Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: x Slow channels close - voltage - gated potassium channels reopen with a large influx of potassium - and the cell quickly repolarizes
Phase 3
Rationalization
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
D- Penicillamine

2. Name the antidote - Digoxin
Ergosterol
Internal iliac nodes
MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This allows the body to eliminate tumor cells - virus - infected cells
Antidigoxin Fab fragments

3. What is the main inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
Serotonergic crisis may be precipitated when an SSRI is mixed with MAOIs - TCADs - dextromethorphan - and meperidine. Treat it with cyproheptadine.
Absolutely not! Answer any question you are asked.
Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
Systematic desensitization

4. What hormone's release is strongly associated with stage 4 sleep?
Stratum spinosum
Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
Aged adult
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24- hour period is during stage 4 sleep.

5. What is the term for conversion of a dsDNA molecule to the base sequence of an ssRNA molecule?
Transcription (C comes before L in the alphabet - and transCription comes before transLation)
Yolk sac tumor
Stage 1
Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial - Contraction - Venous

6. What is the effect of insulin on protein storage?
Renin
Insulin increases total body stores of protein - fat - and CHOs. When you think insulin - you think storage.
Kupffer cells
Systematic desensitization

7. What organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice?
Vimentin
3'-5' direction - synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction
Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control
Bacillus cereus

8. What is the most common one? - Primary CNS tumor
Calcarine sulcus
Glioblastoma multiforme
Bordetella pertussis
C1 - C2 - or C4 deficiency

9. A 20-year - old black woman goes to you with nonspecific joint pain - fever - and a malar rash over the bridge of her nose and on her cheeks. This is a classic example of What autoimmune disease? What are three autoantibody tests you could order to m
SLE; ANA - anti - dsDNA and anti - Sm (anti - Smith)
Site 2
Anterior compartment of the thigh - femoral nerve
Cytochrome a/a3

10. What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?
Squamous cell carcinoma
0157:H7
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells - so it is considered the thymic - dependent area.
Adult T- cell leukemia

11. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Controls distal musculature?
Mean
Carcinoid tumor
Intermediate part of the hemispheres
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Most people ingest 500 mcg/day.

12. What paraphilia is defined as x Deriving sexual pleasure from watching others having sex - grooming - or undressing?
Direct fluorescent Ab test
Microsporum
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the number of functioning carriers.
Voyeurism

13. What syndrome results when there is a deletion to paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
Prader - Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome - respectively
Standardized rate
Hemorrhagic exudates

14. What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres?
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
Propionic acid
Middle cerebral artery
Naloxone or naltrexone

15. What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin - MIF - and androgen - binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?
pI (isoelectric point)
Sertoli cell
G-6- PD
This is the triad of renal cell carcinoma

16. A patient has to prove his or her...
N- Acetylcysteine
NADPH and molecular O 2
competency
Paracortex

17. What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a halo surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration of the nipple and areola with crusting - fissuring - and oozing?
Primary Hemochromatosis
Rapid cycling bipolar disorder
Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion occurs after puberty - amenorrhea or impotence will be seen.
Paget disease of the breast

18. What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing ectodermal - endodermal - and mesodermal elements (i.e. - skin - hair - teeth and neural tissue)?
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR - Appearance - Pulse - Grimace - Activity - Respiration
Gonococcus
Teratoma (dermoid cyst)

19. What causes a skeletal muscle contraction to terminate?
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve
Free polysomes. Membrane - associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.
When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR - skeletal muscle contraction stops.
Shaping (successive approximation)

20. What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect to determine whether a patient is HIV positive?
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)
Membranous glomerulonephritis
P24
ACTH

21. Name the associated chromosomal translocation - Ewing sarcoma
Chromosome 11 - 22
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla - Areola - and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production) - and if confronted by an APE - your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innerva
Meclizine
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these slow channels - and if they are prevented from opening - it will slow down the repolarization phase.

22. What viral infection in patients with sickle cell anemia results in aplastic crisis?
Right ventricle
Succinyl CoA
Parvovirus B 19
Pygmalion effect (experimenter expectancy). This can be eliminated with double - blind studies.

23. What is the term for the day after the LH surge in the female cycle?
Stratum corneum (keratinized)
Lateral part of the hemispheres
Mitochondria
Ovulation

24. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Plantar flex the foot - flex the toes - and invert the foot
Multiple myeloma
Posterior compartment of the leg - tibial nerve
Pneumocystis carinii
Posterior

25. If the P value is less than or equal to .05 - What do you do to the null hypothesis?
Zero correlation
Velocity is inversely related to cross - sectional area.
Reject it
>3.5 g/day of protein - along with generalized edema - hypoalbuminemia - and hyperlipidemia

26. What three CNs are associated with conjugate eye movements?
CN III - IV - and VI
Pneumocystis carinii
Fo/F1 complex
Amantadine

27. Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? - Sydenham chorea
Major
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused.
12 days after ovulation
The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity because of the amount of space the liver occupies.

28. Name the components of the femoral canal - working laterally to medially.
1. 7- methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns
An increase in the afterload decreases velocity; they are inversely related. (V equals 1 divided by afterload.)
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve - Artery - Vein - Empty space - and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament
Clonorchis sinensis

29. Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies - Subdural hemorrhage
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Medial umbilical ligaments
Duodenum
IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil proliferation.

30. What neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits - hypotension - and torsades de pointes?
Thioridazine
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.
Ordinal scale (e.g. - faster/slower - taller/shorter)
RSV

31. What congenital small bowel outpouching is a remnant of the vitelline duct?
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
Meckel diverticulum
Eisenmenger's syndrome
1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable to self - care daily at the appropriate developmental level. 3. The parents or guardians have no control over the child or will not promise to ensure the child's safety e

32. What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by x Childlike behaviors - unorganized speech and behaviors - poor grooming - incongruous smiling and laughter - and the worst prognosis?
Cestodes
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels
Vibrio cholera
Disorganized schizophrenia

33. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Arsenic
Ch
Phase 2
Squamous cell carcinoma (skin - lung) and angiosarcoma of the liver
Vimentin

34. What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole - abortion - or normal pregnancy?
Herpes virus
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Mast cells

35. What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?
G2 phase (gap 2)
Prinzmetal variant angina
Flea - bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
Trazodone

36. What is the most common one? - Route of spread in pyogenic osteomyelitis
Red pulp (Remember - Red pulp and RBCs begin with R.)
Hematogenous
Pygmalion effect (experimenter expectancy). This can be eliminated with double - blind studies.
Prostatic carcinoma

37. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: x Period of cellular growth (translation and transcription) after DNA synthesis
Stable
Eosin
G2 phase (gap 2)
Increased REM sleep - decreased REM latency - and decreased stage 4 sleep - leading to early morning awakening

38. What agent - in combination with a MAOI inhibitor - can cause hypertensive crisis?
None; it degenerates.
Tyramine
Sickle cell disease
Mitochondrial inheritance

39. Name the MCC - Pneumonia in adults
Vesicle (e.g. - poison ivy)
Proportionate mortality rate
Psammoma bodies
Streptococcus pneumoniae

40. What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with Homer - Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur - pelvis - and tibia; and chromosome 11;22 translocation?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

41. Do newborns have a preference for still or moving objects?
Histamine
Moving objects - along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs.
DNA polymerase - d
Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase).

42. What protein is required by prokaryotic RNA polymerases to initiate transcription at the promoter region of DNA?
Rotavirus
Surface tension - the force to collapse the lung - is greatest at the end of inspiration.
Sigma factor
Ratio scale

43. What is the term to describe jumping from one topic to the next without any connection?
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a Beta- blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better outcomes than those who do not.
Malingering
Posterior cruciate ligament
Loose association

44. Which virus is treated with the monoclonal antibody palivizumab?
Pituitary adenoma
The placenta
RSV
a - and Beta- chains are on most T cells.

45. Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining - Smooth and linear pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM
T4 - as long as T4 levels remain constant - TSH will be minimally effected by T3.
Hydroxyproline
Thyroid hormones
Goodpasture disease

46. Which trematode is associated with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?
Schistosoma haematobium
Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.
Clostridium botulinum

47. What is the only way to increase the Vmax of a reaction?
50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most likely perpetrators - although stepfathers also have a high rate.
Coprophilia
Increase the concentration of enzymes
Haemophilus influenzae type B

48. What signals are used to direct an enzyme to a lysosome?
VLDLs
Acetyl CoA - FADH2 - and NADH
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
Amyloidosis

49. What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is its axis of rotation?
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are unable to recall.
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.
ALA dehydrogenase and ferrochelatase

50. What form of bilirubin can cross the blood - brain barrier?
Lower lobe
Prader - Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome - respectively
Unconjugated free bilirubin
Follicular phase is estrogen - dependent with increased FSH levels - while the luteal phase is progesterone - dependent.