Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What encephalitis is associated with the JC virus?
Anopheles mosquito
Malingering
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)

2. What breast pathology involves malignant cells with halos invading the epidermis of the skin?
Ovarian cancer
Caplan syndrome
Hemorrhagic exudates
Paget disease of the breast

3. What DNA virus is associated with heterophile - negative mononucleosis?
Krukenberg tumor
Decreases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.
CMV; remember - EBV is associated with heterophile - positive mononucleosis.

4. What CN is associated with the x Second pharyngeal arch?
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.
CN VII
Streptococcus viridans

5. What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from x Bacteria?
BPH
F- Met - Peptides
Heart rate determines the diastolic interval - and contractility determines the systolic interval.
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged macromolecules to be extruded from the cell.

6. What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by x Decreased total body sodium - ECF volume - plasma volume - BP - and pH; increased potassium - renin - and AT II activity; no edema?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

7. What type of Ag do T cells recognize?
JC virus
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
Propionic acid
Meclizine

8. What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class II Ags?
The triad of respiratory depression - pinpoint pupils - and coma in an IV drug abuser suggests opioid overdose (e.g. - heroin) - and you should give naloxone.
IgG4
CD4+ T cells (helper)
G0 phase

9. Why is the base of the lung hyperventilated when a person is standing upright?
Permanent
CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember - 8
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant - so there is a large change in their size and volume and therefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.
Macule (e.g. - a freckle)

10. What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
Herpesvirus
Ulcerative colitis
Scrofula

11. How is velocity related to the total cross - sectional area of a blood vessel?
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
C5a
Velocity is inversely related to cross - sectional area.
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity and decreased blood volume.

12. How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic NADH oxidation using the glycerol phosphate shuttle?
2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
IgA
Latency stage (6-12 years)

13. Name the most common type or cause - Sinusitis and otitis media in children
Somatization disorder
Uracil
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
Pneumococcus

14. Name the cluster B personality disorder: x Grandiose sense of self - importance; demands constant attention; fragile self - esteem; can be charismatic
Narcissistic
Achalasia
Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Fibrocystic change of the breast

15. Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? - Pregnancy
Isotonic contraction
Positive
Granulosa cells
Papule

16. What is the Ig associated with the primary immune response?
Phase 1
Uracil and orotic acid levels increase with ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency and are normal in carbamoyl phosphate synthetase deficiency.
At the beginning of splay is when the renal threshold for glucose occurs and the excess begins to spill over into the urine.
IgM

17. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Jugular foramen
Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.
Hyperventilation - which decreases CO2 - shifting the reaction to the left and decreasing H+
Nocardia asteroides
CN IX - X - and XI; sigmoid sinus

18. What Freudian psyche component is described as x Reality - rationality - language basis?
Short - chain fatty acids
Dantrolene
Ego
38 ATPs if aerobic - 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2 ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)

19. What form of GN is characteristically associated with crescent formation?
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
300 mOsm/L
Neuroblastoma
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

20. The ___________ of the urinary bladder and the urethra are embryologic hindgut derivatives.
epithelial lining
The wall tension is greater because the aneurysm has a greater radius than the surrounding vessel.
Marijuana
The tsetse fly

21. What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? - Less than 35 years old
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.
Corticospinal tract
Voyeurism
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

22. With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure - what happens to x TPR?
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
CD21; it is a complement receptor for cleaved C3
Decreases
Avidity. There is a positive correlation between valence numbers and avidity.

23. In what organelle does the TCA cycle occur?
Superior and posterior
An elevated serum osteocalcin level
IVC Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
Mitochondria

24. What part of the heart forms x Left border?
Gilbert's syndrome
Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium
Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent cells as the name states - do not proliferate.)
Cocaine

25. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Vinyl chloride
Angiosarcoma of the liver
Bruton X- linked hypogammaglobinemia. Tyrosine kinase deficiency leads to inadequate B cell maturation.
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
Standardized rate

26. What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? - Testes - seminiferous tubules - and rete testes
CHF
Gonads
CD15 and CD30
Stibogluconate

27. Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
Folic acid deficiency
Carnitine acyltransferase I
Alcoholism
No - unsaturated fatty acids have double bonds.

28. The increased oxygen consumption after phagocytosis is for...
Factitious disorder
Menstruation
Glucose -6- phosphatase
ATP production

29. What do UMNs innervate?
Positive correlation
They innervate LMNs.
Hypertrophy
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer - Which is commonly unilateral - single nodule - no variation with pregnancy.

30. What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug of choice for whipworm and pinworm?
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the number of functioning carriers.
Mebendazole
None; it degenerates.
Libman - Sacks endocarditis

31. Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? Neither eye can look left with a slow drift to the right
Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex
Viruses
Red pulp (Remember - Red pulp and RBCs begin with R.)
Eosinophil chemotactic factor A

32. What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis should or should not be rejected?
Chromosome 20q (deficiency in adenosine deaminase)
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis
Stanford - Binet Scale - developed in 1905 - is useful in the very bright - the impaired - and children less than 6 years old.
Thyroid hormones increase serum glucose levels by increasing the absorption of glucose from the small intestine.

33. What cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for prophylactic management of asthma via blockade?
Pyruvate - acetyl CoA - and propionyl CoA carboxylase
Sucralfate
Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase).
They prevent mast cell degranulation.

34. Which direct - acting vasodilator is associated with SLE- like syndrome in slow acetylators?
Hydralazine
Thiazide diuretics
reflexes
12 days after ovulation

35. The DSM- IV- TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In What axis would you place x Personality and mental disorders?
Axis II
Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Separation anxiety
Pneumotaxic center (short - fast breaths)

36. Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control?
The larger the volume of distribution - the lower the plasma concentration of a drug.
Duodenum
Spectinomycin
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles

37. What is the most common one? - Primary CNS tumor in adults
Phototherapy
Berylliosis
Cortisol
Glioblastoma multiforme

38. What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?
Urinary 17- ketosteroids
Aortic insufficiency
Deltoid
Decrease in surface area and increase in membrane thickness (Palv O2 > PaO2)

39. Can a patient refuse life - saving treatment for religious reasons?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

40. What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? - Shipyards - brake linings - insulation - and old building construction
Diphyllobothrium latum
Asbestosis
Galactoside permease
Because they do not block D2A receptors - they are antagonists of 5HT2 receptors.

41. Has analgesic and antipyretic activities but lacks anti - inflammatory effects.
GnRH constant infusion
Crohn disease
Acetaminophen
Insulin increases total body stores of protein - fat - and CHOs. When you think insulin - you think storage.

42. What muscle is the chief flexor of the hip?
Psoas major
Chromosome 4p
The vagina
Increase the concentration of enzymes

43. What two receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone lead to vomiting when stimulated?
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant - so there is a large change in their size and volume and therefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.
Albinism
2 and 5HT3 receptors
Chromosome 15

44. What enveloped RNA retrovirus infects CD4 T cells and uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
Moving objects - along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs.
Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate and choline (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic nerve terminal).
Coombs test
HIV

45. What is the term for thickened - hyperpigmented skin in the axillae - groin - and skin folds associated with malignancies - obesity - and DM?
The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic acid - Which is also the principal neurotransmitter of the visual pathways.
Very superior (<2.5% of the population)
Acanthosis nigricans
Suprachiasmatic nucleus

46. What thyroid abnormality has the following? - TRH decreased - TSH decreased - T4 increased
Log - kill hypothesis (follows first order kinetics)
Graves disease (Increased T4 decreases TRH and TSH through negative feedback.)
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase.
Coprophilia

47. What reflex increases TPR in an attempt to maintain BP during a hemorrhage?
Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic effect.)
Sertoli cell
The carotid sinus reflex
REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.

48. What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?
Tetany
Affinity decreases; they are inversely proportional.
Candida albicans
Vibrio cholera

49. Name the most common type or cause - Acute bacterial endocarditis
Pancreatic insufficiency
Staphylococcus aureus
Flurazepam
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. Microvilli (600 times)

50. Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? - Kwashiorkor
Schizoid
Site 2
Negative
The Purkinje cell