Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What facultative intracellular fungus is associated with hepatosplenomegaly?
Thyroid gland
Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES and can result in hepatosplenomegaly.
Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles - which are lacking on the palms and soles of the feet.
Nicotinic acid - because its side effects include hyperuricemia and exacerbation of ulcers.

2. What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as x Autoantibodies against the type IV collagen in the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs?
Goodpasture syndrome
Panacinar
None; it degenerates.
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia.

3. What is the first membrane - bound Ig on B cell membranes?
Nodular melanoma
CD19
IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.
eEF-1

4. What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?
Rate of absorption
Spleen
Melatonin - serotonin - and CCK
Visceral pleura

5. What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is synthesized by platelets?
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower water concentrations.
TXA2
Melanin
PCR

6. Is heparin contraindicated in pregnancy?
Galactoside permease
No. Heparin is safe in pregnancy - but warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy because of its ability to cross the placenta.
Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition - the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a decreased level of cortical excitation.
A gene (a rather simple definition but accurate)

7. What T cell line arises from low affinity for self - MHC class I Ags in the thymus?
Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.
Mast cells
If positive - hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300 mOsm/L); if negative - hypertonic urine (osmolarity > 300 mOsm/L)>>
CD8+ T cells

8. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x Additional air that can be taken in after normal inspiration
Southern blot
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
EBV
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

9. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Optic canal
CN II and ophthalmic artery
Male pseudohermaphrodite (dude looks like a lady!)
Hematoxylin
Flumazenil

10. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - GABA
Glutamate
Mentally disabled
The one start codon - AUG - in eukaryotes codes for methionine and in prokaryotes formylmethionine.
Risk factors for cervical cancer

11. What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia
Urogenital sinus
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve

12. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x The amount of air that enters or leaves the lung system in a single breath
Variable ratio If it is based on time - it is an interval - and if it is based on the number of responses - it is a ratio.
Hyperpolarization (i.e. - K+ influx)
Porcelain gallbladder
Tidal volume (VT)

13. What bones make up the acetabulum?
Fibrocystic change of the breast
The rate of infusion
NADPH oxidase
Pubis - ilium - and ischium

14. Why is O2 content depressed in anemic patients?
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous
Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in the blood. As for polycythemic patients - their O2 content is increased because of the excess Hgb concentrations.
Volume of distribution is decreased when a large percentage of drug is protein bound.

15. Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: x Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to open quickly; will not respond to a second stimulus until cell is repolarized.
Nystagmus and ataxia
Voltage - gated sodium channel
Positive sense RNA means it can serve as mRNA and therefore has 5'-3' polarity
>3.5 g/day of protein - along with generalized edema - hypoalbuminemia - and hyperlipidemia

16. Name the MCC - Pneumonia in a patient with atypical bird exposure and hepatitis
Trypsin
Cleft palate
Chlamydia psittaci
Mallory- Weiss syndrome

17. Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information - Enveloped DNA hepadnavirus
Myasthenia gravis
Hepatitis A (infectious)
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22 - 39 - and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.
Hepatitis B

18. What type of collagen is associated with keloid formation?
Case control studies cannot assess incidence or prevalence - but they can determine causal relationships.
Antigenic determinant (epitope). (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)
Type III
1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the length of the vessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4. Decrease the number of parallel channels

19. What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?
A high - resistance system is formed when resistors are added in a series.
Polyarteritis nodosa
Median nerve
Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral veins where they enter the superior sagittal sinus.

20. What is the most common one? - Type of melanoma
CN V2
Rhombencephalon
Superficial spreading melanoma
Phallus

21. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - Sarcomere
Secretin stimulates the pancreas to secrete a HCO3-- rich solution to neutralize the acidity of the chyme entering the duodenum.
Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl CoA transferase
Shortens
Tetracycline

22. What subset of CD4 helper T cells stimulate B- cell division and differentiation?
Burkitt lymphoma
Th2
Orbitomedial frontal lobe
Roth spots

23. Neurofibrillary tangles
Selective erectile disorder
Griseofulvin
Right brachiocephalic artery
Alzheimer disease

24. Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? - RBCs
Major
Thick skin
Eosin
IgM

25. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - 6- Thioguanine
S phase
G1 phase; G2 and S phase are diploid (2N).
The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands - it compresses the fibers from the upper temporal fields of the optic chiasm - producing bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors

26. Name the associated chromosome - Patau syndrome
Chromosome 13
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.
Plasmodium vivax
Insulinoma

27. Shuffling gait - cogwheel rigidity - masklike facies - pill - rolling tremor - and bradykinesia describe what form of dementia?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

28. What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia?
CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the motor component of the blink reflex.
Hyperventilation - which decreases CO2 - shifting the reaction to the left and decreasing H+
Parvovirus B-19
No - it is never acceptable to lie.

29. What enzyme is blocked by 5- FU?
Thymidylate synthetase
Nasopharynx
Goodpasture syndrome
Urogenital sinus

30. Name the correct artery - The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
Clear cell
Areas 44 and 45
Salmeterol
Arch of the aorta

31. Name the type of exudate - given the following examples - Parasitic infection
Eosinophilic exudates
Negative selection. This helps to prevent autoimmune diseases.
IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil proliferation.
Parafollicular C cells

32. What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?
Ephedrine
Neomycin
The small subunit (40S) binds first.
GnRH constant infusion

33. What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of the glomerular capillary wall - granular appearance under the microscope - and effacement of foot processes?
Neuroblastoma
CD4+T cells
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Membranous glomerulonephritis

34. How do delusions - illusions - and hallucinations differ?
Left atrial myxoma
Pantothenic acid
Midazolam
Hallucinations are sensory impressions (without a stimulus); illusions are misperceptions of real stimuli; and delusions are false beliefs that are not shared by the culture.

35. Of what serotonin receptor is sumatriptan an agonist?
Transtentorial (uncal)
5HT1D
S phase
ELISA screens and Western blot confirms the diagnosis.

36. Which two antipsychotic drugs create a high risk for developing extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) side effects?
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell - mediated)
Pygmalion effect (experimenter expectancy). This can be eliminated with double - blind studies.
Haloperidol and fluphenazine (but use of any high - potency phenothiazine runs the risk of EPS)
Leukemias

37. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Adduct the thigh and flex the hip
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve
Cushing's ulcers
Schwannoma

38. What are the two opsonizing factors?
Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis occurs from vomiting because of the loss of H+ - K+ - and Cl -.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
The Fc region of IgG and C3b
Borderline

39. What X- linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by recurrent infections - severe thrombocytopenia - and eczema?
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Aorta - azygos vein - and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome
Mebendazole

40. What component of the inner ear x Contains endolymph and responds to head turning and movement?
Semicircular duct
Homeodomain proteins
impermeable to water
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X.

41. When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into the embryo?
Hemosiderin
Spironolactone
6 weeks 10 weeks
Cystadenocarcinoma

42. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?
Filtered and secreted: Cx > Cin (i.e. - PAH). Filtered and reabsorbed: Cx < Cin (i.e. - glucose) - where Cx = clearance of a substance and Cin = clearance of inulin.
Red muscle
The vermis
Chlortetracycline

43. What is the term for formation of a stable fibrin - platelet plug to stop bleeding?
Stratum corneum (keratinized)
False - negative rate
Hemostasis
CN III and IV

44. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Azygos vein
During REM sleep
Rheumatic fever
Superior and posterior
1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids

45. What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?
Visceral pleura
Hepatitis E
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
Collecting ducts - which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption.

46. What are the three most common sites for left - sided heart embolisms to metastasize?
More than 75% of the vessel
Brain - spleen - and kidney
Dimorphic
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

47. What hormone is required for 1 - 25- dihydroxy- vitamin D (1 - 25- diOH- D) to have bone resorbing effects?
Mesencephalic nucleus
Monocytosis
PTH
Wilson disease

48. What pattern of inheritance is G-6- PD deficiency?
X- linked recessive
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)
CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember - 8
The reduviid bug

49. If the P value is less than or equal to .05 - What do you do to the null hypothesis?
Echinococcus multilocularis
Reject it
Klinefelter syndrome
Anterior tibial artery

50. What are the three components of amyloid?
1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans
Yes. This is done to help prevent underreporting out of fear of lawsuit. Remember that it is your duty to protect the child first - not worry about legal responsibility.
Pseudomonas sp.
The carotid sinus is a pressure - sensitive (low) receptor - while the carotid body is an oxygen - sensitive (low) receptor. (Remember 'Sinus Pressure').