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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What IL - produced by macrophages - is chemotactic for neutrophils?
Reovirus
Decreases
IL-8. It not only is chemotactic - it also acts as an adhesive for neutrophils.
Because incidence is defined as new events; treatment does not decrease the number of new events. It does decrease the number of individuals with the event (prevalence would decrease).
2. What two receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone lead to vomiting when stimulated?
2 and 5HT3 receptors
Mycoplasma
Vitamin E
Dapsone
3. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x c - myc
Thrush
IgG
Repression
Burkitt lymphoma
4. What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
Ribonucleotide reductase
Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery
Conversion disorder
5. What part of the heart forms x Left border?
Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium
Ag - Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus.
CD40 ligand
Gonads
6. What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? - Zona fasciculata
Aminophylline
Cortisol Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Monosodium urate crystals
7. What is the most common one? - Malignancy in children
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
IgG4
All
With an increased rate of breathing the total ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation. Rapid - shallow breathing increases dead space ventilation with little change in alveolar ventilation. (This is hypoventilation).
8. What a1- agonist - not inactivated by catechol - O- methyl transferase (COMT) - is used as a decongestant and for treatment of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?
In the mouth with salivary a - amylase (ptyalin)
Phenylephrine
Erythema nodosum
LTB4
9. What neuropsychologic test has five basic scales testing for the presence and localization of brain dysfunction?
naked viruses
The Halsted - Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation - speech sound perception - rhythm - tactual - and category testing.
Left abducens nerve
Huntington disease
10. What is the term to describe how easily a vessel stretches?
Compliance (think of it as distensibility)
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism
Phase II
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion
11. What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
Uricosuric
Anterior tibial artery
The Beta- subunit; remember - the a - subunit is nonspecific.
The short arm of chromosome 6
12. What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?
Zoophilia
Hypnozoite
Chloral hydrate
Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) syndrome
13. Is the coding or the template strand of DNA identical to mRNA (excluding the T/U difference)?
Dopamine
The coding strand is identical to mRNA - and the template strand is complementary and antiparallel.
ELISA is used as a screening test because it is very sensitive; Western blot is used as a confirmatory test because it detects antibodies (protein) to the HIV virus.
Standardized rate
14. What complement factor deficiency leads to x Leukocyte adhesion deficiency with poor opsonization?
Th2 cells
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
Niclosamide
C1 - C2 - or C4 deficiency
15. How many oogonia are present at birth?
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
Serratus anterior
2 ATPs - because RBCs use only anaerobic metabolism.
PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: wPeT and hPiTT - which means warfarin - extrinsic - PT; heparin - intrinsic - PTT)
16. Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with osteoporosis or osteomalacia?
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium - phosphorus - and alkaline phosphatase.
Mantle cell lymphoma
Mesencephalic nucleus
DNA ligase
17. Based on the following information - is the renal transplantation rejection acute - chronic - or hyperacute? - Months to years after transplantation; gradual onset of HTN - oliguria - and azotemia; seen as intimal fibrosis of the blood vessels and in
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization - ischemia - aging - and a host of other causes.
Niacin (B3)
Chronic rejection
G-6- PD
18. Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? - Left eye can't look to the left
Temporal lobe
1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen
Left abducens nerve
Phase I
19. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: x Motivation - memory - emotions - violent behaviors - sociosexual behaviors - conditioned responses
Dilator pupillae muscle
Prokaryotes. Polycistronic and prokaryotes both start with P.
Limbic system
Menses
20. What regulates the rate of ketone body formation?
Cross - sectional studies determine prevalence - not incidence or cause and effect.
almitate
The rate of Beta- oxidation
Male pseudohermaphrodite (dude looks like a lady!)
21. What type of resistance system (i.e. - high or low) is formed when resistors are added in parallel?
Pneumotaxic center (short - fast breaths)
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Neologisms. Thomas Jefferson noted - 'Necessity obliges us to neologize.' (Abnormal use of neologisms is known as neolalism.)
A low - resistance system is formed by resistors added in parallel.
22. What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? - Chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin
Rubor (red) - dolor (pain) - calor (heat) - tumor (swelling); also sometimes there is loss of function
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a substance is equal - the substance is freely filtered by the kidney.
Trypsin
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
23. A 20-year - old woman goes to the ER with ptosis - diplopia - weakness in her jaw muscles when chewing - and muscle weakness with repeated use. What is your diagnosis?
Myasthenia gravis
CN VII
Hematoxylin
Bactericidal
24. Name the most common type or cause - Right heart failure
Primary Hemochromatosis
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
Direct pathway; a good example is Parkinson's disease.
Left heart failure
25. What is the term for how well a drug produces its desired response?
Melanocytes
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2 - reducing the carrying capacity and shifting the curve to the left - making it difficult to remove the CO molecule from Hgb.
Efficacy
MGN
26. What IL down - regulates cell mediated immunity?
Vitamin A
IL-10
Endometrial cancer
Amiloride
27. What drug blocks intragranular uptake of NE?
Thymic epithelial cells - dendritic cells - and macrophages
Reserpine
Asbestosis
Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
28. What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
Dihydrofolate reductase
Excess lead
The p50 value does not change in either anemia or polycythemia; the main change is the carrying capacity of the blood.
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma
29. The probability that a person with a positive test result is truly positive refers to what value?
The secretory phase is progesterone - dependent and 14 days long - whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.
Preductal (infantile)
Positive predictive value
30. What is defined as a general estimate of the functional capacities of a human?
Constipation and miosis
Pernicious anemia
Pneumococcus
IQ
31. Name the most common type or cause - Viral pneumonia leading to death
RSV
Riboflavin (B2) deficiency
Lentigo maligna melanoma
1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity
32. Name the most common type or cause - Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Amyloidosis
Edrophonium
Duodenum (all but the first part) 2. Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra renal glands (adrenals) 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. IVC D CUpS DAKRI is the mnemonic - everything else is covered with peritoneum
Coagulative
33. What is the only diuretic that works on the blood side of the nephron?
Metastatic
IgG
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
34. Why is there an increase in FF if the GFR is decreased under sympathetic stimulation?
Protamine sulfate
Because RPF is markedly decreased - while GFR is only minimally diminished; this results in an increase in FF (remember FF = GFR/RPF).
Dihydrotestosterone
G2 phase
35. Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca 2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
Both
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.
36. Which class of antihyperlipidemics would you avoid for a patient with elevated triglyceride levels?
Eclipse period
Oxygen
Undoing
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore - they are not used if a patient has hypertriglyceridemia.
37. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Altered folate metabolism
Direct pathway; a good example is Parkinson's disease.
Trimethoprim
Secondary hypoparathyroidism (vitamin D toxicity)
Proteus
38. What is the fastest - conducting fiber of the heart? Slowest conduction fiber in the heart?
MGB (think EARS)
Purkinje cell is the fastest - and the AV node is the slowest.
Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase
produce bile
39. How does cell diameter affect the conduction velocity of an action potential?
Wilms tumor
Clavicle - acromion - and glenoid fossa of the scapula and the humerus
The greater the cell diameter - the greater the conduction velocity.
An elevated serum osteocalcin level
40. What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?
Bronchiectasis
Foramen of Winslow
Oncotic pressure increases because of the removal of water.
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
41. Where are the postganglionic neuron cell bodies - the CNS or the PNS?
Hexosaminidase A
They are in ganglia in the PNS.
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.
Short - chain fatty acids
42. What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user will not develop tolerance?
Thymine
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary
Constipation and miosis
43. Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio - Mississippi - Missouri - and Eastern Great Lakes - is found in soil with bird and bat feces - and is associated with infections in spelunkers and chicken coop cleaners?
RSV
Histoplasma capsulatum
Paget disease of the breast
Rhabdomyoma
44. What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?
Brushfield spots
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)
Yes - because they both activate the BZ1- receptors - which can be reversed by flumazenil.
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor is inhibitory.
45. How many carbons do androgens have?
Type II pneumocytes
Androgens are 19- carbon steroids.
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
Adenosine (it is an excellent agent to use in emergencies because its half - life is 30 seconds)
46. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot
Dantrolene
Carbamazepine
Hepatitis E (enteric)
Lateral compartment of the leg - superficial peroneal nerve
47. What is the major pulmonary side effect of
Alveolar macrophages
Respiratory depression
Major
Dantrolene
48. Which sedative - hypnotic is contraindicated for patients taking warfarin?
Pseudohyphae
LGB (think EYES)
Utricle and saccule
Chloral hydrate
49. What chronic systemic inflammatory disease commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a progressive - symmetric arthritis affecting the hands - wrists - knees - and ankles that improves with increased activity?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
IgE
50. What is the FiO2 of room air?
Yolk sac tumor
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.
Glucagon
Broca's aphasia
Sorry!:) No result found.
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