Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? - Scrotum
Altruism
Risk factors for breast cancer
Labioscrotal swelling
Right coronary artery

2. What negative sense RNA virus is associated with parotitis - pancreatitis - and orchitis?
Mumps
impermeable to water
Trypanosoma cruzi
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.

3. What condition results in the following CSF results? - Opening pressure 450 mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose and protein levels
Being awake
Rapid cycling bipolar disorder
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Brain abscess

4. What somatoform disorder is described as x La belle indiff
Factors II - VII - IX - X - and proteins C and S
60%
Conversion disorder
SLE; ANA - anti - dsDNA and anti - Sm (anti - Smith)

5. What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR - RPF - FF - and glomerular capillary pressure? - GFR ? - RPF ? - FF normal - capillary pressure ?
Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.
Anterior spinal artery
Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli produces Vero toxin - Which is quite similar to shiga toxin)
Dilation of afferent arteriole

6. Name the DNA virus: x Circular dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'- deiodinase enzyme)
Papovavirus
Ea (activation energy)
Gastric ulcer

7. What is flat - circumscribed nonpalpable pigmented change up to 1 cm?
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
Macule (e.g. - a freckle)
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
Borderline

8. What event signifies the first day of the menstrual cycle?
Orbitomedial frontal lobe
Onset of bleeding
Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia - but Dubin - Johnson syndrome is differentiated from Rotor by the black pigmentation of the liver.
LDL

9. Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects - symptoms - and results of the lesion - Agraphia - acalculia - finger agnosia - right - left disorientation

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

10. Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? - Migratory polyarthritis
Herpes virus
Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are.
Major
About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered - approximately half of REM is recovered - and only one - third of total sleep is ever made up.

11. What is the only valve in the heart with two cusps?
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta - Hypertrophy of the right ventricle - Interventricular septal defect - Pulmonary stenosis
An elevated serum osteocalcin level
Duct cells secrete HCO3- - electrolytes - and water. The acini secrete the enzymes necessary for carbohydrate - nucleic acid - protein cleavage - and emulsification of fats.
Mitral (bicuspid) valve

12. What is the term for squamous to columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary to chronic inflammation?
absorption
Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.
The folding of an AA chain
Urinary trigone

13. What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?
Granulosa cell
Erythema multiforme
Heterochromatin - the light stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
Mumps

14. What statistical test compares the means of groups generated by two nominal variables by using an interval variable?
Ewing's sarcoma
The Beta- subunit; remember - the a - subunit is nonspecific.
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.
Two - way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time.

15. What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in x The vermis?
Arginine
Glomerular capillary pressure (increased glomerular capillary pressure - increased GFR and vice versa)
Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES and can result in hepatosplenomegaly.
The fastigial nucleus

16. What family do the following viruses belong to? - Measles
Flurazepam
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by increasing the number of Beta - receptors and their sensitivity to catecholamines.
Arsenic
Paramyxovirus

17. Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? - Bronchial smooth muscle activity
Serotonin
Multiple sclerosis
Vagus nerve
H 1

18. What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?
Hemiazygous vein
IgM
Transposons
Type II error (beta error). (Remember it as saying something doesn't work when it does.)

19. With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated somatomedin C level associated?
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)
GH- producing adenoma
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
After the eclipse period

20. What is the most common one? - Stone type associated with cholecystitis
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Bladder carcinoma
G-6- PD deficiency
Obese patients

21. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x c - myc
Amiloride
Burkitt lymphoma
Arch of the aorta
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)

22. Which leukotrienes are associated with the late - phase inflammatory response?
Bacillus anthracis
Fixation (arrested development)
LTC4 and LTD4
Acute rejection

23. What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase?
Klinefelter syndrome
PKU
Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to stop and help.)
CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve

24. Which macrolide is used in the treatment of gastroparesis?
Erythromycin
IGF-1
There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The TATA box is -25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box is -75 bases upstream.
ACTH

25. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - CNS neurons
Intrapleural pressure decreases (becomes more negative).
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
Permanent
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.

26. Goodpasture Ag is a component of What type of collagen?
Beryllium
Between the renal arteries and at the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
G2 phase (gap 2)
Type IV collagen

27. What nematode is known as whipworms? What is the treatment?
Liver - kidneys - and pituitary gland via 5' deiodinase enzyme
12 days after ovulation
Ischemic
Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.

28. In the mitochondria - what complex is needed for pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze the reaction from pyruvate to OAA?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide and dorzolamide)
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).
Malignant mesothelioma
Biotin - ATP - and CO2

29. What is the term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue?
Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)
Hyperplasia
Grasp proceeds release
Ribozymes

30. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Esophagus
EF-1 and GTP
Inhibin - m
Labile
Superior and posterior

31. What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?
Foramen of Winslow
It is produced by the preload on the muscle prior to contraction.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Fading

32. What type of correlation compares two interval variables?
Pearson correlation
Hepatitis B
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors

33. What topoisomerase makes ssDNA cuts - requires no ATP - relaxes supercoils - and acts as the swivel in front of the replication fork?
Swan - neck deformities
IL-4
Topoisomerase I (Relaxase)
Hypersegmented neutrophils

34. What parasitic infection is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Proencephalon
Clonorchis sinensis
Round and ovarian ligaments
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.

35. What Beta- blocker is also a membrane stabilizer?
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
Propranolol
Hereditary spherocytosis
Mitosis

36. What is the Ig associated with the primary immune response?
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.
Chromosome 9 - 22 (Philadelphia chromosome)
Succinylcholine
IgM

37. What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? - More than 35 years old
Lentigo maligna melanoma
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
It repeats every 90 to 120 minutes and correlates with elevated levels of motilin.
Multiple myeloma

38. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - Actin and myosin lengths
Histidine - because of the imidazole ring found in the R group - is basic.
No change in length
1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma
1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI mucosa

39. What type of resistance system (i.e. - high or low) is formed when resistors are added in parallel?
A low - resistance system is formed by resistors added in parallel.
No change in length
Yes
Dimercaprol - D- penicillamine

40. Name the type of exudate - given the following examples - Sunburn
16S subunit
Integument (skin and its derivatives)
Breast and lung cancer - respectively.
Serous exudates

41. Name the most common type or cause - Meningitis in renal transplantation patients
Cortisol
Validity (remember - reliability is necessary but not the only thing needed for validity)
Pancreatic delta - cell tumors inhibit CCK secretion
Listeria monocytogenes

42. What condition results in the following CSF results? - Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90% PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120
Bacterial meningitis
Antisocial personality
1. Fructose -6- phosphate 2. Glucose -6- phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate
Suprachiasmatic nucleus

43. What condition results in a strawberry gallbladder?
Hemophilia B
Internal 3' - 5' PDE bonds
Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6 and is needed to transfer the amino groups of one carbon skeleton to another.
Cholesterolosis

44. What is the rate - limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis?
Eosin
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP- SMX)
Glycogen synthase
Stage 2 - which accounts for approximately 45% of total sleep time - with REM occupying 20%.

45. What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain before - after - or during sexual intercourse?
Pergolide
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused.
Ulnar to radial progression
Inspiratory capacity

46. What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at x T8 level?
Water - soluble hormones are considered fast - acting hormones.
IVC Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
Amantadine
Short - chain fatty acids

47. What is the most common condition leading to an intracerebral bleed?
HTN
Microglia
The primitive streak grows caudal to rostral.
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember - for major articulations - wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)

48. Blue - domed cysts
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.
Patients with cystic fibrosis have a mutation in the chloride channel protein in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7.
Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)
Fibrocystic change of the breast

49. What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?
Femoral nerve
Flea - bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
IgG
Myasthenia gravis

50. From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? - Superior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body of the thyroid
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Coombs test
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
Gardnerella vaginalis