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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Cannot be diagnosed until puberty.
Klinefelter syndrome
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient - greater diffusion rate) 2. Surface area (greater surface area - greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility (greater solubility - greater diffusion rate) 4. Membrane thickness (thicker the membrane - slowe
G0 phase
Transverse abdominis

2. What is the central chemoreceptor's main drive for ventilation?
CSF H+ levels - with acidosis being the main central drive - resulting in hyperventilation (the opposite being true with alkalosis)
Edinger - Westphal nucleus (via CN III)
Alzheimer disease
IgG4

3. Where do sperm go for maturation?
Potency
Selegiline
Glucocorticoids and amphetamines
Ductus epididymis - Which is lined by pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia.

4. What is the term for an immunogenic agent that is too small to elicit an immune response?
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
Microglial cells
Lead poisoning
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier - it may become immunogenic.

5. What form of angina is characterized by x Coronary artery luminal narrowing - symptom occurrence during exertion - ST segment depression on ECG?
1. Fructose -6- phosphate 2. Glucose -6- phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate
Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time and increased PT - and vitamin C deficiency has increased bleeding time and normal PT.
Stable angina
Nystagmus and ataxia

6. What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent sinopulmonary infections - uncoordinated muscle movements - and dilation of the blood vessels?
X- linked recessive
Gain of hypotonic fluid (water intoxication or hypotonic saline)
Yes. (Remember - Jehovah's witnesses refuse blood transfusions.)
Ataxia - telangiectasia

7. Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
GM2 ganglioside Caused by a deficiency of Beta- hexosaminidase A
Decreases
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver - it results in hepatomegaly.
Dopamine

8. What is the pentad of TTP?

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9. What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to thrive - mental retardation - motor incoordination - and stunted growth?
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
Nystagmus and ataxia
Increase (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
Iodine - resulting in congenital hypothyroidism

10. What is the term for the strength of the association between Ag and an Ab?
Affinity (one of each)
Right - sided valves
HPV serotypes 16 - 18 - 31 - and 33
CML and All

11. What abdominal muscle runs horizontally - contributes to the posterior rectus sheath - and contributes to form the conjoint tendon?
High average
Transverse abdominis
Zanamivir and oseltamivir
Multiple myeloma

12. What vascular tumor associated with von Hippel - Lindau syndrome involves the cerebellum - brainstem - spinal cord - and retina?
Hemangioblastoma
Rifampin
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
Resistance increases as resistors are added to the circuit.

13. What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor components of the cough reflex? Be specific.
Superior gluteal nerve
The sensory component is through the superior laryngeal nerve - and the motor limb is via the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Negative selection. This helps to prevent autoimmune diseases.
Gangrenous necrosis

14. What is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex - and What is its neurotransmitter?
The Fc region of IgG and C3b
Rifampin
The granule cell is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex - and it uses glutamate as its neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the cerebellum are inhibitory neurons - and they use GABA as their neurotransmitter.
Acetyl CoA carboxylase

15. What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? - Urinary bladder and urethra
Meiosis I; disjunction with centromere splitting occurs during meiosis II.
Molluscum contagiosum
Urogenital sinus
Itraconazole

16. What is the triad of Felty syndrome?
Areas 1 - 2 - and 3
Nephrotoxicity
Adrenal medulla
Neutropenia - splenomegaly - and rheumatoid arthritis

17. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Cerebral aqueduct
Placental alkaline phosphatase
Klatskin tumor
Acute tubular necrosis
Mesencephalon

18. Name the three ketone bodies.
Acetoacetate - acetone - and Beta- hydroxybutyrate
Stage 2
5- hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5- HIAA)
Squamous cell carcinoma

19. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output - Input from inferior colliculus; output to primary auditory cortex
Thyroarytenoid muscles
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
MGB (think EARS)
Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN lesion.

20. Name the T- cell CD marker: x Interacts with MHC class I molecules
CD8
5HT1D
TXA2
Hyperacute rejection

21. What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR - RPF - FF - and glomerular capillary pressure? - GFR ? - RPF ? - FF normal - capillary pressure ?
Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated with a major stressor being introduced into the home.
Constriction of afferent arteriole
Metformin
Anterior compartment of the leg - deep peroneal nerve

22. If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus - which way is the fast component directed - toward or away from the lesion?
The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.
ydroxyproline
4 years old
Gap junctions

23. Fluoroquinolones are...
enveloped
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
Bactericidal
Mercury

24. What part of the heart forms x Superior border?
Senile plaques - neurofibrillary tangles - and granulovascular changes in neurons
Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and left auricles
Pseudomonas sp.
Lithium

25. What cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for prophylactic management of asthma via blockade?
Vaginismus; it is the female counterpart of premature ejaculation.
Histidine
Transitional cell carcinoma
They prevent mast cell degranulation.

26. Does subatmospheric pressure act to expand or collapse the lung?
Proencephalon
Undoing
Subatmospheric pressure acts to expand the lung; positive pressure acts to collapse the lung.
RBCs

27. What tumor marker is associated with seminomas?
Primitive ventricle
Placental alkaline phosphatase
First - pass metabolism and acid lability
Streptococcus pneumoniae

28. The probability that a person with a negative test result is truly disease free refers to what value?
Epispadia
Negative predictive value
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T
Invariant chain

29. From What aortic arch are the following structures derived?
ELISA test
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery
SSRIs

30. What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female reproductive cycle?
Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)
Intrapleural pressure at the base is -2.5 cm H2O (more positive than the mean) - resulting in a force to collapse the alveoli.
Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3

31. What is found in the R group if the AA is acidic? Basic?
If a carboxyl group is the R group - it is acidic; if an amino group is the R group - it is said to be basic.
HBeAg
Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
Major

32. What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
ACTH
Alkaline phosphatase
The tsetse fly

33. What primary acid - base disturbance is cause by a decrease in alveolar ventilation (increasing CO2 levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the right and increasing H+ and HCO3- levels?
Trypsin
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2 - high H+ - slightly high HCO3-)
Chromosome 18
Stereocilia

34. What three cells are essential for T- cell differentiation in the thymus?
Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis occurs in colonic diarrhea because of the net secretion of HCO3- and potassium into the colonic lumen.
Dendritic cells - macrophages - and thymic epithelial cells
Antisocial
Corticosteroid

35. What direction does RNA polymerase move along the template strand of DNA during transcription?

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36. What are the two functions of the thymus in T- cell differentiation?
Hormone secretion for T- cell differentiation and T- cell education to recognize self from nonself
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
Transketolase and transaldolase. The reactions they catalyze are reversible.
Mode

37. What complex of the ETC contains Cu2+?
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases
Ulcerative colitis
Magnesium
Complex 4

38. Which gram - positive bacteria infection of infancy is associated with ingestion of honey?
Clostridium botulinum
A left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.)
Increased erection and libido
Escherichia coli

39. What three substances stimulate parietal cells?
ACh - histamine - and gastrin
apo A-1
Chlamydia
The myotatic reflex is responsible for the tension present in all resting muscle.

40. What is the most common one? - Site of ischemia in the GI tract
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)
hCS and serum estriol - which are produced by the fetal liver and placenta - respectively - are used as estimates of fetal well - being.
Splenic flexure
Ferrochelatase

41. Orphan Annie cells
Resistance increases as resistors are added to the circuit.
Frameshift
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
Oligodendroglioma

42. What is the most common one? - Site of ulcerative colitis
Rectum
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2 - reducing the carrying capacity and shifting the curve to the left - making it difficult to remove the CO molecule from Hgb.
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.

43. What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? - Labia majora
Labioscrotal swelling
Inactivated
T3
Acute pyelonephritis

44. Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes - Ohio - Mississippi - eastern seaboard of the United States - and southern Canada?
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.
Large intestine. Water is passively removed from the lumen.
Blastomyces dermatitidis
ACh receptor

45. Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?
IgM
Loss of hypotonic fluid (alcohol - diabetes insipidus - dehydration)
Rickets
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)

46. What ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryotic cells have?
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.
Meclizine
The thyroid gland
They block the midcycle surge of LH.

47. What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? - Trichomoniasis
1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR
Metronidazole
ICF volume decreases when there is an increase in osmolarity and vice versa.
Vitelline fistula

48. What is the most common one? - Malignant tumor of the esophagus
Squamous cell carcinoma
ll
ELISA screens and Western blot confirms the diagnosis.
Molindone

49. Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: x Found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissues
DiGeorge's syndrome
3'-5' direction - synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction
IL-8. It not only is chemotactic - it also acts as an adhesive for neutrophils.
GLUT 4

50. What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the direct passage of ions and particles between two adjacent cells?
Velocity is inversely related to cross - sectional area.
Flumazenil
Gap junctions
Areas 44 and 45