Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the term for the day after the LH surge in the female cycle?
Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times that of the general population.
Ovulation
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases - there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.

2. Which leukotrienes are associated with the late - phase inflammatory response?
Nystagmus and ataxia
Afterload
igantism
LTC4 and LTD4

3. What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) x Posttransplantation patient taking immunosuppressive agents
ASD
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'- deiodinase enzyme)
>5 mm
Asbestosis and silicosis

4. What is the term for formation of a stable fibrin - platelet plug to stop bleeding?
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.
Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of possibilities for the answers are projective.
Rate of absorption
Hemostasis

5. What IL down - regulates cell mediated immunity?
When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR - skeletal muscle contraction stops.
Aldosterone Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
IL-10
There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The TATA box is -25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box is -75 bases upstream.

6. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output - Input from medial lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary somatosensory cortex
Ribonucleotide reductase
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle - delaying the closure of the pulmonic valve.
Ventral posterolateral nucleus
Dissociation

7. What X- linked recessive disorder that is due to an abnormality in the dystrophin gene - has onset by age 5 with progressive proximal muscle weakness - calf pseudohypertrophy - and elevated CPK levels?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

8. Is the following description characteristic of competitive or noncompetitive antagonists: parallel shift to the right on a dose - response curve - complete reversibility with increase of the dose of the agonist drug - and capacity to decrease the pot
Competitive antagonist
Temporal arteritis
Graves disease (Increased T4 decreases TRH and TSH through negative feedback.)
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.

9. What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs?
Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) syndrome
Fat necrosis
CN XI - vertebral arteries
Auspitz sign

10. How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone marrow suppressor?
Estrogen use
It causes a buildup of dATP - which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate - a precursor of DNA - resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.
Acute pyelonephritis
The carotid body - which monitors arterial blood directly

11. What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?
Melanoma - cancer of the stomach and bladder
Shifts it to the right
Agglutination test
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)

12. Name the ocular lesion; be specific - A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)
Left homonymous hemianopsia
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla - Areola - and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production) - and if confronted by an APE - your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innerva
Onset of bleeding
The folding of an AA chain

13. Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary immune response?
Psoas major
Chi - square.
More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary immune response (shorter lag period).
Viruses

14. Which leukotriene is chemotactic for neutrophils?
LTB4
Demeclocycline
Gabapentin
Blood clots

15. What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
Achondroplasia
Duodenum
Dynorphin
The tsetse fly

16. What is the most common one? - Neurotransmitter in the brain
GABA - quantitatively
Nodular melanoma
Osteosarcoma
relaxation

17. What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?
Prevalence increases. (Remember - prevalence can decrease in only two ways - recovery and death.)
Two major or one major and two minor
S2 - S3 - S4
Wilson disease

18. What CN is associated with the x First pharyngeal arch?
Birds
CN V
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Regression

19. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Removing a reinforcement (without the patient knowing) gradually over time to stop a condition?
Median nerve
Fading
Parkinson's disease (I can't underestimate all of the buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)
C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH)

20. Name the most common type or cause - Nephrotic syndrome in children
Pheochromocytoma
Prevalence increases. (Remember - prevalence can decrease in only two ways - recovery and death.)
Lipoid nephrosis
Serous exudates

21. Name the most common type or cause - Hypothyroidism in the United States
Shifts it to the right
Iatrogenesis
Iodine - resulting in congenital hypothyroidism
Amanita phalloides

22. What is the drug of choice for steroid - induced osteoporosis?
Glioblastoma multiforme
Cushing's ulcers
Alendronate
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)

23. What type of DNA library is made from the mRNA from a tissue expressing a particular gene?
Schwannoma
cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA - are continuous - and contain no introns or regulatory elements.
Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets incorporated into the syncytiotrophoblast.)
DM - hypercholesterolemia - smoking - and HTN are major risk factors. Being male - obesity - sedentary lifestyle - homocysteine elevation - oral contraceptive pills - and genetics are minor risk factors for atherosclerosis.

24. What three PGs are potent platelet aggregators?
Bronchogenic carcinoma
PGE 1 - PGI 2 (most potent) - and TXA 2
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland release PTH in response to hypocalcemia.

25. Name the antidote - Organophosphates
Atropine - 2- PAM (pralidoxime)
Zero - order elimination
Plummer - Vinson syndrome
Mumps

26. What is the term for the dementia characterized by decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive function due to a cerebrovascular accident?
Plasmodium ovale
Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise deterioration in cognitive function.
Systolic interval decreases secondary to increased contractility; diastolic interval decreases secondary to an increase in heart rate.
<2

27. What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with Homer - Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur - pelvis - and tibia; and chromosome 11;22 translocation?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

28. What Ig prevents bacterial adherence to mucosal surfaces?
IgA
Pyridoxine
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused.
Marrow failure - cancer - and leukemia

29. What nerve is associated with the following functions? - Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris - flexor digiti profundus (pinky and ring fingers) - and the intrinsic muscles of the hand
wave
Ulnar nerve
von Gierke's disease
Invariant chain. This is essential because the CD4 T cells have antigen receptors only for peptides bound to the MHC II molecule. (MHC restriction)

30. What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?
Head of the pancreas
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Goodpasture syndrome
HBeAb

31. What complement factor deficiency leads to x Recurrent gonococcal infections?
CMV - Toxoplasma gondii - and Listeria
C5- C8 deficiency
Extinction
Double - blind study. It is the most scientifically rigorous study known.

32. What Freudian psyche component is described as x The conscience - morals - beliefs (middle of the road)?
Procainamide
Non - Hodgkin lymphoma
Superego
Regardless of the rate of infusion - it takes 4 to 5 half - lives to reach steady state.

33. What component of the ANS is responsible for movement of semen from the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts?
No - it is never acceptable to lie.
Chromosome 5
Sympathetic nervous system
Crohn disease

34. What three Beta- blockers are used in the treatment of glaucoma?
Terminal ileum
Tropomyosin
Double - blind study. It is the most scientifically rigorous study known.
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol

35. What liver enzyme - for triglyceride synthesis - converts glycerol to glycerol -3- phosphate?
Fibrous pericardium
Glycerol kinase
1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine
Copper deficiency

36. How many codons code for AAs? How many for termination of translation?
Osteosarcoma
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA - UGA - UAG) code for the termination of translation.
Middle
An elevated serum osteocalcin level

37. Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48- hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide
Mantle cell lymphoma
Decreases
NaCl is removed from the lumen to dilute the fluid leaving the loop of Henle.
Plasmodium vivax

38. What is the major muscle used in the relaxed state of expiration?
Streptomycin
Under resting conditions expiration is considered a passive process; therefore - no muscles are used. In the active state the abdominal muscles can be considered the major muscle of expiration.
Duodenal atresia
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years

39. What is the term for processing an APC's pinocytosed material by fusing with a lysosomal granule and cleaving the Ag into peptide fragments?
A high - resistance system is formed when resistors are added in a series.
Ag processing; it is needed for class I molecules. Class II molecules have an invariant chain that protects them from breakdown.
Fanconi - like syndrome
The limbic system

40. For what disease are SS- A(Ro) - SS- B(La) - and R- ANA diagnostic markers?
Sj
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country approximately $100 billion a year.
Agglutination test
Diverticulosis

41. What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths x From a specific cause per number of persons with the disease?
Case fatality rate
The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it harms the fetus.
Concentration gradient
X- linked dominant

42. Name the period described by the following statement: no matter how strong a stimulus is - no further action potentials can be stimulated.
Absolute refractory period is due to voltage inactivation of sodium channels.
Diphyllobothrium latum
G1 phase (gap 1)
ACh

43. Measles - mumps - varicella zoster - and Francisella tularensis.
Increasing blood flow is the only way to increase O2 delivery in the coronary circulation because extraction is nearly maximal during resting conditions.
IF
Positive
Are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States

44. What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?
Tensor tympani
MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome)
Parietal cells (Remember - they secrete HCl - too.)
Paracortex

45. Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with G-6- PD deficiency?
LVEDV and LVEDP (left ventricular end - diastolic volume and end - diastolic pressure - respectively)
Heinz bodies
PGE (along with low oxygen tension)
Integument (skin and its derivatives)

46. What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? - Thoracodorsal nerve
Chromosome 4p
Tetany
INF- gamma
Latissimus dorsi

47. Results in vitamin B12 malabsorption.
Both
Pancreatic insufficiency
IL-10
Plummer - Vinson syndrome

48. What type of hypersensitivity is an Ab - mediated response against our own cells - receptors - or membranes via IgG or IgM?
Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase).
Nominal scale (categorical - e.g. - male or female)
Type II hypersensitivity reaction
Ceramide

49. What component of the trigeminal nuclei x Supplies the muscles of mastication?
Ethacrynic acid
Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?)
Estrogen use
Motor nucleus of CN V

50. What bonds are broken by endonucleases?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183