SUBJECTS
|
BROWSE
|
CAREER CENTER
|
POPULAR
|
JOIN
|
LOGIN
Business Skills
|
Soft Skills
|
Basic Literacy
|
Certifications
About
|
Help
|
Privacy
|
Terms
|
Email
Search
Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Which form of alcohol toxicity results in ocular damage?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked - acetaldehyde builds up - and its presence in excess results in nausea and hypotension.
Methanol
Site 3
Ventral lateral nucleus
2. Which way will the O2 dissociation curve shift with the addition of 2 - 3- bisphosphoglycerate (2 - 3- BPG) to adult hemoglobin (Hgb)?
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)
Shifts it to the right
Left abducens nerve
Estradiol
3. In What area of the brain can an excess of dopamine lead to psychotic symptoms?
Seminoma
IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - and IgM
Mesocortical area
T wave
4. What disorder is described as having x Conscious symptoms with unconscious motivation?
Immature B cells
Factitious disorder
Cocaine
Sheehan syndrome
5. What form of antimicrobial therapy is best for an immunocompromised patient?
Bactericidal
Folate - vitamin B12 - and vitamin B6
Propionic acid
Inactivated
6. Why is there a transcellular shift in K+ levels in a diabetic patient who becomes acidotic?
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and therefore is considered the active form.
IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host - whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host.
The increased H+ moves intracellularly and is buffered by K+ leaving the cells - resulting in intracellular depletion and serum excess. (Intracellular hypokalemia is the reason you supplement potassium in diabetic ketoacidosis - even though the serum
7. What renal calculus is associated with urea - splitting bacteria?
Itraconazole
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)
Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.)
Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)
8. What disorder causes joint stiffness that worsens with repetitive motion - crepitus - effusions - and swelling and commonly affects the knees - hips - and spine?
Osteoarthritis
Acral - lentiginous melanoma
Increase (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
LVEDV and LVEDP (left ventricular end - diastolic volume and end - diastolic pressure - respectively)
9. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Dental staining in children
Tetracycline
Estrogen; the first 14 days of the female reproductive cycle mark the proliferative phase.
Monosodium urate crystals
T and B- cells belong to the adaptive branch - whereas PMNs - NK cells - eosinophils - macrophages - and monocytes belong to the innate branch.
10. What part of the inner ear contains the gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head?
Testicular lymphoma
Saccule and utricle
Alteplase
Distal convoluted tubules
11. What is the only pharyngeal muscle not innervated by CN X?
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
Melanocytes
Paranoid schizophrenia
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X.
12. Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? - Red pigmentation
The reduviid bug
Serratia
Follicular adenoma
Henoch - Sch
13. What pituitary hormone is inhibited during sleep?
CN XI - vertebral arteries
At birth (reflex)
Sensory
TSH. 5- HT and prolactin increase during sleep - and dopamine levels decrease during sleep.
14. What small gram - negative aerobic rod requires Regan - Lowe or Bordet - Gengou medium for growth?
Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic megacolon)
Erythema nodosum
Bordetella pertussis
Heart disease
15. What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness - conjunctivitis - maculopapular rash - and lymphadenopathy?
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus
Kawasaki disease
Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic subaortic stenosis - or IHSS)
16. Are the following parameters associated with an obstructive or restrictive lung disorder: decreased FEV1 - FVC - peak flow - and FEV1/FVC; increased TLC - FRC - and RV?
External abdominal oblique
HPV
HHV 6
Obstructive lung disorders. The opposite changes (where you see decrease exchange it for increase and vice versa) are seen in a restrictive pattern.
17. To What does failure to resolve separation anxiety lead?
Lingual nerve of CN V3
Arterioles have the largest drop - whereas the vena cava has the smallest pressure drop in systemic circulation.
School phobia
Rapid cycling bipolar disorder
18. On the right lung the ___________ divides the middle from the inferior lobe and the horizontal fissure further divides the middle from the upper lobe. On the left the oblique divides the superior from the inferior lobe.
Oblique fissure
Outside the cell
Frontal lobe
Minor
19. How many kilocalories per gram are produced from the degradation of fat? CHO? Protein?
CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor component through parasympathetic stimulation.
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism
Lysine and tyrosine
Cohort studies determine incidence and causality - not prevalence.
20. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: x Disappearance of alpha waves - appearance of theta waves
Orotic acid (purine metabolism)
Isovolumetric contraction
Nucleus pulposus
Stage 1
21. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Hypothalamus
Hepatitis C
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.
22. What enzyme catalyzes the rate - limiting step in heme synthesis?
d - ALA synthase
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels
Shortens
23. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x The amount of air that enters or leaves the lung system in a single breath
Folic acid deficiency
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in the blood. As for polycythemic patients - their O2 content is increased because of the excess Hgb concentrations.
Tidal volume (VT)
24. What type of erythema do you see in x Stevens - Johnson syndrome?
Caplan syndrome
Erythema multiforme
Average
Osteoclasts
25. What facultative gram - negative anaerobic rod is motile - ferments lactose - and is the MCC of UTIs?
Middle meningeal artery
Hepadnavirus
Escherichia coli
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)
26. What is the titratable acid form of H+ in the urine?
The portal tract of the liver lobule
Standardized rate
Succinyl CoA synthetase
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
27. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: x Person takes his or her own feelings - beliefs - wishes - and so on and thinks they are someone else's. (e.g. - a cheating man thinks his wife is unfaithful)
Papule
Projection
Porcelain gallbladder
Pompe's disease
28. When the results of a test are compared to findings for a normative group - what form of reference does the objective test use?
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
Norm reference (i.e. - 75% of the students in the class will pass)
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
Meningocele All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
29. Do you monitor heparin's therapeutic levels by PT or PTT?
Persistent truncus arteriosus
T wave
Sensory
Heparin - intrinsic pathway - PTT; warfarin - extrinsic pathway - PT (mnemonic: hPeT - wPiTT)
30. What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by x Increased total body sodium - ECF volume - plasma volume - BP - and pH; decreased potassium - renin and AT II activity; no edema?
Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)
Recovery and death
Bactericidal
HHV 8
31. What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?
ACL
Beryllium
CN IX - X - and XI; sigmoid sinus
LCO - an index of lung surface area and membrane thickness - is decreased in fibrosis because of increased membrane thickness and decreased in emphysema because of increased surface area without increase in capillary recruitment; in exercise there is
32. What percentage of the bone marrow must be composed of blast for leukemia to be considered?
At least 30% blast in the bone marrow
Chylomicrons
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
33. Name the type of necrosis - Soft - friable - cottage - cheese appearing; characteristically seen in TB
IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
Caseous necrosis
Repression
Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and has an elevated cellular content.
34. What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? - Pompe's disease
Narcissistic
Osteoclasts
Lysosomal a -1 - 4- glucosidase
Areas 5 and 7
35. What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi - has crypts - and actively transports sodium out of its lumen?
Benign lentigo
Large intestine. Water is passively removed from the lumen.
Lumbar splanchnics
Chromosome 9 - 22 (Philadelphia chromosome)
36. What are the only two picornaviruses that do not lead to aseptic meningitis?
1. Inhibin 2. Estradiol (E2) 3. Androgen - binding protein 4. Meiosis inhibiting factor (in fetal tissue) 5. Antim
Osteosarcoma
Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus
Amnesia. (The person is aware of the memory loss.)
37. Name the most common type or cause - Pulmonary HTN in children
VSD
Plasma cell
Right vagus innervates the SA node and the left vagus innervates the AV node
Naloxone - naltrexone
38. What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by contracting muscles in response to stretch of that muscle?
Asbestosis
Somatization
Pregnancy
The myotatic reflex is responsible for the tension present in all resting muscle.
39. What scale separates things into groups without defining the relationship between them?
Nominal scale (categorical - e.g. - male or female)
Right coronary artery
eIF-2 in the P site
Concrete operations (6-12 years)
40. What type of PUD is classically described by the onset of burning epigastric pain 1 to 3 hours after eating that is relieved by food?
Eclipse period
1. Increased amino acid uptake by muscles 2. Decreased protein breakdown 3. Increased protein synthesis
Duodenum
Duodenal ulcer
41. What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of RNA in RBCs - seen in lead poisoning?
Cystic fibrosis
Basophilic stippling
Hemosiderin
Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.
42. In what form is excess folate stored in the body?
N-5- methyl THF
Histamine
Antidigoxin Fab fragments
Chromosome 4p
43. Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?
Glomerular capillary pressure (increased glomerular capillary pressure - increased GFR and vice versa)
RES(Reticular endothelial system)
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Niemann - Pick disease
44. What are the two functions of the thymus in T- cell differentiation?
Actinomyces israelii
Paranoid
Hormone secretion for T- cell differentiation and T- cell education to recognize self from nonself
Escherichia coli
45. What tumor is seen in the 2- to 4-year - old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli - tubules - and stroma; and metastasizes late to the lungs?
Duodenal atresia
Wilms tumor
DiGeorge's syndrome
Glossopharyngeal nerve
46. What three cephalosporins can produce disulfiram - like reactions?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
High average
Osteoblast (Remember - blasts make - clasts take)
Treacher Collins syndrome
47. When a person goes from supine to standing - what happens to the following? - Cardiac output
Aged adult
Inhibin - m
Decreases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate.
Rifampin
48. By What age should children be able to draw the following figures? - Cross
Rubor (red) - dolor (pain) - calor (heat) - tumor (swelling); also sometimes there is loss of function
BPH
Endometriosis
4 years old
49. In a skeletal muscle fiber - the interior of the T- tubule is...
Erythema multiforme
Extracellular
Crohn disease
Metabolic rate and alveolar ventilation (main factor)
50. Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?
RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
Tay- Sachs disease