Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What component of an ECG is associated with the following? - Atrial depolarization
Rotavirus
P wave
Hemangioma (benign)
Vmax

2. What is the term for neurologic signs consistent with a cerebrovascular accident but lasting 24 hours with full recovery?
5' deiodinase
HBc Ab
Transient ischemic attack
Moderate (35-49)

3. What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?
Site 4
Native Americans
Thymidylate synthetase
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)

4. What type of collagen is associated with keloid formation?
Total lung capacity (TLC)
Type III
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2 - reducing the carrying capacity and shifting the curve to the left - making it difficult to remove the CO molecule from Hgb.
Dynorphin

5. What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background?
Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest velocity in systemic circulation
Down syndrome (it is slightly more common than fragile X syndrome.)
Cryptococcus neoformans
Fibrocystic change of the breast

6. What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?
Variola virus (Smallpox)
Pyridoxine (B6)
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)
Nasal polyps - rhinitis - and aspirin hypersensitivity

7. Is DM a contraindication to use of a Beta- blocker in a patient who is having an MI?
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a Beta- blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better outcomes than those who do not.
Desipramine
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed - type hypersensitivity (type IV)
Coxsackie B

8. What hormone is secreted by the placenta late in pregnancy - stimulates mammary growth during pregnancy - mobilizes energy stores from the mother so that the fetus can use them - and has an amino acid sequence like GH?
The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)
Squamous cell carcinoma (skin - lung) and angiosarcoma of the liver
IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI disturbances.
Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) or human placental lactogen (hPL)

9. Name the most common type or cause - Sudden cardiac death
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)
Acarbose
Mitochondrial inheritance
Palms - up before palms - down maneuvers

10. What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from x Neutrophils?
Ribonucleotide reductase
Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)
Uroporphyrinogen - I synthase
Lumbar splanchnics

11. What component of an ECG is associated with the following? - Ventricular depolarization
Sphingomyelinase
V wave
QRS complex
By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep

12. What is the name of RER in neurons?
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies - indicating high protein synthesis.
Spectinomycin
Subacute bacterial endocarditis

13. What two stress hormones are under the permissive action of cortisol?
Pancreas and colon
Salmonella
Mesencephalon
Glucagon and epinephrine

14. What happens to the Ab specificity when class switching occurs in mature B cells?
The muscle's ATPase activity
Lower lobe
Brain - spleen - and kidney
As the isotype is switched - the Ab specificity does not change because it does not affect the variable chains.

15. What is the most common one? - Benign breast tumor in females less than 35 years old
Myeloperoxidase
Amanita phalloides
Ergotamines
Fibroadenoma

16. What is the region of an axon where no myelin is found?
Selegiline
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Nodes of Ranvier

17. What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into the urea cycle?
Wilson's disease (Remember chromosome 13 and hepatolenticular degeneration)
Axis V
Common peroneal nerve
Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4

18. Which diuretic is used as an adrenal steroid antagonist?
Spironolactone
Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver because they receive their blood supply from the left hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part of the right lobe of the liver.
Free hormone levels remain constant - and the bound hormone level changes with a decrease in binding hormones.
Job syndrome

19. From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? - Palatine tonsil
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.
Primitive ventricle
Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Obsessive - compulsive

20. What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
ACh receptor
Methylene blue

21. What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in hypertension - hypernatremia - increased ECF volume - and decreased adrenal androgen production?
Peyer's patch
17- alpha - Hydroxylase deficiency
Pyridoxine
Negative

22. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Teratogenicity
refuse
CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve
Fibroadenoma
Metronidazole

23. What is the term for RBC fragments?
Schistocytes
Somatomedins
Positive correlation
Langerhans cells

24. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Metencephalon
Rhombencephalon
1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4. Glucagon 5. Beta- Agonists 6. ACh
unprocessed Ags
The dentate nucleus

25. Name the most common type or cause - Erysipelas
Pneumocystis carinii
Follicular adenoma
Alveoli; they are part of the respiratory portion.
Streptococcus pyogenes

26. What enzyme of heme synthesis is deficient in the autosomal dominant disorder acute intermittent porphyria?
The placenta
Functions of hepatocytes
Coagulative necrosis
Uroporphyrinogen - I synthase

27. What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: x GTP
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant - so there is a large change in their size and volume and therefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.
1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation
IgA
Succinyl CoA synthetase

28. A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps - vomiting - diarrhea - and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato salad at a picnic; What is the most likely responsible organism?
Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the list - but these are buzzwords to look for dissection.
Staphylococcus aureus
Granulosa cell
RNA polymerase II

29. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - CO
Dihydrotestosterone
Day 14
Somatomedins
Cytochrome a/a3

30. What are the five conditions associated with normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
Turcot syndrome
Disulfiram
Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial - Contraction - Venous

31. Preeclampsia in the first trimester - hCG levels above 100 - 00 mIU/mL - and an enlarged bleeding uterus are clinical signs of what?
Hydatidiform mole
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)
Pregnancy
Cyanocobalamin (B12)

32. Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?
1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
Autograft
RES(Reticular endothelial system)
Voltage - gated channel

33. Where is ADH synthesized?
Unipolar disorder (major depression)
IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
Permanent
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.

34. What cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest?
G0 phase
Melanocytes
Neuroblastoma
Haemophilus influenzae type B

35. What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated MCV?
Histidine - because of the imidazole ring found in the R group - is basic.
CD4
Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency
G0 phase

36. WBC casts in the urine
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest acting.
Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both direct and consensual light reflexes - but the accommodation - convergence reaction remains intact. It can also be seen in patients with pineal tumors or multiple sclerosis.
Acute pyelonephritis
Cyanide

37. What is needed to initiate translation?
Lesch - Nyhan syndrome
t the end of the PCT 25% of Na+ - Cl - - K+ is left
T9
IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)

38. Name the most common type - Mental retardation
Serratus anterior
Histidine
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Most people ingest 500 mcg/day.
Fetal alcohol syndrome

39. What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?
Clarke's nucleus
CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve
Aspartate transcarbamylase
Bacillus anthracis

40. What are the four major functions of the acquired immune system?
1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell division or complementation 3. Control the level of the response 4. Remove foreign material
Insulin
Ovulation
Rhinoviruses for summer and fall; coronaviruses for winter and spring

41. What vessels in the systemic circulation have the greatest and slowest velocity?
The aorta has the greatest velocity and the capillaries have the slowest velocity.
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Pontocerebellar angle syndrome
It causes a buildup of dATP - which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate - a precursor of DNA - resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.

42. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Hemolytic anemia
Nitrofurantoin
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Type III
Schatzki ring

43. What slow - growing primary CNS tumor that affects mostly females is associated with psammoma bodies?
Papovavirus
Meningioma
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
7 years old

44. What hormone can be affected by dopamine release in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of possibilities for the answers are projective.
It is produced by the preload on the muscle prior to contraction.
Ligamentum arteriosum
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.

45. What infection is associated with ring - enhancing lesions seen on computed tomography (CT) of the brain in an HIV- positive individual?
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)
Boutonni
Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases
Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)

46. Name the T- cell CD marker: x Essential for Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)
Left homonymous hemianopsia
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.
When the pH is more acidic than the pI - it has a net positive charge - and when the pH is more basic than the pI - it has a net negative charge.
CD40 ligand

47. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Vinblastine
Mitosis
0.2
Surface tension - the force to collapse the lung - is greatest at the end of inspiration.
1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency

48. What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell?
Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4
Anterior compartment of the leg - deep peroneal nerve
Adenovirus
Free polysomes. Membrane - associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.

49. What is the most common one? - Bone tumor
Squamous cell carcinoma
S phase
Metastatic
42 L - 67% of body weight

50. Has proteolytic metabolic effects.
Epinephrine
Masochism
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Staphylococcus aureus