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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Dorsiflex the foot - extend the toes - and invert the foot
Hepatitis B
Anterior compartment of the leg - deep peroneal nerve
It repeats every 90 to 120 minutes and correlates with elevated levels of motilin.
Hemorrhagic exudates

2. What is the largest muscle in the body?
Gluteus maximus
Doxycycline and minocycline
Granulosa cell
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these slow channels - and if they are prevented from opening - it will slow down the repolarization phase.

3. What is the term for a direct connection between the intestine and the external environment through the umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?
Vitelline fistula
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and the lunate is the most commonly dislocated.
Peutz - Jeghers syndrome
a1- Receptors

4. What is the drug of choice in treating a patient with hyperuricemia due to underexcretion of uric acid?
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep - deprived individuals.
robenecid - a uricosuric agent
Type IV collagen
Being single

5. What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness - conjunctivitis - maculopapular rash - and lymphadenopathy?
Urogenital sinus
Aminoacyl - tRNA synthetase - which uses 2 ATPs for this reaction.
Adenosine deaminase
Kawasaki disease

6. There is a strong ________ between IQ and academic achievement.
Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition - the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a decreased level of cortical excitation.
positive correlation
Thymine
Glioblastoma multiforme

7. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - RNA
Northern blot
Langerhans cells
Hydatidiform mole
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative

8. What is the most potent stimulus for glucagon secretion? Inhibition?
Hypoglycemia for secretion and hyperglycemia for inhibition
Staphylococcus
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)

9. What virus is associated with the endemic form of Burkitt lymphoma?
Low average
Incidence rate
Chromosome 18
EBV

10. What is the most common one? - Cancer of the esophagus in the world
Squamous cell carcinoma
Aminoglycosides
D- Penicillamine
EBV

11. What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting longer than 30 days with full return to former functioning capacity?
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
<2
Thyroid hormones
Mycobacterium leprae

12. Name the MCC - Pneumonia in adults
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Middle meningeal artery
Escherichia coli
Succinyl CoA synthetase

13. What disorder is characterized by a depressed mood and a loss of interest or pleasure for more than 2 years?
Displacement
Burkitt lymphoma
Hypoparathyroidism
Dysthymia - Which is also known as nonpsychotic depression. (Think of it as the car running but not well.)

14. Is the hydroxyl (- OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3' or the 5' end?

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15. What are the three branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?
Head of the pancreas
Superior gluteal nerve
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
Site 1

16. Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? - Arthralgias
Voltage - gated channel
HBsAg (incubation period)
Minor
Snails

17. In a ventricular pacemaker cell - what phase of the action potential is affected by ACh?
Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via increasing potassium conductance - taking longer to reach threshold and slowing the rate of firing.
Catatonic schizophrenia
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Thyroid hormones are necessary for conversion of carotene to vitamin A.

18. Name the most common type or cause - Meningitis in adults
Pneumococcus
hCG
Oxytocin
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24- hour period is during stage 4 sleep.

19. What antihistamine is used in the treatment of serotonergic crisis?
Ipratropium
Calcium influx secondary to slow channel opening
Cyproheptadine
Glutamate dehydrogenase

20. What three bacteria are positive to quellung reactive test?
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g. - cheese - dried fish - sauerkraut - chocolate - avocados - and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
During stage 3 and 4 (remember - it is called deep sleep.)
Conidia
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae

21. What is the most common one? - Route of spread in pyogenic osteomyelitis
Hematogenous
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)

22. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - Serotonin
Tryptophan
PGI2
Positive reinforcement
H1 histones

23. From the fourth month of fetal life to term - what secretes the progesterone and estrogen to maintains the uterus?
The urea cycle
The placenta
Retinoblastoma
T3

24. What primary acid - base disturbance is caused by a loss in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the right - thereby increasing HCO3- levels?
Hypoxia
Metabolic alkalosis (summary: high pH - low H+ and high HCO3-)
Aminoglycosides
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative

25. Name the most common type or cause - Breast lump in females
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Xanthine - hypoxanthine - theophylline - theobromine - caffeine - and uric acid are all purines.
IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF- gamma also)

26. What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?
Tidal volume (VT)
Sciatic nerve
Streptokinase
1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm

27. What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? - Urinary bladder - urethra - greater vestibular glands - vagina
Lac repressor protein
Fibroadenoma
Urogenital sinus
Isoniazid

28. What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
Phallus
An increase in the afterload decreases velocity; they are inversely related. (V equals 1 divided by afterload.)
Stratum corneum (keratinized)
Amiloride

29. How many bases upstream is the eukaryotic TATA box promoter?
There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The TATA box is -25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box is -75 bases upstream.
Volkmann's contracture
Spermatogonia (type B)
Valine

30. What cells of the retina sees in color and needs bright light to be activated?
G-6- PD deficiency
Cytokine. If a cytokine affects another class of leukocytes - it is called an interleukin.
Cones (C for color and cones)
Herpes virus

31. What peripheral chemoreceptor receives the most blood per gram of weight in the body?
Flumazenil
Aromatase
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
The carotid body - which monitors arterial blood directly

32. What is the most common one? - Site of pancreatic cancer
Head of the pancreas
refractory sexual periods
Lipoxygenase pathway - from arachidonic acid
Legionella (think air conditioners)

33. What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is priapism?
Trazodone
Campylobacter jejuni
Beta2- Adrenergic agents
Para - aminohippurate (PAH)

34. Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects - symptoms - and results of the lesion - Apathy - poor grooming - poor ability to think abstractly - decreased drive - poor attention span (Hint: if the lesion is in the
S phase
Dorsal prefrontal cortex
1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see - can't wee - can't kick with your knee
Entamoeba histolytica (treat with metronidazole)

35. Name the ocular lesion; be specific - A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)
Left homonymous hemianopsia
EF- Tu and EF- Ts of the 30S ribosomal subunit
Terminal ileum
Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal - suprachiasmatic - pineal pathway.

36. Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in...
Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL have abnormal karyotypes.)
Convergence
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
reflexes

37. Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: x Open at rest; depolarization is stimulus to close; begin to reopen during the plateau phase and during repolarization
Femoral nerve
Voltage - gated potassium channels
If a carboxyl group is the R group - it is acidic; if an amino group is the R group - it is said to be basic.
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. a - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

38. How many oogonia are present at birth?
Dendrites receive information - whereas axons send information.
Residual volume (RV)
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
Decreases

39. What is the most common one? - Organism that causes pyelonephritis
Legionella (think air conditioners)
IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the second step in the immune response - known as Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF- alpha to activate macrophages
Seminoma
Escherichia coli

40. What neurotransmitter is essential for maintaining a normal BP when an individual is standing?
The resistance will decrease one - sixteenth of the original resistance.
N- Acetylcysteine
Stercobilin
NE - via its vasoconstrictive action on blood vessels

41. What pyrimidine base is produced by deaminating cytosine?
Nasopharynx
Uracil
Eaton - Lambert syndrome
Dendritic cells - macrophages - and thymic epithelial cells

42. Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? - Nuclei
Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.
Lipoprotein lipase
Multiple myeloma
Hematoxylin

43. Which parasitic organism - when it crosses the placenta - results in intracerebral calcifications - chorioretinitis - microcephaly - hydrocephaly - and convulsions?
Polycystic kidney disease of childhood
Multiple sclerosis
Toxoplasma gondii
Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the list - but these are buzzwords to look for dissection.

44. What three major cell lines participate in the acquired immune system?
Your duty is to tell the patient - not the family. The patient decides who gets to know and who doesn't - not you.
T cells - B cells - and macrophages
Propionic acid
CD15 and CD30

45. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - I band
Uroporphyrinogen - I synthase
Mitochondrial inheritance
Pituitary adenoma
Shortens

46. What a1- agonist - not inactivated by catechol - O- methyl transferase (COMT) - is used as a decongestant and for treatment of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?
Phenylephrine
eEF-2 is the site where Pseudomonas and Diphtheria toxins work.
Mercury
Superior and middle

47. In regard to motor development during infancy - choose the motor response that happens first - Radial or ulnar progression
Succinate dehydrogenase
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a substance is equal - the substance is freely filtered by the kidney.
CD40
Ulnar to radial progression

48. What is the only dsRNA virus?
Infant Doe. Generally - parents cannot forego lifesaving treatment - but this case states that there are exceptions to the rule.
Progestin
Neutrophils - eosinophils - and basophils
Reovirus

49. What is the primer for the synthesis of the second strand in production of cDNA from mRNA?

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50. From What embryonic structure are the following structures derived? - The right and left ventricles
PGI 2
Primitive ventricle
Renal failure
Temporal arteritis