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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What form of the Plasmodium species is ingested by mosquitoes?
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen production.
Malignant mesothelioma
Gametocytes
Stereocilia

2. What two CD cell surface markers do Reed - Sternberg cells stain positive for?
Adult polycystic kidney disease
Cerebral aqueduct
CD15 and CD30
H 1

3. Name the associated chromosome - Niemann - Pick disease
Chromosome 11p
B lymphocyte
ACTH
Hereditary spherocytosis

4. What is the rate - limiting step of the following? - Beta- Oxidation
Pulmonary infections
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Carnitine acyltransferase I
snRNA

5. What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as x Autoantibodies directed against RBC Ag I?
Nystagmus and ataxia
C5a
Argyll Robertson pupils
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

6. What virus is associated with body cavity large B- cell lymphomas?
antiemetic
Adipose tissue
Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X
HHV-8

7. Which acid - fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite?
Mycobacterium leprae
Hypoglycemia for secretion and hyperglycemia for inhibition
Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
Combined metabolic and respiratory acidosis

8. How does ventricular repolarization take place - base to apex or vice versa?
Repolarization is from base to apex and from epicardium to endocardium.
Eclipse period
The rate of infusion
Foramen of Monro

9. What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?
Posterior cruciate ligament
Sphingosine
Prevalence increases. (Remember - prevalence can decrease in only two ways - recovery and death.)
C1 inhibitor (C1- INH)

10. What AR CNS disorder presents early in childhood with gait ataxia - loss of deep tendon reflexes - impaired vibratory sensation - hand clumsiness - and loss of position sense?
Friedreich ataxia
HPV serotypes 16 - 18 - 31 - and 33
Upper third skeletal muscle - middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle - and lower third smooth muscle
Resistance of the system increases. (Remember - when resistors are connected in a series - the total of the resistance is the sum of the individual resistances.)

11. What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by x Decreased total body sodium - ECF volume - plasma volume - BP - and pH; increased potassium - renin - and AT II activity; no edema?

12. What rate is indicated by 1- sensitivity?
False - negative rate
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla - Areola - and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production) - and if confronted by an APE - your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innerva
Gastric cancer
Aspartate transcarbamylase

13. What is the most common one? - Neoplastic tumor in the lungs
Removal of the ileum
Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)
Metastatic carcinomas
Tetracycline

14. Is an anti - HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recent infection?
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Anti - HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti - HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.
Mesocortical area
9.3 L - 15% of body weight

15. Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders?
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together
Mitochondria - linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
Marrow failure - cancer - and leukemia

16. What is the most common sexual assault?
Pedophilia
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)
PGE2 and PGF2a
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells - so it is considered the thymic - dependent area.

17. Is the coding or the template strand of DNA identical to mRNA (excluding the T/U difference)?
The venae recta maintain the gradient via countercurrent flow.
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during awakening - whereas hypnagogic hallucinations occur while one is falling asleep.
The coding strand is identical to mRNA - and the template strand is complementary and antiparallel.
NADPH oxidase is deficient - resulting in an inability to produce toxic metabolites.

18. What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? - Percentage of Na+ - Cl - - K+ left in the lumen
t the end of the PCT 25% of Na+ - Cl - - K+ is left
Multiple myeloma
Ischemia
The rate of infusion

19. Where is the last conducting zone of the lungs?
Dimercaprol - penicillamine
Terminal bronchioles. (No gas exchange occurs here.)
Ventral anterior nucleus
The tsetse fly

20. What are the two ways to leave the prevalence pot?
Recovery and death
Niemann - Pick disease
Aspartame
Male pseudo - intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these individuals are 46XY.

21. What are the five pieces of information considered necessary for fully informed consent?

22. What is the name of the pathway that produces leukotrienes?
Osteosarcoma
Lipoxygenase pathway - from arachidonic acid
Hematogenous
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)

23. With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure - what happens to x Heart rate?
LH
Decreases
Mild (50-70)
HTLV-1

24. What do the following values indicate? - ED50
relaxation
Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.
Effective dose for 50% of drug takers (median effective dose)
GnRH constant infusion

25. What is the most potent NMJ blocker and also has no cardiovascular side effects?
Eosinophilic exudates
Vimentin
Medial pontine syndrome
Doxacurium

26. What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?
Serum 25- hydroxy- vitamin D (25- OH- D)
Atropine and 2- PAM (pralidoxime)
Lung and bronchus cancer
Panacinar

27. What area of the small intestine is characterized by Peyer's patches?
Ileum
It decreases insulin secretion.
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember - they come out of the blue.)
Aedes mosquito

28. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: x Disappearance of alpha waves - appearance of theta waves
ACTH
Th2
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse - hyperreflexia - spastic paralysis - increased muscle tone - and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.
Stage 1

29. What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze the substrate - level phosphorylations?
Actinomyces israelii
3- Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)
Gastrin - releasing peptide (GRP) stimulates G cells to release Gastrin. (All G's)
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

30. Prevents restriction endonuclease from cutting its own chromosomes.
The urea cycle
Scrotal cancer - due to the high exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
Methylation of bacterial DNA
Papillary carcinoma

31. Which anticonvulsant can cause teratogenic craniofacial abnormalities and spina bifida?
Addition (They are mutually exclusive.)
Carbamazepine
Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the corpus callosum.
Intermediate part of the hemispheres

32. Name the RNA subtype based on the following: x The most abundant form of RNA in the cell
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
rRNA
Alzheimer disease
Hydralazine

33. What is the only NSAID that causes irreversible inhibition of the cyclooxygenase pathway?
Sj
Major basic protein
ASA
A positive AV difference indicates that a substance is extracted by the organ - and a negative difference indicates that it is produced by the organ.

34. Is marital satisfaction higher for couples with or without children?

35. What type of estrogen is produced in peripheral tissues from androgens?
There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face.
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.
Estrone
Respiratory alkalosis (summary: low CO2 - low H+ - slightly low HCO3-)

36. What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR - RPF - FF - and glomerular capillary pressure? - GFR ? - RPF ? - FF ? - capillary pressure ?
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung - esophagus - ureter - and kidney - just to Name a few.
IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the second step in the immune response - known as Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF- alpha to activate macrophages
Eosinophil chemotactic factor A
Dilation of efferent arteriole

37. Which gram - negative diplococcus grows on chocolate agar? Thayer - Martin medium?
Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar - and Gonococcus grows on Thayer - Martin medium.
Adenocarcinoma
1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein

38. What area of the retina consists of only cones and has the greatest visual acuity?
During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3- L4 - with the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark. Order of puncture: 1. Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep fascia 4. Supraspino
Arginine
It is rare with normal grief; however - it is relatively common in depression
Fovea

39. What two Beta2- agonists cause myometrial relaxation?
Ritodrine and terbutaline
The lateral vestibular nucleus
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
1. Increased synthesis and secretion of oxytocin 2. Increased release of PIF by the hypothalamus 3. Inhibition of GnRH (suppressing FSH/LH) 4. Milk secretion

40. The duodenal - jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?
Minor
Monocytosis
Ligament of Treitz
Pyelonephritis

41. Patients with _______________ have B cells in the peripheral blood.
AT II
Limbic system
common variable hypogammaglobinemia
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.

42. What are the three branches of the celiac trunk?
Urogenital sinus
Uracil
The left gastric - splenic - and common hepatic arteries
Latency stage (6-12 years)

43. What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase 8. Glucose -6- phosphatase
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Calcarine sulcus

44. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - NAD
Both Neisseria and Moraxella are gram - negative cocci.
Terminal collecting duct has the highest concentration and Bowman's capsule has the lowest concentration of inulin.
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA - UGA - UAG) code for the termination of translation.
Tryptophan

45. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with x Sacral vertebrae?
NO!! Remember - only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).
Epinephrine
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
The energy of activation (Ea)

46. Where does Beta - oxidation of very long chain fatty acids begin?
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.
Staphylococcus aureus
Levator palpebrae superioris
Terminal ileum

47. When a person goes from supine to standing - what happens to the following? - Dependent venous blood volume
Splenic flexure
Pyelonephritis
Increases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
As flow increases - the urine becomes more dilute because of decreased time for H2O reabsorption.

48. What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur - humerus - and tibia?
They block the midcycle surge of LH.
Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn - crosses over - and ascends contralateral in the spinal cord - brainstem - thalamus - and postcentral gyrus.
Caisson disease
Theca cell

49. What ocular muscle x Adducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
T cells - not B cells
Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids)

50. What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor - sensory - or both) x Dorsal rami?
Fanconi - like syndrome
Both
GLUT 2
Melasma