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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? - Subcutaneous nodules
Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
Loss of isotonic fluid (diarrhea - vomiting - hemorrhage)
Vitamin C
Major

2. What urinary metabolite is elevated in pheochromocytoma?
Cori cycle
Fc portion of IgG - C3b - and mannose - binding proteins
Gastrin - releasing peptide (GRP) stimulates G cells to release Gastrin. (All G's)
Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

3. Is an irreversible collapse of a lung.
Phenylephrine
Atelectasis
1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making the threat. 3. Notify the threatened victim.
At least 30% blast in the bone marrow

4. Is encapsulated.
Gonococcus
31 pairs
Epinephrine
CD19

5. What is the name of depression and mania alternating within a 48- to 72- hour period?
Rapid cycling bipolar disorder
Accessory nucleus
GnRH pulsatile infusion
LC4 - LD4 - and LE 4

6. Name the RNA subtype based on the following: x Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are precursors of mRNA
hnRNA
No - therapeutic indices can tell which drug is safer - not more toxic.
In the first 3 months
1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma

7. Which anticonvulsant is used in the treatment of bipolar disorder and neuropathic pain?
Sickle cell disease
Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here result in obesity.
Eosin
Gabapentin

8. What enzyme is deficient in chronic granulomatous disease of childhood?
NADPH oxidase
4 years old
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla - Areola - and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production) - and if confronted by an APE - your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innerva
Linoleic acid and linolenic acid

9. What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction - splits to contribute to the rectus sheath - contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon - and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle of the sperm
Aortic stenosis
Internal abdominal oblique
Validity (remember - reliability is necessary but not the only thing needed for validity)
Calcium oxalate

10. On a graphical representation of filtration - reabsorption - and excretion - When does glucose first appear in the urine?
At the beginning of splay is when the renal threshold for glucose occurs and the excess begins to spill over into the urine.
IgG
CN II and ophthalmic artery
Round and ovarian ligaments

11. What type of peptic ulcer disease is characterized by the onset of burning epigastric pain immediately after eating?
Phosphofructokinase -1 and costs 1 ATP
Macula densa
2% of population - 2 cm long - 2 feet from ileocecal valve - 2 years old - and 2% of carcinoid tumors
Gastric ulcer

12. What factors are needed for translocation in eukaryotes?
Live vaccines
1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels 2. Administer IgG in high concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells with Ag bound to IgG (complexes) 4. Turn off the original T or B cell with anti - Ab
EF-2 and GTP
Mumps

13. What syndrome is due to anti - GBM Abs directed against the lung and kidneys?
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
Goodpasture syndrome
Fixed interval
The placenta

14. Is the hydroxyl (- OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3' or the 5' end?

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15. What AA is broken down into N2O - causing an increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) of smooth muscle - hence vasodilation?
Arginine
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22 - 39 - and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.
Velocity is inversely related to cross - sectional area.
Bronchogenic carcinoma

16. Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: x Separating oneself from the experience. The facts are accepted but the form is changed for protection.
Dissociation
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)
PGE 1 - PGI 2 (most potent) - and TXA 2
Head of the pancreas

17. What CD4 T- cell receptor does the HIV virus bind to?
Rationalization
The cat
Radial nerve
gp120

18. What projective test asks the patient to tell a story about What is going on in the pictures - evaluating the conflicts - drives - and emotions of the individual?
Teratoma (dermoid cyst)
Erectile dysfunction
IDL
TAT (Thematic apperception test)

19. What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and PO4?
Selective erectile disorder
Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in the blood. As for polycythemic patients - their O2 content is increased because of the excess Hgb concentrations.
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also - but it is not a sphingolipid)
Schizotypal

20. Active protein transport requires a...
Borrelia burgdorferi
No. Heparin is safe in pregnancy - but warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy because of its ability to cross the placenta.
Fo/F1 complex
Concentration gradient

21. What three circumstances allow a child to be committed to institutional care?

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22. What two requirements must be met for the Lac operon to be activated?
Lactose must be present and glucose must be absent
Right nasal hemianopsia
Porcelain gallbladder
Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X

23. Lucid interval
Plasmodium malariae
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower water concentrations.
Epidural hematoma
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

24. What is the rate - limiting step in the production of steroids?
The conversion of CHO to pregnenolone via the enzyme desmolase
Occipital lobe
Phase 4; NE increases the slope of the prepotential - allowing threshold to be reached sooner - and increases the rate of firing.
Pheochromocytoma

25. What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?
Median nerve lesion
1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.

26. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Pancreas
Stable
Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia - but Dubin - Johnson syndrome is differentiated from Rotor by the black pigmentation of the liver.
Ewing's sarcoma
Fructose; both glucose and galactose are actively absorbed via secondary active transport.

27. What component of the ANS is responsible for dilation of the blood vessels in the erectile tissue of the penis - resulting in an erection?
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
Parasympathetics (parasympathetics point - sympathetics shoot)
Pons

28. Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown - S
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and therefore is considered the active form.
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24- hour period is during stage 4 sleep.
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion
Without children (but don't think about this one for too long)

29. What agent used in the treatment of BPH and baldness is a 5- a - reductase inhibitor?
Excess estradiol in the blood
Finasteride
Planning and fine - tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember - the function of the basal ganglia is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.
Metabolic rate and alveolar ventilation (main factor)

30. Where does CHO digestion begin?
Magnesium
Acute cystitis
In the mouth with salivary a - amylase (ptyalin)
Chief cells

31. What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in x Gaucher's disease?
Mantle cell lymphoma
The vaccine contains 23 capsular polysaccharides.
Pulmonary embolism due to a DVT; this is not absolute but a classic description.
Glucocerebrosidase

32. What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.
Friedreich ataxia
Foramen of Monro
Mitochondria

33. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x c - myc
Burkitt lymphoma
Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome)
Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)
G-6- PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase deficiency is second.

34. What pyrimidine base is produced by deaminating cytosine?
DiGeorge's syndrome
Uracil
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.
Sublimation

35. What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? - Loss of flexion of the knee and all function below the knee - weakened extension of the thigh
Mitochondrial inheritance
Sciatic nerve
DiGeorge's syndrome
2.0 or greater

36. What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?
EF- Tu or EF- ts and GTP
Folate - vitamin B12 - and vitamin B6
G1 phase; G2 and S phase are diploid (2N).
Oxytocin

37. What bacteriostatic agent's side effect profile includes grey baby syndrome and aplastic anemia?
REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of sleep. The amount of REM sleep increases as the night goes on.
Calcium oxylate
Vancomycin
Chloramphenicol

38. What two areas of the skin do not contain sebaceous glands?
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles - which are lacking on the palms and soles of the feet.
Rigors - leukopenia - decrease in blood pressure - and increase in temperature
Dilator pupillae muscle

39. DNA replication occurs During what phase of the cell cycle?
Reverse transcriptase
S phase
Estrogen use
prognostic predictors

40. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x et
MEN II and III syndromes
Ego dystonic
Transketolase and transaldolase. The reactions they catalyze are reversible.
A positive AV difference indicates that a substance is extracted by the organ - and a negative difference indicates that it is produced by the organ.

41. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x alpha - Fetoprotein
Functions of hepatocytes
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
Flow cytometric analysis

42. What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands - submaxillary gland - and submandibular gland with posterior uveal tract involvement?
Mikulicz syndrome
Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH wet - wacky - wobbly)
Third week
Succinate dehydrogenase

43. A schizophrenic patient who is taking haloperidol is brought to your ER with muscle rigidity - a temperature of 104
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially life - threatening condition Which is treated with symptomatic support - bromocriptine - and dantrolene.
Urogenital folds
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.
Area 6

44. What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase - lipase - and proteases for digestion.
Gaucher disease
Nitrofurantoin
Ventral posteromedial nucleus

45. What are the four types of signaling mechanisms?
The energy of activation
Adjustment disorder. It is a diagnosis of exclusion (used if no other choice).
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors
Parasites

46. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Stylomastoid foramen
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient - greater diffusion rate) 2. Surface area (greater surface area - greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility (greater solubility - greater diffusion rate) 4. Membrane thickness (thicker the membrane - slowe
CN VII
Primase
Molybdenum (Mb)

47. What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? - Suprascapular nerve
Staphylococcus aureus
Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
Middle meningeal artery
Long - term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.

48. Where does the conversion of CO2 into HCO3- take place?
Tinea favosa (favus)
Multiple myeloma
In the RBC; remember - you need carbonic anhydrase for the conversion - and plasma does not have this enzyme.
Bunyavirus

49. There is no _______ of an IV- administered drug.
Pyruvate carboxylase
absorption
Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)
False - negative rate

50. Which macrolide is used in the treatment of gastroparesis?
Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Erythromycin
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam ( OTL - Outside The Liver)
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)