the cluster C personality disorder: x Sensitive to criticism - shy - anxious; socially isolated but yearns to be in the crowd
Double - blind study. It is the most scientifically rigorous study known.
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.
Avoidant
Glucocerebrosidase

3. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - CO
Cytochrome a/a3
Cortisol
Follicular lymphoma
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.

4. Name the four right - to - left congenital cardiac shunts.
Pons
Latissimus dorsi
Mitochondrial inheritance
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T

5. Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects - symptoms - and results of the lesion - Dysphoria - irritability - musical and visual abilities decreased
Nondominant temporal lobe
Thick skin
Lateral collateral ligament
well - fed and fasting

6. What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? - Giardiasis
1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin
Metronidazole
HBsAg (incubation period)
Stratum lucidum

7. What hormone controls relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter during swallowing?
Leydig cell tumor
Inactivated
Blocking
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.

8. What bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis?
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors
Clostridium botulinum
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)
Stage 4

9. Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? - Kwashiorkor
Negative
Osteoporosis
The tsetse fly
Measles (rubeola)

10. What bone houses the ulnar groove?
During stage 3 and 4 (remember - it is called deep sleep.)
Occipital lobe
Chromosome 6
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)

11. What is the most common one? - Cardiac tumor
2 to 4 hours
Areas 18 and 19
CLL (B- cell origin)
Left atrial myxoma

12. What type of drug elimination is characterized by the following? - Elimination independent of plasma concentration; constant amount eliminated per unit time; no fixed half - life
CD19
Zero - order elimination
Hemosiderin
PICA

13. Initiates rhythmic contractions associated with labor.
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies - indicating high protein synthesis.
Leydig cell tumor
Oxytocin
DNA polymerases

14. What is the primary target for the action of glucagon?
Imipenem and meropenem
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Liver (hepatocytes)

15. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Extend the hip and flex the knee
Hormone secretion for T- cell differentiation and T- cell education to recognize self from nonself
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve
Increased pulmonary arterial pressure (high perfusion) and more distensible vessels (low resistance) result in increased blood flow at the base.
Cytochrome a/a3

16. What is the order of attachment of O2 to Hgb - binding sites in the lung? Order of release from the binding sites in the tissue?
The resistance increases 16- fold.
Liver - kidneys - and pituitary gland via 5' deiodinase enzyme
Pseudomembranous exudates
Order of attachment is site 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - and for release is 4 - 3 - 2 - 1.

17. What skin condition is a localized proliferation of melanocytes presenting as small - oval - light brown macules?
Coxsackie A
Benign lentigo
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)
Cryptococcus

18. What is the most common one? - Joint affected in pseudogout
Parasites
Major
Knee
Blood clots

19. What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?
Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)
Eosin
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
The granule cell is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex - and it uses glutamate as its neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the cerebellum are inhibitory neurons - and they use GABA as their neurotransmitter.

20. ADH is secreted in response to What two stimuli?
Scavenger receptor (SR- B1)
Chlamydia trachomatis
Histidine - because of the imidazole ring found in the R group - is basic.
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity and decreased blood volume.

21. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x The maximal volume inspired from FRC
Inspiratory capacity
F- Met - Peptides
tRNA
Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase

22. What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes pepsinogen?
Chief cells
Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs most often in the first third of sleep.
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
Extinction

23. What type of Plasmodium affects x Only mature RBCs?
DNA polymerase I
Plasmodium malariae
Flea - bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
Amanita phalloides

24. Name the most common type or cause - Viral pneumonia leading to death
RSV
Endometriosis
Rigors - leukopenia - decrease in blood pressure - and increase in temperature
Intussusception

25. Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: x Always open
Familial polyposis coli
de Quervain thyroiditis
Somatomedins (IGF-1)
Ungated potassium channel

26. What cytokine do CD4 T cells secrete to activate B cells when the specific peptide in the groove of the MHC II molecule interacts with the TCR?
Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4
Adenine and guanine
IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the second step in the immune response - known as Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF- alpha to activate macrophages
Lumbar splanchnics

27. Name the ocular lesion; be specific - A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)
Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. Remember it like this:- ili - in ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Plasmodium falciparum
HDL

28. What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon xanthomas?
Cytochrome c
Pituitary hypogonadism
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Beryllium

29. What are the two broad - spectrum penicillins?
Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four times the general population.
Sporothrix schenckii
Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal
Ampicillin and amoxicillin

30. Name the associated chromosome - Tay- Sachs disease
Chromosome 15q
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
Escherichia coli
Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome)

31. What hematologic agent is used in the treatment of intermittent claudication because it decreases blood viscosity and increases RBC membrane flexibility and stability?
Pentoxifylline
Folic acid deficiency
Week four - and they remain dormant there until puberty.
Stages 3 and 4 (NREM)

32. What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and sinus reflexes?
Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type - DAT). (Remember - Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of dementias seen in patients 65 years old.)
Pantothenic acid
CN IX and X
Head of the pancreas

33. What type of jaundice is seen in Rotor's syndrome?
Gaucher disease
<2
Ribozymes
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia

34. What is the most common site for an aneurysm in cerebral circulation?
Alkaline phosphatase
eIF-2 in the P site
Class IV
The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands - it compresses the fibers from the upper temporal fields of the optic chiasm - producing bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia

35. In What trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?
The first trimester
Invariant chain. This is essential because the CD4 T cells have antigen receptors only for peptides bound to the MHC II molecule. (MHC restriction)
HMG- CoA reductase
Prostatic carcinoma

36. What is the most common form of dementia?

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37. What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?
Turcot syndrome
IgM
O2 has a higher driving force but is only one - twenty- fourth as soluble as CO2. CO 2 has a very small partial pressure difference across the alveolar membrane (47-40 = 7 mmHg) - but it is extremely soluble and therefore diffuses readily across the
Calicivirus

38. Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? - Red pigmentation
Tibial nerve
Nodular sclerosis
Serratia
Chromosome 19

39. What antitubercular agent causes loss of red - green visual discrimination?
CHF - cirrhosis - and nephrosis
Orotic acid (purine metabolism)
Secondary hyperthyroidism (Increased TSH results in increased T4 production and increased negative feedback on to hypothalamus and decreased release of TRH.)
Ethambutol

40. What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is innervated by CN V3?
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.
HBeAg
Order of attachment is site 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - and for release is 4 - 3 - 2 - 1.
It forms a germinal tube at 37

41. Which serotypes of HPV are associated with plantar warts?
Candida
Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO 4- concentrations - whereas resorption (breakdown) is increased when there are low levels of Ca2+ or PO4-.
Carbamazepine
HPV serotypes 1 and 4

42. What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle cell anemia who take hydroxyurea?
Staphylococcus aureus
Asparagine
Hgb F
Collecting ducts - which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption.

43. What type of collagen is associated with the basement membrane?
Type IV collagen
Southern blot
Fructose; both glucose and galactose are actively absorbed via secondary active transport.
PPRF

44. What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase - massive organomegaly - zebra bodies - and foamy histiocytes and is associated with chromosome 11p?
Copper deficiency
Niemann - Pick disease
Carbonic anhydrase
Fever - night sweats - and hemoptysis

45. What is the costliest health care problem in the United States?
N- Acetylcysteine
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country approximately $100 billion a year.
Spearman correlation
Latency stage (6-12 years)

46. What muscles in the hand adduct the fingers?
Lateral part of the hemispheres
The Palmar interosseus ADducts - whereas the Dorsal interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB)
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g. - cheese - dried fish - sauerkraut - chocolate - avocados - and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
Psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel disease - and Reiter's syndrome

47. In the classical conditioning model - when a behavior is learned - what must occur to break the probability that a response will happen?
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)
Suppression
Negative
Lateral collateral ligament

48. Marriage ______ a child less than 17 years old.
H1 histones
ACh
Rhinovirus
emancipates

49. What is the most common one? - Route of spread in pyogenic osteomyelitis
Dilation of efferent arteriole
The mouth
MGB (think EARS)
Hematogenous

50. What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick - weak bones and is associated with high - output cardiac failure?
Paget disease (osteitis deformans)
Proencephalon
Herpes virus
Teratoma