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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with x Thoracic vertebrae?
Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Transient protein C deficiency - because of its relatively short half - life - may result if warfarin is instituted alone.
Clostridium botulinum
Hematoxylin
2. Name the form of spina bifida - Defect in the vertebral arch
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
Right coronary artery
Selection bias
3. Which benzodiazepine is most commonly used IV in conscious sedation protocols?
Mitochondria
Left coronary artery
1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency
Midazolam
4. Where on the codon and anticodon does the wobble hypothesis take place?
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5. What tract is responsible for voluntary refined movements of distal extremities?
Repression
Corticospinal tract
Decreases
Spinal trigeminal nucleus
6. Name the six vitamin K- dependent coagulation factors.
Roth spots
At least 15%
Galactitol
Factors II - VII - IX - and X and proteins C and S.
7. What is the most common cause of vitamin B6 deficiency?
Salmonella typhi
Transitional cell carcinoma
Isoniazid treatment
Wilson disease
8. Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects - symptoms - and results of the lesion - Withdrawn - fearful - explosive moods - violent outbursts - and loss of inhibitions
Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium - which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx.
Orbitomedial frontal lobe
Achondroplasia
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium - phosphorus - and alkaline phosphatase.
9. What is the rate - limiting step of the following? - Fatty acid synthesis
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Loose association
The optic disk is the blind spot.
An elevated serum osteocalcin level
10. What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to the patient - then asks for recall of as many as possible?
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
The pulmonary vein - which carries oxygenated blood from the lung to the left atrium.
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
11. How much dietary iodine is necessary to maintain normal thyroid hormone secretion?
Total lung capacity (TLC)
Unipolar disorder (major depression)
Secondary hypoparathyroidism (vitamin D toxicity)
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Most people ingest 500 mcg/day.
12. What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates x The parotid gland?
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the - oti - is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)
Osteogenesis imperfecta
13. Name the DNA virus x Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Turner syndrome
Herpes virus
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
Hepatitis A (infectious)
14. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Ascending aorta
Diphyllobothrium latum
Probenecid
Bunyavirus
Middle
15. What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole - abortion - or normal pregnancy?
1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)
Inferior phrenic artery
Alzheimer disease
16. How many attacks are needed over how much time before panic disorder is diagnosed?
Chromosome 15
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember - they come out of the blue.)
Being a white male
Benign lentigo
17. Name the most common cause - Chronic pancreatitis
Diethylcarbamazine
Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)
Alcohol abuse
Hormone - sensitive lipase - Which breaks down triglyceride into glycerol and free fatty acid
18. Prevents restriction endonuclease from cutting its own chromosomes.
Cystadenocarcinoma
Methylation of bacterial DNA
Acetazolamide
Bunyavirus
19. How does ceasation of barbiturate use affect sleep?
Lactose must be present and glucose must be absent
Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels and therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP and CAP.
Adhesions and hernias
By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep
20. In the water deprivation test - does a patient with reduced urine flow have primary polydipsia or diabetes insipidus?
Staphylococcus aureus
Estrogen
Primary polydipsia; patients with diabetes insipidus will continue to produce large volumes of dilute urine.
Persistent truncus arteriosus
21. Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: x Systolic murmur - increased preload and afterload - decreased aortic pulse pressure and coronary blood flow
Aortic stenosis
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Gastric cancer
22. What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?
Hemochromatosis
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
Xenograft
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
23. Which cestode in raw or rare beef containing cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms?
Toxoplasma gondii
Fluconazole
BPH
Taenia saginata
24. What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the following: x Initiation
The aorta
alpha - Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on - cells and inhibitory effects on - cells.
eIF-2 in the P site
Flumazenil
25. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Epidermis
Labile
Sciatic nerve
Lithium
Arginine
26. What scale assesses a rank order classification but does not tell the difference between the two groups?
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
IgA
Anopheles mosquito
Ordinal scale (e.g. - faster/slower - taller/shorter)
27. What three PGs are potent platelet aggregators?
PGE 1 - PGI 2 (most potent) - and TXA 2
Hypertrophy
The alveolar PO2 and PCO2 levels
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.
28. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - Sarcomere
Common peroneal nerve
Astrocytes
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Shortens
29. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Kidney
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve - Artery - Vein - Empty space - and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament
Dysthymia - Which is also known as nonpsychotic depression. (Think of it as the car running but not well.)
Tinea favosa (favus)
Stable
30. Are excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
Voltage - gated calcium channel
CN I - II - III - VI - and XII Add 1 + 1 = 2 - 1 + 2 = 3 - 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 - 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12
Alternative hypothesis (What is left after the null has been defined)
GABA and glutamic acid
31. What CN is associated with the x Fourth pharyngeal arch?
Proton pump inhibitors
On the superior body of the posterior wall of the uterus
Antisocial personality
CN X
32. What tumor marker is associated with seminomas?
Placental alkaline phosphatase
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50 - making O2 more difficult to remove from the Hgb molecule.
impermeable to water
Absolute refractory period is due to voltage inactivation of sodium channels.
33. Name the hormone
Entamoeba histolytica
Glucagon
Sinus venosus
Calcium oxalate
34. What is the term for a direct connection between the intestine and the external environment through the umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?
CML and All
Vitelline fistula
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
35. What pathway uses HMG CoA synthetase in the cytoplasm?
Chromophobe adenoma
Phallus
Cholesterol biosynthesis
CML
36. What Ig is responsible for activation of complement - opsonization - and ADCC and is actively transported across the placenta?
Pentoxifylline
Porcelain gallbladder
Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
IgG
37. What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7 - causing a defect in Cl - transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)
Metaproterenol and albuterol
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle - delaying the closure of the pulmonic valve.
Humor
38. Councilman bodies
Mallory- Weiss syndrome
Selective erectile disorder
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
Toxic or viral hepatitis
39. What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?
M12 strains
Aedes (the same for yellow fever)
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
Giant cell tumor of the bone
40. Name the most common type or cause - Meningitis in adults
Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme disease)
Pneumococcus
Increase enzyme concentrations
Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli produces Vero toxin - Which is quite similar to shiga toxin)
41. Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca 2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
X- linked dominant
Left heart failure
Dantrolene
Spleen
42. Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion?
A left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.)
The aorta has the greatest velocity and the capillaries have the slowest velocity.
Estrogen; the first 14 days of the female reproductive cycle mark the proliferative phase.
Duodenal ulcers (4 times as common as gastric)
43. Has no underlying pathology.
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44. Name these immature defense mechanisms: x Taking others' beliefs - thoughts - and external stimuli and making them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done consciously - it is called imitation.)
Introjection (a sports fan is a good example)
5HT1D
Hematoxylin
Proencephalon
45. Name the type of necrosis - Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis
Vitamin C
Paramesonephric ducts
Gangrenous necrosis
Sj
46. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x Volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration
CN VII
Zero - order elimination
Osteopetrosis (Albers - Sch
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
47. Which way will the O2 dissociation curve shift with the addition of 2 - 3- bisphosphoglycerate (2 - 3- BPG) to adult hemoglobin (Hgb)?
Dominant parietal lobe (Gerstmann's syndrome)
Shifts it to the right
Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal with incidence.)
Insulinoma
48. How are resistance and length related regarding flow?
Resistance and vessel length are proportionally related. The greater the length of the vessel - the greater the resistance is on the vessel.
The urine becomes hypertonic because of water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
Klinefelter syndrome
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
49. What vessels have the largest total cross - sectional area in systemic circulation?
Capillaries
Zafirlukast
Autograft
When showing two pictures in rapid succession - you split the pictures half a second apart - resulting in the second picture masking the first (indicating poor short - term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of schizophrenic patients.
50. What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates x The submandibular and sublingual glands?
Sigma factor
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)
Ligament of Treitz
Ipratropium
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