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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
Cystadenocarcinoma
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma
Hodgkin lymphoma
Epispadia
2. What specifies how accurately the sample values and the true values of the population lie within a given range?
Confidence interval. It is a way of admitting estimation for the population.
Spermatogonia (type A)
Muscle spindles
Repolarization is from base to apex and from epicardium to endocardium.
3. What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?
Acetoacetate - acetone - and Beta- hydroxybutyrate
Bacillus anthracis
Dendritic cells - macrophages - and thymic epithelial cells
Reaction formation
4. What hormone - stimulated by epinephrine - results in an increase in lipolysis?
Stage 1
Hormone - sensitive lipase - Which breaks down triglyceride into glycerol and free fatty acid
Major
Proencephalon
5. Goodpasture Ag is a component of What type of collagen?
hCS and serum estriol - which are produced by the fetal liver and placenta - respectively - are used as estimates of fetal well - being.
Type IV collagen
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.
Hematoxylin
6. Does being a female physician increase or decrease the risk of suicide?
Hypertrophic scar
Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four times the general population.
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue
7. What is the term for a large VSD that leads to pulmonary HTN - RVH - and cyanosis due to right - to - left reversal of the shunt?
The Fc region of IgG and C3b
Graves disease
Eisenmenger syndrome - which can also occur with any left - to - right shunt
1. 7- methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns
8. Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: x Synthesizes tRNA - snRNA - and the 5S rRNA
RNA polymerase III
Sphingosine
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)
Lethal dose for 50% of drug takers (median lethal dose)
9. Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? - Cytoplasm
Eosin
Escherichia coli
Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries through a patent septal defect in the heart.
Ligament teres
10. Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies - Subdural hemorrhage
1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see - can't wee - can't kick with your knee
100% - with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Pergolide
11. What is the most likely causative organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub?
Ligament teres
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
12. What primary acid - base disturbance is caused by an increase in alveolar ventilation (decreasing CO2 levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the left and decreasing both H+ and HCO3- levels?
Respiratory alkalosis (summary: low CO2 - low H+ - slightly low HCO3-)
The superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is your landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border of each rib is the neurovascular bundle - and you would risk injury if you went below the rib.
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal - middle colic - right colic - ileocolic - and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.
13. What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response - the reinforcement is given x After a set number of responses?
Fixed ratio (rewards set behaviors)
IgG4
Tamoxifen
ELISA is used as a screening test because it is very sensitive; Western blot is used as a confirmatory test because it detects antibodies (protein) to the HIV virus.
14. What is the term for the summation of mechanical stimuli due to the skeletal muscle contractile unit becoming saturated with calcium?
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
Angiosarcoma of the liver
Tetany
Dynorphin
15. By What age should children be able to draw the following figures? - Square
REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that we recall.
S phase
5 years old
Axon hillock
16. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - Cyanide
Squamous cell carcinoma
Cytochrome a/a3
Paracortex
The secretory phase is progesterone - dependent and 14 days long - whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
17. What are the five AAs that are both ketogenic and glucogenic?
Isoleucine - threonine - tryptophan - tyrosine - and phenylalanine
Dihydrofolate reductase
Caseous necrosis
Stable
18. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Trachea
GnRH
Superior
Acting out
Gilbert's syndrome
19. All AAs have titration plateaus At what pH values?
Trypsin
Valine
Infection
pH of 2 and 9
20. Is T3 or T4 responsible for the negative feedback loop on to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland?
Vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine)
In the mouth with salivary a - amylase (ptyalin)
T4 - as long as T4 levels remain constant - TSH will be minimally effected by T3.
Pseudohyphae
21. If a peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes - reticulocytes - and thrombocytopenia - is it more commonly seen in patients with ITP or TTP?
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
Hepatitis A (infectious)
TTP; thrombocytopenia with megathrombocytes is more characteristic of ITP.
Gaucher disease
22. What type of Ag do B cells recognize?
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
Free - unprocessed Ag
The Purkinje cell
Angiosarcoma of the liver
23. Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties - Circulating Ab - Ag immune complexes deposited in the tissue result in neutrophil attraction and the release of lysosomal enzymes.
Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)
Excess estradiol in the blood
Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth.
No - it is not a mandatory reportable offense (if you can believe it). Child and elderly abuse are mandatory reportable offenses.
24. What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1- L2)
Succinyl CoA synthetase
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
Repaglinide
Abs to HBsAg
25. What somatoform disorder is described as x Preoccupied with illness or death - persisting despite reassurance - lasting longer than 6 months?
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26. Where in the kidney are the long loops of Henle and the terminal regions of the collecting ducts?
In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.
Rods
Isovolumetric contraction
Occipital lobe (Anton's syndrome if it is due to bilateral posterior cerebral artery occlusions)
27. Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk for infection From what type of organisms?
The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen from the body as urea in the urine.
Encapsulated bacteria
X- linked recessive
Klatskin tumor
28. Why isn't the incidence of a disease decreased when a new treatment is initiated?
Gain of isotonic fluid (isotonic saline)
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)
Because incidence is defined as new events; treatment does not decrease the number of new events. It does decrease the number of individuals with the event (prevalence would decrease).
Latissimus dorsi
29. Signet ring cells
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive - compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.
Cricothyroid muscles
Gastric carcinoma
Mitral valve closure indicates the termination of the ventricular filling phase and beginning of isovolumetric contraction.
30. What is the most potent stimulus for glucagon secretion? Inhibition?
P wave
Staphylococcus aureus
AML- M3
Hypoglycemia for secretion and hyperglycemia for inhibition
31. What thyroid carcinoma is associated with radiation exposure - psammoma bodies - and Orphan Annie eye nuclei?
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
14 L - 33% of body weight
The enzyme phenyl ethanolamine N- methyltransferase (PNMT) - used in the conversion of epinephrine - is regulated by cortisol. Removing the anterior pituitary gland decreases ACTH and therefore cortisol.
Hydroxyproline
32. What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with elevated cold agglutinin titers?
Isolation of affect
Increase the concentration of enzymes
Class II
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
33. What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the lower limbs in the spinal cord?
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful) - which lies closest to the midline of the spinal cord.
Endometriosis
Yes. (Remember - Jehovah's witnesses refuse blood transfusions.)
Escherichia coli
34. What Ig activates the alternate pathway - neutralizes bacterial endotoxins and viruses - and prevents bacterial adherence?
The Halsted - Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation - speech sound perception - rhythm - tactual - and category testing.
IgA
Chromosome 13
Bronchogenic carcinoma
35. What AA has a pKa of 13?
Arginine
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.
Mitochondrial inheritance
36. Call - Exner bodies
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
Minor
Pituitary hypogonadism
Metronidazole
37. What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts?
Tolcapone and entacapone
Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
Klatskin tumor
Clostridium botulinum
38. What area of the hypothalamus is the feeding center?
Hot pink with PAS and grey to black with silver stain
Nondominant parietal lobe
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)
39. What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor components of the light reflex?
Temporal lobes
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) or human placental lactogen (hPL)
CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor component through parasympathetic stimulation.
40. Is associated with CML.
Calicivirus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
White muscle; short term too
Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
41. What virus is associated with body cavity large B- cell lymphomas?
Chi - square.
Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles
Down syndrome
HHV-8
42. What artery travels with the following veins? - Middle cardiac vein
As the standard deviation increases - the greater the chance of error.
ACh; think about the ANS.
Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high - step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.
Posterior interventricular artery
43. Which gram - negative diplococcus grows on chocolate agar? Thayer - Martin medium?
Extinction
Pontocerebellar angle syndrome
Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar - and Gonococcus grows on Thayer - Martin medium.
Bacillus anthracis
44. What is the primary predisposing factor for vascular dementia?
Housemaid's knee
17- alpha - Hydroxylase deficiency
Hypertension
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
45. What is the most common one? - Site for colonic diverticula
Rationalization
Sigmoid colon
Albinism
Histiocytosis X
46. What genus is known as the smallest free living bacteria? (hint: has no cell wall and has sterols in the membrane)
Benign lentigo
Mycoplasma
Exposure
Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)
47. What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?
14 L - 33% of body weight
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
Sporozoites
48. What two forces affect movement of ions across a membrane?
Prevalence rate
O2
On the superior body of the posterior wall of the uterus
Concentration force and electrical force
49. Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies - Epidural hemorrhage
Middle meningeal artery
IL-4 - IL-10 - and IL-13
HHV 8
NREM sleep. Remember awake body - sleeping brain
50. What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to the patient - then asks for recall of as many as possible?
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
Enterohepatic cycling
First - pass effect
Large segment deletions