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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects - symptoms - and results of the lesion - Denies being blind - cortical blindness
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2. What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? - Chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin
Trypsin
Heart disease
TCR
Posterior
3. What Beta2- agonist is used as a prophylactic agent in the treatment of asthma?
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Salmeterol
Conduction aphasia
CN III
4. What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the following: x Termination
Prostatic carcinoma
Budd - Chiari syndrome
Hypervariable region
No enzymes are needed. When the stop codon reaches the A site - it results in termination.
5. What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second messenger system?
Scavenger receptor (SR- B1)
Increased erection and libido
a1- Receptors
Follicular phase is estrogen - dependent with increased FSH levels - while the luteal phase is progesterone - dependent.
6. Name the most common reported STD - In males
Ultralente
Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT P - (hyper) Parathyroid/ Paget disease A - Addison's disease M - Milk - alkali syndrome/metastatic cancer S - Sarcoidosis M - Multiple myeloma I - Immobilization/idiopathic D - Vitamin D intoxication T - Tumors
Conversion disorder
Gonorrhea
7. What two drugs block dopa - decarboxylase in the periphery to decrease the conversion of L- dopa to dopamine?
Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response)
Anti - HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti - HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.
Carbidopa and benserazide
Staphylococcus aureus
8. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x Ki - ras
catalase - negative
2 acetyl CoA per glucose - producing 12 ATPs per acetyl CoA - resulting in a total of 24 ATPs produced from glucose (via acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle
Pancreas and colon
Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level of the lesion
9. What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt? Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or irreversible?
Epinephrine
Bainbridge reflex
Transketolase and transaldolase. The reactions they catalyze are reversible.
Enterokinase
10. What happens to V/Q ratio if a thrombus is lodged in the pulmonary artery?
S1 nuclease
Musculocutaneous nerve
The V/Q ratio increases - since the area is ventilated but hypoperfused as a result of the occlusion.
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
11. What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?
Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)
7 to 14 days
EF- Tu or EF- ts and GTP
produce bile
12. Where is the most frequent site of ectopic pregnancy?
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in hyperthermia.
Exogenous steroids suppress LH release and result in Leydig cell atrophy. Testosterone - produced by Leydig cells - is needed for spermatogenesis.
Fibrocystic change of the breast
13. What is the primary predisposing factor for vascular dementia?
Monosodium urate crystals
Zero correlation
Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight
Hypertension
14. A 30-year - old woman goes to your office with bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with menstruation and have cyclical pain and engorgement. What is your diagnosis?
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer - Which is commonly unilateral - single nodule - no variation with pregnancy.
Encapsulated bacteria
Salpingitis
Glutamate dehydrogenase
15. What elongation factor is inactivated by ADP ribosylation - preventing translation?
Obese patients
RSV
Alveoli; they are part of the respiratory portion.
eEF-2 is the site where Pseudomonas and Diphtheria toxins work.
16. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: x Motivation - memory - emotions - violent behaviors - sociosexual behaviors - conditioned responses
Limbic system
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Ostium secundum defects
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream - and the -35 promoter site is self - explanatory.
17. Have catalase.
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam (OTL) (mnemonic: Outside The Liver). They undergo glucuronide conjugation - not via the cytochrome p450 system.
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)
Persistent truncus arteriosus
Streptococci
18. Name the six vitamin K- dependent coagulation factors.
Ag - Ab binding
In the PNS - myelin is produced by Schwann cells - in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.
Factors II - VII - IX - and X and proteins C and S.
Filtration; if hydrostatic pressure is less than oncotic pressure - reabsorption is promoted.
19. What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host?
Lactose must be present and glucose must be absent
Integrase
Coagulative
Kawasaki disease
20. Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion?
Smoking
A left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.)
Wilson disease
Tetracycline
21. What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated MCV?
Site 1
Massive influx of calcium
Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency
Ethyl alcohol
22. What artificial sweetener must patients with PKU avoid?
Dihydrofolate reductase
Aspartame
Tropomyosin
Rigors - leukopenia - decrease in blood pressure - and increase in temperature
23. What form of poisoning is associated with bitter almond - scented breath?
Alternative hypothesis (What is left after the null has been defined)
Cyanide
Ulnar to radial progression
Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
24. What are the two precursors of heme?
a1- Receptors
Glycine and succinyl - CoA
M12 strains
Excision endonuclease - which removes thiamine dimers from DNA
25. What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? - Decreased testosterone production is accompanied by an increase in LH production.
Aged adult
Risk factors for breast cancer
Phenylephrine
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive and secondary as active)
26. In prokaryotes - What is the name of the RNA sequence that ribosomes bind to so translation can occur?
HMP shunt
The small subunit (40S) binds first.
Shine - Dalgarno sequence
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery.
27. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - NAD
Rhabdovirus
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)
Tryptophan
Ethyl alcohol
28. What is the term for a large VSD that leads to pulmonary HTN - RVH - and cyanosis due to right - to - left reversal of the shunt?
Metastatic
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)
Eisenmenger syndrome - which can also occur with any left - to - right shunt
Diazoxide
29. Name these cluster A personality disorders: x Baseline mistrust; carries grudges; afraid to open up; uses projection as defense mechanism; lacks hallucinations or delusions
Parasympathetic stimulation - via the vagus nerve - results in bronchoconstriction - whereas sympathetic stimulation results in bronchodilation.
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein - mediated transport
Paranoid
Right atrium
30. What three bacteria are positive to quellung reactive test?
Raynaud's phenomenon
Primary hypercortisolism
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Alcohol abuse
31. Which tetracycline is used in the treatment of SIADH?
Ulnar nerve
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle - delaying the closure of the pulmonic valve.
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Demeclocycline
32. What is the MCC of death in black males aged 15 to 24?
Homicide. It is also the leading cause of death in black females aged 15 to 24.
Outside the cell
Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase).
Cholesterolosis
33. What is the term for diffusion of water across a semipermeable or selectively permeable membrane?
FSH and testosterone
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower water concentrations.
Thioridazine
Mitochondria
34. What cestode causes cysticercosis?
Budd - Chiari syndrome
Pantothenic acid
Taenia solium
Ganglioside
35. What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?
More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary immune response (shorter lag period).
Fluconazole
Nitrofurantoin
Cryptococcus
36. Can you tell which drug is more toxic based on therapeutic indices alone?
1. Decrease alpha -1 activity 2. Increase Beta -2 activity 3. Increase ACh levels
GABA - quantitatively
No - therapeutic indices can tell which drug is safer - not more toxic.
Site 3
37. Which mycoplasma species is associated with urethritis - prostatitis - and renal calculi?
ACh receptor
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Major
With an increased rate of breathing the total ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation. Rapid - shallow breathing increases dead space ventilation with little change in alveolar ventilation. (This is hypoventilation).
38. What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?
Prolactin
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise deterioration in cognitive function.
Foramen of Monro
39. Name the DNA virus: x Circular dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
rRNA
prior to birthThe foramen ovale closes just...
Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery
Papovavirus
40. What is defined as a general estimate of the functional capacities of a human?
IQ
Internal 3' - 5' PDE bonds
Superior and middle
Phototherapy
41. Is derived from the ventral wall of the foregut.
Positive predictive value
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
Cortisol
The respiratory system
42. What is the most common one? - Pituitary adenoma
Prolactinoma
Operon
Excess lead
Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.
43. Has no underlying pathology.
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44. As what AAs do muscles send nitrogen to the liver?
Meningioma
Alanine and glutamine
Antisocial personality
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
45. Name the correct artery - The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
Breast
Are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States
Carbamazepine
Arch of the aorta
46. Which virus is treated with the monoclonal antibody palivizumab?
Cefuroxime and cefaclor
Hepatitis E
RSV
MstII; changing codon 6 (from A to T) destroys the restriction site.
47. What is the term for thickened - hyperpigmented skin in the axillae - groin - and skin folds associated with malignancies - obesity - and DM?
Acanthosis nigricans
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Conduction aphasia
p -53
48. What IV- only agent inhibits water reabsorption in the PCTs and is used to treat increased intracranial pressure - increased intraocular pressure - and acute renal failure?
Mannitol
Chromosome 3p
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling phase.
Anemia
49. Name the most common type or cause - Meningitis in adults
Pneumococcus
Duodenal atresia
Bronchoconstriction is associated with parasympathetic stimulation (ACh) - and catecholamine stimulation is associated with bronchodilation (why epinephrine is used in emergency treatment of bronchial asthma.)
Graves disease
50. At What age does IQ stabilize?
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)
From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes.
Lingual nerve of CN V3
Dystrophic calcification
Sorry!:) No result found.
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