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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. When a person goes from supine to standing - what happens to the following? - Dependent venous blood volume
Stanford - Binet Scale - developed in 1905 - is useful in the very bright - the impaired - and children less than 6 years old.
Erythema multiforme
Renin secretion
Increases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. What is the term for the amount of a drug that is needed to produce the desired effect?
Neurofibromatosis
Potency
a1- Receptors
Hyperacute rejection
3. To What does aldose reductase convert galactose?
Labioscrotal swelling
The resistance will decrease one - sixteenth of the original resistance.
Gonococcus
Galactitol
4. What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor - sensory - or both) x Ventral root?
Left: stomach - spleen - and left kidney; right: liver - duodenum - and right kidney
Motor
Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion occurs after puberty - amenorrhea or impotence will be seen.
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
5. What gram - positive rod is distinguished by its tumbling motility?
Listeria
IgG
Pentoxifylline
Filtration; if hydrostatic pressure is less than oncotic pressure - reabsorption is promoted.
6. What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?
Laminin
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
Hemochromatosis
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases
7. Where do the primordial germ cells arise?
Nasal polyps - rhinitis - and aspirin hypersensitivity
C5- C8 deficiency
From the wall of the yolk sac
Anticipation
8. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - NAD
Both Neisseria and Moraxella are gram - negative cocci.
Tryptophan
Right vagus innervates the SA node and the left vagus innervates the AV node
1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
9. At the D2A receptor have the capacity to induce pseudoparkinsonism.
transcription
Breast cancer
Beta- Oxidation of fatty acids
Dopamine antagonists
10. What nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior two - thirds of the tongue?
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse - hyperreflexia - spastic paralysis - increased muscle tone - and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.
Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.
Protein A
Lingual nerve of CN V3
11. What enzyme is deficient in hereditary protoporphyria?
Lateral compartment of the leg - superficial peroneal nerve
Liver
Day 14
Ferrochelatase
12. Which hepatitis virus is in the Flaviviridae family?
Metabolic rate and alveolar ventilation (main factor)
Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)
Hepatitis C
Lead poisoning
13. What is the most common one? - Kidney stone type
Succinylcholine
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).
During stage 3 and 4 (remember - it is called deep sleep.)
Calcium oxalate
14. What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user will not develop tolerance?
Prodrugs
Atelectasis
Constipation and miosis
Collecting ducts - which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption.
15. What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple adenomatous polyps - osteomas - fibromas - and epidural inclusion cysts?
Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)
Gardner syndrome
Atropine with pralidoxime
Rhombencephalon
16. What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths x From a specific cause per number of persons with the disease?
False - negative rate
Obstructive lung disorders. The opposite changes (where you see decrease exchange it for increase and vice versa) are seen in a restrictive pattern.
Case fatality rate
90% as HCO3- - 5% as carbamino compounds - and 5% as dissolved CO2
17. In What area of the GI tract does iron get absorbed?
Chromosome 17
Salmonella
Duodenum
Nondominant temporal lobe
18. Name the cluster B personality disorder: x Criminal behavior; lacking friends - reckless - and unable to conform to social norms
Antisocial
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
Rhinoviruses for summer and fall; coronaviruses for winter and spring
Disorganized schizophrenia
19. Has analgesic and antipyretic activities but lacks anti - inflammatory effects.
Plasmodium malariae
Anopheles mosquito
Hypertension
Acetaminophen
20. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Is involved in motor planning?
Roth spots - and they are seen in bacterial endocarditis.
Lateral part of the hemispheres
Cauda equina
7 to 14 days
21. What is the term for failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum?
igantism
Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth.
Negative selection. This helps to prevent autoimmune diseases.
Diethylcarbamazine
22. Name the antidote - Copper
Marijuana
Congenital heart disease
D- Penicillamine
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in gingival hyperplasia)
23. What hormone acts on Granulosa cells?
Amyl nitrate - sodium nitrate - or sodium thiosulfate
eEF-2 is the site where Pseudomonas and Diphtheria toxins work.
FSH
Infliximab
24. What vessels have the largest total cross - sectional area in systemic circulation?
Capillaries
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic bipolar). Patients are ego syntonic.
A decrease in Ca2+ and an increase in PO4
25. What is the term that refers to the number of channels open in a cell membrane?
Succinyl CoA synthetase
Membrane conductance (think conductance = channels open)
Ordinal scale (e.g. - faster/slower - taller/shorter)
Viral meningitis
26. Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? - Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid - pheochromocytoma - and parathyroid adenomas (or hyperplasia)
Listeria monocytogenes
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g. - long bone fracture)
MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome)
Paget disease of the breast
27. What large - spore - forming - gram - positive anaerobic rod is associated with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma?
A positive AV difference indicates that a substance is extracted by the organ - and a negative difference indicates that it is produced by the organ.
M:F 4:1 committing - but M:F ratio of attempts is 1:3 (males commit more but females try it more)
Clostridium tetani
NE
28. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Cerebral hemispheres
Proencephalon
Ligamentum arteriosum
Enterobius vermicularis
Reserpine
29. What type of Ag do T cells recognize?
Cryptococcus
HBc Ab
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
30. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - 6- Thioguanine
Humerus with ulna (major) and radius (minor)
Alanine cycle
S phase
Albinism
31. What is the primary target for the action of glucagon?
Liver (hepatocytes)
Pseudomonas sp.
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged macromolecules to be extruded from the cell.
Histrionic
32. Why is spermatogenesis decreased with anabolic steroid therapy?
Persistent truncus arteriosus
Astrocytes
They chronically inhibit ADH secretion; when there is a decrease in the blood volume - the stretch receptors send fewer signals - and ADH is secreted.
Exogenous steroids suppress LH release and result in Leydig cell atrophy. Testosterone - produced by Leydig cells - is needed for spermatogenesis.
33. The 'tea - and - toast' diet is classically associated with what cause of megaloblastic anemia?
Folate deficiency (very common in the elderly)
Bell pad
Somatization
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
34. What enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamides?
Hypervariable region
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve - Artery - Vein - Empty space - and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament
GH deficiency
Dihydropteroate synthetase
35. What is the PO2 of aortic blood in fetal circulation?
Schwannoma
Obsessive - compulsive
Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
60%
36. What is the most common genetic deficiency resulting in hemolytic anemia?
Phallus
G-6- PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase deficiency is second.
IgM
CD15 and CD30
37. Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly responsible for outgoing (efferent) information?
Accessory nucleus
Short - chain fatty acids
urease positive
Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.
38. What is the most common one? - Lymph node affected in non - Hodgkin lymphoma
Zinc (Zn) deficiency
Heroin
Periaortic lymph nodes
Silent
39. What is the term for Candida infection of the oral mucosa?
Limbic system
Ulcerative colitis
Thrush
IgE. It attaches via receptor for the Fc region of the heavy epsilon chain
40. What cerebral lobes are most commonly affected in herpes encephalitis?
Superior and posterior
Temporal lobes
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam ( OTL - Outside The Liver)
38 ATPs if aerobic - 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2 ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)
41. What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by poor wound healing - loose teeth - bleeding gums - petechiae - and ecchymosis?
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. a - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
hCG
Takayasu arteritis (medium - size to large vessels)
42. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Carotid canal
Negative
Aedes mosquito
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
ACTH
43. Name the most common type or cause - Reversible HTN in the United States
Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II
IDL
Alcohol abuse
HBsAg and HBeAg
44. The increased oxygen consumption after phagocytosis is for...
Sporothrix schenckii
Urophilia
Gastrinoma
ATP production
45. What is the longest and most convoluted segment of the nephron?
well - fed and fasting
PCT
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.)
46. Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of What embryonic disorder?
Posterior cruciate ligament
Constipation and miosis
Galactose and glucose
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
47. What direction would the tongue protrude in a left CN XII lesion?
Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue pointing to the left (points at the affected side).
Streptococcus pneumoniae - Klebsiella pneumoniae - Haemophilus influenzae - Pseudomonas aeruginosa - and Neisseria meningitidis; also Cryptococcus neoformans - a fungus
Melanin
IQ
48. What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior olivary nuclei on the contralateral side of the body?
Metaplasia (usually to a more protective cell type)
Rectum
Climbing fibers; - they are monosynaptic input on Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers - also excitatory - are axons of all other sources and synapse on granule cells.
Heart disease
49. What picornavirus is associated with hand - foot - and - mouth disease?
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia - a transport defect
Coxsackie A
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Primary hyperparathyroidism
50. What reflex - seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract - is an extension of the great toe with fanning the of remaining toes?
Methanol
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse - hyperreflexia - spastic paralysis - increased muscle tone - and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.
Gastrinoma
Hallucinations are sensory impressions (without a stimulus); illusions are misperceptions of real stimuli; and delusions are false beliefs that are not shared by the culture.