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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name three products of HIV's pol gene.
Direct fluorescent Ab test
Protease - integrase - and reverse transcriptase
pI (isoelectric point)
Ganglioside

2. What is the most common form of non - Hodgkin lymphoma in the United States?
Francisella tularensis
Follicular lymphoma
Skin - liver - and kidneys
Clostridium perfringens

3. What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris in patients with Down syndrome?
Sporozoites
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
Brushfield spots
Nitrates

4. What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?
In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary afferent neurons
Motilin
delta - Cells; somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on alpha - and Beta - islet cells.
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm

5. What is the most serious form of tinea capitis - which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?
Ferrochelatase
Rotavirus
Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.
Tinea favosa (favus)

6. What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis and medulla compressing the fourth ventricle and leading to obstructive hydrocephalus?
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.
Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome - respectively
Plasmodium falciparum

7. Name the type of mutation: x New codon specifies for the same AA
N- formyl - methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8
Chi - square.
Silent
Pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae)

8. What vitamin is needed for the production of heme?
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
Pyridoxine (B6)
Four high energy bonds - two from ATP in AA activation and two from GTP
Chromosome 13

9. What is the term for ventilation of unperfused alveoli?
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
Prodrugs
Orotic acid (purine metabolism)
Alveolar dead space

10. What disease is X- linked recessive - is associated with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections - involves a decrease in serum IgM and in the T cell - dependent paracortical areas of the lymph nodes - and m
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome
Pyloric stenosis
HBeAg
Imipenem and meropenem

11. What cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated in response to hypercalcemia?
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia.
Parental assignment and culture (not biology)
Rhombencephalon
Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)

12. Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.

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13. What three cells are essential for T- cell maturation?
Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome
Sublimation
>10 mm
Thymic epithelial cells - dendritic cells - and macrophages

14. Name the antidote - Heparin
Protamine sulfate
14 L - 33% of body weight
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Sucralfate

15. What is the region of an axon where no myelin is found?
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
Nodes of Ranvier
de Quervain thyroiditis
d - Tubocurarine

16. What is the DOC for hyperprolactinemia?
Myeloperoxidase
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase 8. Glucose -6- phosphatase
Direct fluorescent Ab test
Pergolide

17. What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery - so that the person can comprehend the command but not execute it?

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18. What structure of the knee is described thus? - Prevents posterior displacement and has medial - to - lateral attachment on the tibia
Chromosome 19
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
FSH and testosterone
Posterior cruciate ligament

19. How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG assays in the blood? In urine?
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.
Enterokinase
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) 1

20. What is the second leading cause of death in children aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
Erythema nodosum
Cancer
Carnitine acyltransferase - I
Churg - Strauss syndrome

21. Blue sclera is seen In what hereditary bone disorder?
Serocystadenoma
Repolarization is from base to apex and from epicardium to endocardium.
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Mannitol

22. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x CA-125
Loss of hypotonic fluid (alcohol - diabetes insipidus - dehydration)
Meningioma
Carbidopa and benserazide
Ovarian cancer

23. What enzyme produces an RNA primer in the 5'-3' direction and is essential to DNA replication because DNA polymerases are unable to synthesize DNA without an RNA primer?
Neuroblastoma
Affinity (one of each)
Primase
Homocysteine methyl transferase

24. Name the muscle type based on the histological features: x Actin and myosin in sarcomeres; striated; uninuclear; gap junctions; troponin:calcium binding complex; T tubules and SR forming dyadic contacts; voltage - gated calcium channels
Chloral hydrate
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Vitamin D
Cardiac muscle

25. In skeletal muscle ________ is an active event.
relaxation
Spasms of the uterus - bladder - and the biliary tree occur with all of the opioids except meperidine.
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
Residual volume

26. Name the associated chromosome - Cystic fibrosis
Upper third skeletal muscle - middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle - and lower third smooth muscle
Chromosome 7
almitate
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)

27. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: x Not allowing reality to penetrate because afraid of becoming aware of painful aspect of reality.
Down syndrome
Borrelia recurrentis
Denial
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)

28. With an increase in arterial systolic pressure - what happens to x Stroke volume?
Haemophilus ducreyi
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
Haloperidol and fluphenazine (but use of any high - potency phenothiazine runs the risk of EPS)
Increases

29. What is the term for production of a DNA copy from an RNA molecule?
Isovolumetric contraction
90% as HCO3- - 5% as carbamino compounds - and 5% as dissolved CO2
Reverse transcription
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant - but the size - placement - erasures - and distortions are relevant.

30. What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?
Kayser - Fleischer rings
Transient ischemic attack
RU 486
Psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel disease - and Reiter's syndrome

31. What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple adenomatous polyps - osteomas - fibromas - and epidural inclusion cysts?
Enkephalin
Labile
Gardner syndrome
Fentanyl

32. Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown - S
Lung cancer
Complex 4
Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of humiliation or hopelessness.
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion

33. Which muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?
Anemia
Dilator pupillae muscle
Transient protein C deficiency - because of its relatively short half - life - may result if warfarin is instituted alone.
Tay- Sachs disease

34. What is the effect of insulin on intracellular K+ stores?
Insulin increases intracellular K+ stores while decreasing serum K+ levels.
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Prostate cancer
CN IV

35. The faster the ___________ - the smaller the time of maximum concentration (Tmax) and the maximum concentration (Cmax).
Site 3
Brucella
Rate of absorption
Very superior (<2.5% of the population)

36. Do high levels of estrogen and progesterone block milk synthesis?
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)
Residual volume
Rotavirus
Yes - they stimulate the growth of mammary tissue but block milk synthesis. At parturition - the decrease in estrogen lifts the block on milk production.

37. Which gram - negative diplococcus ferments maltose?
The T- test (used when comparing two groups)
Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X) Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
False - negative rate
Meningococcus (Gonococcus does not)

38. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output - Input from the amygdala - prefrontal cortex - and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated gyrus
Reverse transcriptase
Pulmonary shunt (i.e. - pulmonary embolism)
Medial nuclear group (limbic system)
PGE (along with low oxygen tension)

39. What is the only anesthetic that causes cardiovascular stimulation?
Ketamine
Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)
Increased androgen secretion at puberty drives the increased GH secretion.
Apneustic center (deep breathing place)

40. Name the type of necrosis - Histologically resembles fibrin
Pheochromocytoma
Fibrinoid necrosis
Plasmodium vivax
Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar - and Gonococcus grows on Thayer - Martin medium.

41. What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? - Miners - metal grinders - and sandblasters

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42. During what stage of B- cell development is IgM first seen on the surface?
Small to medium - sized cerebral vessels
Immature B cells
LDL
Anaerobes

43. What structure of the knee is described thus? - C- shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament
The central vein of the liver lobule
Medial meniscus
Zero correlation
LH

44. What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? - Cortisol decreased - ACTH increased

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45. What is the term for a complete aversion to all sexual contact?
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
Aminophylline
Coprophilia
Sexual aversion disorder

46. Which CNs are found in the midline of the brainstem?
Volkmann's contracture
Palindrome
CN I - II - III - VI - and XII Add 1 + 1 = 2 - 1 + 2 = 3 - 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 - 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12
HBcAb IgG - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg

47. What oral antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by disrupting microtubule structure and depositing keratin?
Griseofulvin
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.
Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control
common variable hypogammaglobinemia

48. What type of Plasmodium affects x RBCs of all ages?
Plasmodium falciparum
Ovulation
Rochalimaea quintana (now called Bartonella quintana)
REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of sleep. The amount of REM sleep increases as the night goes on.

49. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: x Sawtooth waves - random low voltage pattern
HTLV-1
Air flows into the respiratory system.
Bronchogenic carcinoma
REM

50. What is the physiologic storage form of iron?
Ferritin
Parietal lobe
LC4 - LD4 - and LE 4
Flucytosine