Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What hemoflagellate species is the cause of Chagas disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
Purkinje cell is the fastest - and the AV node is the slowest.
First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.
Tetracycline

2. What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?
IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - and IgM
Bacillus anthracis
Giant cell tumor of the bone
Ampicillin and amoxicillin

3. In a diabetic patient - to What does aldose reductase convert glucose?
Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts)
Renin secretion
Atropine with pralidoxime
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin - ACh - and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.

4. What is the term for the number of individuals who have an attribute or disease at a particular point in time?
When it crosses the teres major
C1 through C4
Prevalence rate
Myasthenia gravis

5. Why is there an increase in FF if the GFR is decreased under sympathetic stimulation?
Waldeyer's ring
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
Melanoma
Because RPF is markedly decreased - while GFR is only minimally diminished; this results in an increase in FF (remember FF = GFR/RPF).

6. What vitamin is necessary for the transfer of one amino group from a carbon skeleton to another?
Sporozoites
Direct fluorescent Ab test
The respiratory system
Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6 and is needed to transfer the amino groups of one carbon skeleton to another.

7. What is the rate - limiting step of the following? - Cholesterol synthesis
HMG CoA reductase
Coarctation of the aorta
1. Covalent bonding between the hapten and carrier 2. B- cell exposure to hapten twice 3. T- cell exposure to carrier twice
Humerus with ulna (major) and radius (minor)

8. What AA is classified as basic even though its pK is 6.5 to 7?
Superior and posterior
Streptococcus agalactiae
RSV
Histidine - because of the imidazole ring found in the R group - is basic.

9. What hematologic malignancy is treated with the monoclonal antibody rituximab?
Non - Hodgkin lymphoma
Obsessive - compulsive
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
Swan - neck deformities

10. What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? - Percentage of original filtered volume left in the lumen
At the end of the PCT 25% of the original volume is left
Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Thiabendazole
Parasympathetics (parasympathetics point - sympathetics shoot)

11. What is the second leading cause of death in the United States?
Cancer
The death of a spouse. The higher the score - the greater the risk of developing an illness in the next 6 months.
Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome
After the latent period

12. How do elevated blood glucose levels decrease GH secretion? (Hint: what inhibitory hypothalamic hormone is stimulated by IGF-1?)
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1 - and they inhibit GH secretion. GHRH stimulates GH secretion.
First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
With an increased rate of breathing the total ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation. Rapid - shallow breathing increases dead space ventilation with little change in alveolar ventilation. (This is hypoventilation).
Superior

13. Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information - Naked capsid RNA picornavirus
Hepatitis A
Vitamin K
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Actually - yes. You should encourage your patient to try other forms of medicine as long as they are not contraindicated with the patient's preexisting illness. You must be able to accept the health beliefs of your patients - even if you don't agree.

14. What happens to the Ab specificity when class switching occurs in mature B cells?
Cross - sectional studies determine prevalence - not incidence or cause and effect.
competency
As the isotype is switched - the Ab specificity does not change because it does not affect the variable chains.
Increases

15. What is the most common organ involved in amyloidosis?
Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)
Major
Kidney
GLUT 4

16. What is the second cell involved in the immune response?
Disorganized schizophrenia
The CD4 T cell; the APC is the first cell in the immune response.
Hairy cell leukemia
Mebendazole

17. What is the triad of NPH?
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Entamoeba histolytica (treat with metronidazole)
Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH wet - wacky - wobbly)

18. What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
Amiloride
Ileum
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Prolactinoma

19. Name the most common type or cause - Urinary tract obstruction
BPH
In the JG cells of the kidney
overall dopamine activity
90% of benign myxomas arise within the left atrium near the fossa ovalis.

20. What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the TSH receptor?
Graves disease
Primary Hemochromatosis
2 ATPs - because RBCs use only anaerobic metabolism.
Herpes virus

21. What part of the heart forms x Base?
Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus toxin)
The popliteal artery - the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa - risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.
Androgen - binding protein
Left atrium and tip of the right atrium

22. Are bactericidal.
Pro - opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH and Beta- lipotropin.
Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time and increased PT - and vitamin C deficiency has increased bleeding time and normal PT.
Tetracyclines

23. What happens to prevalence as the number of long - term survivors increases?
Alteplase
Scavenger receptor (SR- B1)
Aspartame
Prevalence increases. (Remember - prevalence can decrease in only two ways - recovery and death.)

24. What a1- agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with hypotension?
Chromosome 14 - 18
Metaraminol (a1 - Beta1 )
Sjogren's syndrome - active hepatitis - systemic lupus erythematosus (with HLA- DR2) and type 1 diabetes (with HLA- DR4)
Pregnancy

25. What is the most common one? - Benign lesion that affects the breast
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a Beta- blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better outcomes than those who do not.
Fibrocystic change of the breast
No. Remember - tests do not diagnose - they confirm or refute your diagnosis. Also - diagnosis of MI requires two of three criteria: chest pain consistent and characteristic of MI - elevated cardiac enzymes consistent with MI - and ST segment elevati
Vesicle (e.g. - poison ivy)

26. What X- linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by recurrent infections - severe thrombocytopenia - and eczema?
Kupffer cells
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome
17- alpha - Hydroxylase deficiency
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.

27. What is the most abused drug across all age groups?
Superior
Antimicrobial agents
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a problem with alcohol.

28. On the venous pressure curve - What do the following waves represent? - C wave?
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in gingival hyperplasia)
Ventricular contraction Atrial - Contraction - Venous
Type 2
SLE; ANA - anti - dsDNA and anti - Sm (anti - Smith)

29. What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin - MIF - and androgen - binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly - and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.
The lung will expand; also the opposite is true.
Sertoli cell
Stable angina

30. How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment?
Absolute refractory period is due to voltage inactivation of sodium channels.
Estradiol
Long - term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.
Sleep latency

31. What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?
Henoch - Sch
Depolarization (i.e. - Na+ influx)
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
Adipose tissue

32. What sweat gland type is associated with odor production and hair follicles and is found in the axilla?
Langerhans cells
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla - Areola - and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production) - and if confronted by an APE - your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innerva
Lingual nerve of CN V3
GH and prolactin are produced by acidophils; all others are by basophils.

33. To differentiate central from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus - after an injection of ADH - which will show a decreased urine flow?
As the standard deviation increases - the greater the chance of error.
Antigenic determinant (epitope). (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)
Fibrinous exudates
Central. Remember - there is a deficiency in ADH production in the central form.

34. How many caf
Posterior interventricular artery
PR interval
Primary intention
At least six

35. What gluconeogenic mitochondrial enzyme requires biotin?
Pyruvate carboxylase
Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
Mercury
Semicircular duct

36. What four CN carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
CN III - VII - IX - and X
Hemangioblastoma
Chi - square.
Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes in the DIP joints.

37. What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into?
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly - and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.
Taenia saginata
1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis
The dentate nucleus

38. What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?
Reovirus
Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII.
Syringomyelia
Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.)

39. Require NaCl in its growth medium.
Guillain - Barr
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Down syndrome
Medial pontine syndrome

40. What phase of Interphase is haploid (N)?
Temporal arteritis
Borrelia recurrentis
Chlamydia psittaci
G1 phase; G2 and S phase are diploid (2N).

41. What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by poor wound healing - loose teeth - bleeding gums - petechiae - and ecchymosis?
Mesangial macrophages
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)
Tay- Sachs disease
Beta- Endorphin

42. What five pathways use SAM (S- adenosylmethionine) as the methyl donor?
1. Epinephrine synthesis 2. Phosphatidyl choline 3. Creatine 4. Methylation of cytosine 5. N- methyl cap of mRNA
Neutropenia - splenomegaly - and rheumatoid arthritis
Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic acid
von Hippel - Lindau syndrome

43. What is the term for the number of trinucleotide repeats increasing with successive generations and correlating with increased severity of disease?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

44. What are the three C's of a TCAD overdose?
IgG
Posttraumatic stress disorder. (Important: symptoms must be exhibited for longer than 1 month.)
Coma - convulsions - and cardiotoxicity
3'-5' direction - synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction

45. Name the correct artery - The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Right brachiocephalic artery
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40
Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)

46. 1- a - Hydroxylase activity is increased in response to What two physiologic states? (hint: think of vitamin D activity)
Rigors - leukopenia - decrease in blood pressure - and increase in temperature
Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia
Metabolic acidosis (summary: low pH - high H+ - and low HCO3-)
Ptosis (eyelid drooping) - miosis (pupillary constriction) - and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1- to T4 are obstructed.

47. What term describes the volume of plasma From which a substance is removed over time?
Janeway lesions
Clearance
Decrease (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
Helicobacter pylori - Which is also associated with an increased risk of gastric carcinoma

48. What aminoglycoside causes disruption of CN I?
Picornaviridae
Flucytosine
Streptomycin
Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves

49. What level of mental retardation is characterized by x Having the ability to communicate and learn basic habits but training is usually not helpful?
Severe (range 20-34)
No change in length
Eclipse period
Schistosoma haematobium

50. What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? - Lysosomal glucosidase (acid maltase)

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183