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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the relationship between ventilation and PCO2 levels?
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases - there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.
d - Tubocurarine
ACE inhibitors (the - pril agents)
5' deiodinase

2. The faster the ___________ - the smaller the time of maximum concentration (Tmax) and the maximum concentration (Cmax).
Rate of absorption
Zinc (Zn) deficiency
Neuroblastoma
Sympathetic chain ganglion

3. How many ATPs per glucose are generated in glycolysis?
Previous suicide attempt
Purkinje cell is the fastest - and the AV node is the slowest.
38 ATPs if aerobic - 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2 ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)
Prolactinoma

4. Name the most common type or cause - Hematologic cause of papillary necrosis
Sickle cell disease
Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
presence of PMNs
Pseudomonas sp.

5. What family do the following viruses belong to? - Ebola
Niemann - Pick and Tay- Sachs diseases
Filovirus
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Pedophilia

6. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x Additional volume that can be expired after normal expiration
S phase
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Yohimbine
One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the estrogen peak.

7. What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?
Glucocorticoids and amphetamines
Dantrolene
Cancer
Antidigoxin Fab fragments

8. What ovarian carcinoma is characterized by psammoma bodies?
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.
Birds
Postinfectious GN
Cystadenocarcinoma

9. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Thymus
Permanent
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries
Superior and middle
Superior and anterior

10. All spore formers are...
Ductus epididymis - Which is lined by pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia.
gram positive
Trichophyton
1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable to self - care daily at the appropriate developmental level. 3. The parents or guardians have no control over the child or will not promise to ensure the child's safety e

11. What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase - massive organomegaly - zebra bodies - and foamy histiocytes and is associated with chromosome 11p?
Area 17
Dystrophic calcification
Niemann - Pick disease
IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI disturbances.

12. What are the three main components of amyloid?
Crude mortality rate
Disulfiram
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
Fibrillary protein - amyloid protein - and glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate mainly)

13. Cannot be diagnosed until puberty.
Leydig cell tumor
Acute tubular necrosis
Ribavirin
Klinefelter syndrome

14. What type of foods should patients taking MAOIs avoid? Why?
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g. - cheese - dried fish - sauerkraut - chocolate - avocados - and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
Streptomycin
G1 phase (gap 1)
1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making the threat. 3. Notify the threatened victim.

15. Based on operant conditioning - What type of reinforcement is described when x Removing a stimulus stops a behavior?
Extinction
For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no - but if the information would do more harm than good - withhold. This is very rare but it does occur.
Onion skinning
The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus - inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). The needle is part of the blood - drawing procedure and is the conditioned stimulus (unconditioned and conditioned stimuli are paired) resulting in th

16. What is the major pulmonary side effect of
6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates per glucose are produced - and 2 NADHs result from production of acetyl CoA - so 6 ATPs)
Coombs test
Respiratory depression
CN V

17. What statistical test - using nominal data only - checks whether two variables are independent events?
Clostridium botulinum
Where the cell bodies for the DCML and spinothalamic sensory systems are...
ELISA test
Chi - square (when you are in doubt and have nominal data - use chi - square)

18. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Adduct the thigh and flex the hip
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Chloral hydrate
Stroke volume
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve

19. What enveloped RNA retrovirus infects CD4 T cells and uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Rho-immunoglobin
Hyperacute rejection
HIV

20. Name the most common cause - A cold in the winter and summer
Unipolar disorder (major depression)
Coronavirus
Breast cancer
EF- G of the 50S subunit

21. Name the antidote - Iron
Deferoxamine - penicillamine
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.
Site 1
REM

22. Name the RNA subtype based on the following: x Carries AA to the ribosome for protein synthesis
tRNA
Histidine
Target cell
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)

23. What is the triad of fat embolism?
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g. - long bone fracture)
Bell pad
gp120
Intellectualization

24. Name the end product or products: x Fatty acid oxidation
Sporozoites
Silent
Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids)
CN IX and X

25. From the fourth month of fetal life to term - what secretes the progesterone and estrogen to maintains the uterus?
Riedel thyroiditis
Chromosome 15
The placenta
No. Remember - tests do not diagnose - they confirm or refute your diagnosis. Also - diagnosis of MI requires two of three criteria: chest pain consistent and characteristic of MI - elevated cardiac enzymes consistent with MI - and ST segment elevati

26. Which medication requires an acidic gastric pH for activation to form a protective gel - like coating over ulcers and GI epithelium?
Nearly 50% of all reported cases of elderly abuse are due to neglect. Physical - psychological - and financial are other forms of elderly abuse with an overall prevalence rate of 5% to 10%.
M:F 4:1 committing - but M:F ratio of attempts is 1:3 (males commit more but females try it more)
Surface tension; in the alveoli - it is a force that acts to collapse the lung.
Sucralfate

27. What are the two most common chains of the TCR?
Primitive ventricle
Aromatase
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a - and Beta- chains are on most T cells.

28. What is the MCC of inherited mental retardation?
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g. - cheese - dried fish - sauerkraut - chocolate - avocados - and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
Down syndrome
IgA
The courts. These are legal - not medical terms.

29. If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or insertion of a chest tube - do you use the inferior or the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide and dorzolamide)
Hepadnavirus
Thymine
The superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is your landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border of each rib is the neurovascular bundle - and you would risk injury if you went below the rib.

30. What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin K- dependent factors?
Flucytosine
Bordetella pertussis
Cefamandole - cefoperazone - and moxalactam
Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.

31. What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of ADH?
Rhabdomyoma
Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger - to - nose test.
Multiple myeloma
Collecting ducts - which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption.

32. What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm?
Semicircular duct
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)
All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and Proteus.

33. What is the most common primary diagnosis resulting in an office visit for males? For females?
B lymphocyte
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells - so it is considered the thymic - dependent area.
12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle (Krebs cycle)
For males - HTN; for females - pregnancy.

34. What family do the following viruses belong to? - Rabies
Rhabdovirus
Antidigoxin Fab fragments
D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.
ASA (salicylate)

35. What large - diameter vessel has the smallest cross - sectional area in systemic circulation?
The aorta
von Gierke's disease
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Neisseria meningitidis

36. What is the name of the T cell - rich area of the lymph node?
Paracortex
Ticlopidine or clopidogrel
Azithromycin
Bronchogenic carcinoma

37. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: x Sleep spindles - K- complexes
REM
Fc portion of IgG - C3b - and mannose - binding proteins
Stage 2
GP120

38. What segment of the small intestine is associated with Brunner's glands?
Duodenum
Proencephalon
Klinefelter syndrome
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)

39. Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal - suprachiasmatic - pineal pathway.
gag gene
Prostatic carcinoma

40. What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with 90% of syringomyelia?
Serratia
GP120
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
Disulfiram

41. What syndrome arises from mutation in the fibrillin gene (FBN1) on chromosome 15q21?
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse - hyperreflexia - spastic paralysis - increased muscle tone - and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)
Marfan syndrome
The one start codon - AUG - in eukaryotes codes for methionine and in prokaryotes formylmethionine.

42. Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control?
RU 486
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
Staphylococcus aureus
F- Met - Peptides

43. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Myelencephalon
gram positive
Rhombencephalon
Cardiac muscle
Neisseria meningitides

44. What percentage of children born to HIV- positive mothers will test positive for HIV at birth?
100% - with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year
Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
Melanocytes

45. In which quadrant is breast cancer most commonly found?
Upper outer quadrant (left more than right)
Third week
Chromosome 22q
Series circuit

46. When a drug is administered orally and enters into portal circulation - it undergoes hepatic metabolism. What is the name of this effect?
Plasmodium malariae
Methylation of bacterial DNA
First - pass effect
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of suspicion)

47. What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? - Miners - metal grinders - and sandblasters

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48. What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell?
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.
The carotid body - which monitors arterial blood directly
H 1
Free polysomes. Membrane - associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.

49. What vascular injury may result from a supracondylar fracture of the femur?
Acute CO poisoning
The popliteal artery - the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa - risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.
Klinefelter syndrome
Air flows into the respiratory system.

50. What is the most common one? - Malignancy of the female genital tract
Estriol
Endometrial cancer
Anti - HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti - HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.
Risk factors for breast cancer