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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the name of the hypothesis you are trying to prove?
Alternative hypothesis (What is left after the null has been defined)
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
Increased secretion of GH postpuberty leading to acromegaly.
Hemangioma (benign)

2. What Brodmann area is associated with x Premotor cortex?
The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased reflexes - muscle fasciculations - decreased muscle tone - and muscle atrophy What two areas of the skin do flaccid paralysis). Don't forget - LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of the
PALS
Area 6
Chromosome 15q

3. Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from oxygen - derived free radicals.
Denial
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive and secondary as active)
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Superoxide dismutase - glutathione peroxidase - catalase

4. What hormone is necessary for normal GH secretion?
Stranger anxiety
Normal thyroid hormones levels in the plasma are necessary for proper secretion of GH. Hypothyroid patients have decreased GH secretions.
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)

5. What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? - Ovarian and round ligaments
M 2
1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making the threat. 3. Notify the threatened victim.
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Gubernaculum

6. What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?
Spectinomycin
Glucocorticoids and amphetamines
Reiter syndrome
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency (Folic acid deficiency has only homocystinuria as a sign.)

7. Name the associated chromosome - Neurofibromatosis type 1
Sensory
Lung recoil - being a force to collapse the lung - increases as the lung enlarges during inspiration.
Chromosome 17
Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in the blood. As for polycythemic patients - their O2 content is increased because of the excess Hgb concentrations.

8. How many days before the first day of menstrual bleeding is ovulation?
14 days in most women (Remember - the luteal phase is always constant.)
Sj
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive - compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.
Pancreatic delta - cell tumors inhibit CCK secretion

9. What competitive estrogen receptor antagonist is used in the treatment of breast cancer?
Tamoxifen
Turner syndrome
Gaucher disease
HMP shunt

10. Regarding the Lac operon - for What do the following genes code? - A gene
Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome)
Thiogalactoside transacetylase
Venous pressure above the heart is subatmospheric - so a puncture there has the potential to introduce air into the system.
Transferrin

11. In What trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?
Thiamine and folate
QRS complex
1. Fructose -6- phosphate 2. Glucose -6- phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate
The first trimester

12. At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?
Urophilia
Diphenhydramine
Preload (the load on the muscle in the relaxed state)
When it crosses the teres major

13. Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)
IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - and IgM
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm

14. What group of eukaryotic regulatory proteins has a major factor in controlling the gene expression embryonically?
Closure of the aortic valve indicates the termination of the ejection phase and the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high - step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.
Homeodomain proteins
Female pseudohermaphrodite

15. What is the rate - limiting enzyme of the HMP shunt?
Nodular sclerosis
Pancreatic cancer
Zinc (Zn) deficiency
G-6- PD

16. At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?
A- T are linked by 2 hydrogen bonds - C- G by 3 hydrogen bonds.
Phallic stage (4-6 years)
Basal ganglia
CN VII

17. What catecholamine - hypersecreting tumor - a secondary cause of HTN - results in headache - diaphoresis - anxiety - tachycardia - and palpitations?
Obsessive - compulsive
Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules)
Pheochromocytoma
Repaglinide

18. What is the largest organ in the body?
Integument (skin and its derivatives)
Acetoacetate - acetone - and Beta- hydroxybutyrate
Transposons
Chorda tympani of CN VII

19. After fertilization - what cells of the corpus luteum x Secrete estrogen?
Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca cells form from the theca interna.
The secretory phase is progesterone - dependent and 14 days long - whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream - and the -35 promoter site is self - explanatory.
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.

20. In men - At What embryonic week do the primordial germ cells migrate to the indifferent gonad?
Disulfiram
Amnesia. (The person is aware of the memory loss.)
Week four - and they remain dormant there until puberty.
Empyema

21. What part of the ANS is affected in the biofeedback model of operant conditioning?
PCR
The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.
The right and left pulmonary arteries - the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood
1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino acids

22. What happens to diastolic and systolic intervals with an increase in sympathetic activity?
1. Provide antibacterial action 2. Lubricate 3. Begin CHO digestion 4. Begin fat digestion
Minoxidil (orally and topically - respectively!)
CN III and IV
Systolic interval decreases secondary to increased contractility; diastolic interval decreases secondary to an increase in heart rate.

23. What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into?
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly - and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.
Correlation. No - correlation does not imply causation.
Ipratropium
Vitamin A

24. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - Protein
Right - sided valves
Western blot
Astrocytoma
Pergolide

25. What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?
Cardiac muscle
Progestins
Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.
Thiazide diuretics

26. What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?
1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm
Listeria monocytogenes
Labile
The triad of respiratory depression - pinpoint pupils - and coma in an IV drug abuser suggests opioid overdose (e.g. - heroin) - and you should give naloxone.

27. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Cholestatic hepatitis
Erythromycin
Vancomycin
Lesch - Nyhan syndrome
Courvoisier's law

28. What do LMNs innervate?
LTB4
They innervate skeletal muscle.
Brushfield spots
Inulin

29. On what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur?
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa
The fasciculus cuneatus
Ulnar to radial progression
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)

30. Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?
Carbamazepine
Streptococci
Outside the cell
Hepatitis D

31. Which parasitic organism - when it crosses the placenta - results in intracerebral calcifications - chorioretinitis - microcephaly - hydrocephaly - and convulsions?
Toxoplasma gondii
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during awakening - whereas hypnagogic hallucinations occur while one is falling asleep.
Blocking

32. What endogenous pigment found in the substantia nigra and melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine?
White rami are preganglionic fibers - whereas grey rami are postganglionic fibers.
70S ribosomes in prokaryotes and 80S ribosomes in eukaryotes
Melanin
Midazolam

33. Name the most common type or cause - Reversible HTN in the United States
Variable ratio If it is based on time - it is an interval - and if it is based on the number of responses - it is a ratio.
PGE (along with low oxygen tension)
Alcohol abuse
Onion skinning

34. Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: x Found in most tissues - including brain and RBCs
Fibrocystic change of the breast
GLUT 3 and 4
Diastole. During systole the left ventricle contracts - resulting in intramyocardial vessel compression and therefore very little blood flow in the coronary circulation.
Hydatidiform mole

35. What MHC class acts to remove foreign Ags from the body?
MHC class II Ags. This is accomplished via CD4 T cells.
Profound (I.Q. range < 20)
Myeloschisis All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
Euchromatin - the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.

36. What enzyme converts androgens to estrogens?
Nystagmus and ataxia
Anterior compartment of the thigh - femoral nerve
Aromatase
Long - term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.

37. What type of error is made if you accept the null hypothesis when it is false?

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38. Blue - domed cysts
catalase - negative
6 weeks 10 weeks
Fibrocystic change of the breast
eEF-1

39. Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: x Found in liver and pancreatic Beta- cells
Malignant mesothelioma
GLUT 2
Somatoform disorder
Chromosome 15 - 17

40. What diseases are associated with HLA- DR4
Rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes (with HLA- DR3)
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)
Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterial vessels - small changes in pressure result in large changes in blood volume.
Test - retest reliability

41. Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly responsible for outgoing (efferent) information?
Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)
Axis III
Stanford - Binet Scale - developed in 1905 - is useful in the very bright - the impaired - and children less than 6 years old.

42. Name the MCC of death - In diabetic individuals
CN VII and VIII
Sexual aversion disorder
Physostigmine
MI

43. What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200 - protein level 2.5 - and a specific gravity below 1.020?
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Thyroid gland
Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and has an elevated cellular content.
Fungi

44. Is the carotid sinus sensitive to pressure or oxygen?

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45. What phobia is described as the fear of open spaces?
IgM
Schizoid
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland release PTH in response to hypocalcemia.
Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of humiliation or hopelessness.

46. Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action - Peak - 8 to 12 hours; duration - 18 to 24 hours
2 acetyl CoA per glucose - producing 12 ATPs per acetyl CoA - resulting in a total of 24 ATPs produced from glucose (via acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.
hypophosphatemia
Lente or NPH insulin (neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin)

47. What are the two functions of the thymus in T- cell differentiation?
Case control studies cannot assess incidence or prevalence - but they can determine causal relationships.
Hemochromatosis
Hormone secretion for T- cell differentiation and T- cell education to recognize self from nonself
Homogentisic oxidase

48. Homer - Wright rosettes
Roth spots - and they are seen in bacterial endocarditis.
The folding of an AA chain
Neuroblastoma
Anterior spinal artery

49. What is the name of the program that deals with codependency and enabling behaviors for family members of alcohol abusers?
INF- gamma
The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture.
Al - Anon
Splitting

50. What is the most common form of dementia?

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