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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Paclitaxel
Mycoplasma
P1 protein
Mitosis
Ipratropium

2. Name the most common one - Chromosomal disorder
Fibrinous exudates
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
12 to 16 weeks (in response to mother's face)
Sigmoid colon

3. What forms of fatty acids are absorbed from the small intestine mucosa by simple diffusion?
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Urogenital folds
Short - chain fatty acids
Staphylococcus aureus

4. What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in x The upper pons?
Methylene blue
Prostatic carcinoma
CN V
Sacrococcygeal teratoma

5. What mast cell mediator is a chemotactic agent?
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver - it results in hepatomegaly.
Streptococcus agalactiae
Selenium (Se)
Eosinophil chemotactic factor A

6. Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: x Both Broca's and Wernicke's areas damaged by lesion in the presylvian speech area; trouble repeating statements; poor comprehension with telegraphic speech
d - Tubocurarine
Ticlopidine or clopidogrel
Global aphasia
Aspartame

7. If a mother delivers a Rho - positive baby - she should receive...
Two - way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time.
Acral - lentiginous melanoma
Rho-immunoglobin
Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted

8. What bone disorder is characterized by brown tumors - bone pain - deformities - and fractures due to excessive PTH?
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)
The central vein of the liver lobule
Bile pigments and bile salts
Third week

9. Name the DNA virus: x Partially dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion - associated polymerases; has RNA intermediate; replicates in the nucleus
refuse
Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers (median toxic dose)
Hepadnavirus
Heart disease

10. What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? - Cortisol increased - ACTH decreased
Primary hypercortisolism
Stereocilia
During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3- L4 - with the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark. Order of puncture: 1. Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep fascia 4. Supraspino
Cocaine

11. What two AAs have a pKa of 4?
Creatinine
ACh
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
Mycobacterium leprae

12. Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action - Peak - 0.5 to 3 hours; duration - 5 to 7 hours
Regular insulin
The secretory phase is progesterone - dependent and 14 days long - whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
Dihydrofolate reductase
False - positive rate

13. Which drug is used to treat respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?
Naloxone or naltrexone
Kupffer cells
Zileuton
DNA polymerase - d

14. Name the macrophage based on its location: x Liver macrophages
Ventricular contraction Atrial - Contraction - Venous
Lipid - soluble hormones are considered slow - acting hormones.
Kupffer cells
Emphysematous bleb

15. What disorder is due to a deficiency in tyrosinase?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Albinism
Pimozide
Bainbridge reflex

16. What somatoform disorder is described as x Preoccupied with illness or death - persisting despite reassurance - lasting longer than 6 months?

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17. What three substances stimulate parietal cells?
Beta2- integrins
Pernicious anemia
Chromosome 5
ACh - histamine - and gastrin

18. What is the most common one? - Organism associated with mastitis
From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes.
The popliteal artery - the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa - risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.
REM
Staphylococcus aureus

19. What bonds are broken by endonucleases?

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20. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Cytarabine
Diabetes mellitus
Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk and extremity information travels in the cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and fasciculus cuneatus both apply to upper extremities.)
S phase
Diphenhydramine

21. What structure of a protein describes the interaction among subunits?
Quaternary structure
Middle meningeal artery
Hemochromatosis
Superior

22. What is the most common one? - Form of necrosis
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)
Coagulative
Scrotal cancer - due to the high exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
Aminophylline

23. Name the cluster B personality disorder: x Colorful - dramatic - extroverted - seductive - and unable to hold long - term relationships
Histrionic
Saccule and utricle
Pernicious anemia
Smooth muscle

24. What Brodmann area is associated with x Primary visual cortex?
Right coronary artery
Chromosome 15 - 17
Enkephalins
Area 17

25. What is the first formal IQ test used today for children aged 2 to 18?
Mumps
Tetracycline
Goodpasture disease
Stanford - Binet Scale - developed in 1905 - is useful in the very bright - the impaired - and children less than 6 years old.

26. What thyroid enzyme is needed for oxidation of I- to I'?
Peroxidase - Which is also needed for iodination and coupling inside the follicular cell
Eisenmenger's syndrome
Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit of the limbic system)
The carotid sinus is a pressure - sensitive (low) receptor - while the carotid body is an oxygen - sensitive (low) receptor. (Remember 'Sinus Pressure').

27. Which class of antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers?
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
Class III
Nystagmus and ataxia
Keloid

28. What three structures are in contact with the left colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?
Left: stomach - spleen - and left kidney; right: liver - duodenum - and right kidney
Azithromycin
The subclavian artery
Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the only ganglion left.)

29. What antiviral agent for ganciclovir - resistant infections has limited utility because of its nephrotoxic side effect?
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.
Foscarnet
Aged adult
A positive AV difference indicates that a substance is extracted by the organ - and a negative difference indicates that it is produced by the organ.

30. What DNA excision and repair enzyme is deficient in patients with xeroderma pigmentosum?
Missense
Excision endonuclease - which removes thiamine dimers from DNA
Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response)
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)

31. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: x Initiation and control of movements
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.
Basal ganglia
Histiocytosis X
Peutz - Jeghers syndrome

32. What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis and medulla compressing the fourth ventricle and leading to obstructive hydrocephalus?
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream - and the -35 promoter site is self - explanatory.
Acarbose
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
Internal abdominal oblique

33. Would a G- C or an A- T rich dsDNA sequence have a higher melting point? Why?
Edrophonium
G- C rich sequences - because they have 3 hydrogen bonds - where A- T has 2 hydrogen bonds - resulting in higher melting points.
Thoracic splanchnic fibers
Serocystadenoma

34. What virus is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
DNA ligase
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
JC virus
VIPoma

35. What term describes the inability to recall personal information - commonly associated with trauma?
Insulin
Being single
VIPoma
Amnesia. (The person is aware of the memory loss.)

36. All spore formers are...
Adult T- cell leukemia
Transcription (C comes before L in the alphabet - and transCription comes before transLation)
gram positive
cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA - are continuous - and contain no introns or regulatory elements.

37. When does cortisol secretion peak?
In early- morning sleep - usually between the sixth and eighth hours
Clonidine
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
Chromosome 11 - 22

38. What three organs are responsible for peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?

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39. Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
Naloxone or naltrexone
Simon focus
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
Mycobacterium leprae

40. What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?
Phase 1
Foramen of Winslow
Bronchoconstriction is associated with parasympathetic stimulation (ACh) - and catecholamine stimulation is associated with bronchodilation (why epinephrine is used in emergency treatment of bronchial asthma.)
Obturator nerve

41. What ocular muscle x Depresses and adducts the eyeball?
Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
Anopheles mosquito
The left is a branch of the aortic arch - while the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk.
urease positive

42. What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?
Verbigeration
Blood clots
Renal circulation
Type I (makes sense - since they have a predisposition for fractures and type I collagen is associated with bones and tendons)

43. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase
The energy of activation
unprocessed Ags
Prostate cancer
Estriol

44. Is a subdural hematoma an arterial or venous bleed?
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral veins where they enter the superior sagittal sinus.
Ego syntonic
Psoriasis

45. At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea - athetoid movements - progressive dementia - and behavioral problems.
Hemostasis
HIV
Phallic stage (4-6 years)

46. Of what serotonin receptor is sumatriptan an agonist?
Transcription factor IID
Escherichia coli
5HT1D
Formal operations (> 12 years)

47. Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three Es)
Hyperplasia
Transverse abdominis
Truncus arteriosus

48. Name these mature defense mechanisms: x Helping others without expecting any return
Cyanide
Dorsal prefrontal cortex
Altruism
The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.

49. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output - Input from the amygdala - prefrontal cortex - and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated gyrus
Left posterolateral side of the diaphragm - usually resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia.
Medial nuclear group (limbic system)
Constriction of afferent arteriole
Fibrinous exudates

50. Calf pseudohypertrophy
Yolk sac tumor
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes
Chromosome 21