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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Small prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by binary fission
GERD
Bacteria
Clofazimine
Glycine/arginine

2. What is the most common one? - Solid tumor in children
Metformin
ACE inhibitors (- pril)
Neuroblastoma
None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks hydrogen bonds - not covalent bonds.

3. What cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to inhibit Th2 cell function?
INF- gamma
Caplan syndrome
Aromatase
Hydatidiform mole

4. What leukemia is associated with four - leaf - clover lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?
It causes a buildup of dATP - which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate - a precursor of DNA - resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.
It increases REM and total sleep time.
Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Adult T- cell leukemia

5. What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the dorsal surface of the penis?
Epispadia
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism
Proencephalon
Hemosiderin

6. Name the most common cause - Blindness in the United States
Quinolones
Astrocytoma
Diabetes mellitus
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative

7. Waxy casts
Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) 1
LDL
Chronic end - stage renal disease
Giardia lamblia (treat with metronidazole)

8. What paraphilia is defined as x Deriving sexual pleasure from being abused or in pain?
Confounding bias
Oxygen
Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids)
Masochism

9. What three substances stimulate parietal cells?
Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery
Fluconazole
ACh - histamine - and gastrin
Stage 2 - which accounts for approximately 45% of total sleep time - with REM occupying 20%.

10. With which DNA virus are Guarnieri bodies associated?
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin - ACh - and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.
Endometriosis
LCO - an index of lung surface area and membrane thickness - is decreased in fibrosis because of increased membrane thickness and decreased in emphysema because of increased surface area without increase in capillary recruitment; in exercise there is
Variola (smallpox)

11. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Esophagus
Superior and posterior
Middle
IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - and IgM
Because the chronic inhibition of dopamine (PIF) on the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland is removed - thereby increasing the secretion of prolactin.

12. What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14 days long?
Encapsulated bacteria
Anterior compartment of the thigh - femoral nerve
The secretory phase is progesterone - dependent and 14 days long - whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
Lung recoil - being a force to collapse the lung - increases as the lung enlarges during inspiration.

13. What triggers phase 3 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
Acetazolamide
Methionine (start) and tryptophan are the only two AAs with only one codon.
Rapid efflux of potassium
Four high energy bonds - two from ATP in AA activation and two from GTP

14. Based on the following information - is the renal transplantation rejection acute - chronic - or hyperacute? - Immediately after transplantation; seen as a neutrophilic vasculitis with thrombosis
delta - Cells; somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on alpha - and Beta - islet cells.
Hyperacute rejection
Naloxone - naltrexone
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly - and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.

15. What is the name of inflammation of the prepatellar bursa?

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16. What component of the cardiovascular system has the largest blood volume? Second largest blood volume?
Cryptococcus neoformans
The systemic veins have the largest blood volume - and the pulmonary veins have the second largest blood volume in the cardiovascular system. They represent the reservoirs of circulation.
Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) or human placental lactogen (hPL)
Iron (Fe)

17. What is the fastest - conducting fiber of the heart? Slowest conduction fiber in the heart?
Sj
Purkinje cell is the fastest - and the AV node is the slowest.
HBcAb and HBeAb. You see the antibodies c and e.
Uric acid

18. Name the DNA virus x Linear dsDNA; enveloped; virion - associated polymerases; replicates in the cytoplasm :
Niemann - Pick and Tay- Sachs diseases
Peyer's patch
Poxvirus
Shine - Dalgarno sequence

19. What are the eight liver - specific enzymes?
Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase 8. Glucose -6- phosphatase
RSV
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1 - and they inhibit GH secretion. GHRH stimulates GH secretion.

20. What level of mental retardation is characterized by x Can work in sheltered workshops and learn simple tasks but need supervision?
Histrionic
The oncotic pressure of plasma promotes reabsorption and is directly proportional to the filtration fraction.
Moderate (35-49)
None; they are the storage sites for ADH and oxytocin.

21. What is the term for the number of Ag - binding sites on an Ig?
Valence
Chromium (Cr)
Cytochrome a/a3
Stercobilin

22. What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infections resulting in permanent airway dilation and associated with Kartagener syndrome?
Chromosome 5 - 21
Rifampin
Bronchiectasis
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet

23. What class of pharmaceuticals are inactive until they are metabolized to their active products?
Prodrugs
MI
Enterokinase
Primary follicle of the cortex

24. What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is synthesized by platelets?
Osteosarcoma
Pedophilia
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
TXA2

25. What is the triad of fat embolism?
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g. - long bone fracture)
Catalase - negative bacteria secrete H2O2 as a byproduct (remember - catalase breaks down H2O2) - allowing the neutrophils to use it as the substrate for the other toxic metabolites. Patients with CGD are prone to catalase - positive bacterial infect
Under resting conditions expiration is considered a passive process; therefore - no muscles are used. In the active state the abdominal muscles can be considered the major muscle of expiration.
It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and increases bone mineralization.

26. What hormone is secreted into the plasma in response to a meal rich in protein or CHO?
3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' end.
Aspiration pneumonia
Insulin
secondary immune response

27. What subunit of hCG is used to detect whether a patient is pregnant?
The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high venous PO2) difference in the body because of the overperfusion of the kidneys resulting from filtration.
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels
The Beta- subunit; remember - the a - subunit is nonspecific.
The odontoid process of C2

28. Name the most common type - Phobia
Heart disease
Hydralazine
In the mouth with salivary a - amylase (ptyalin)
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)

29. All spore formers are...
Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight
Oxygen
gram positive
Glucose and galactose

30. What is the relationship between chance of error and x Standard deviation?
Secondary hypoparathyroidism (vitamin D toxicity)
As the standard deviation increases - the greater the chance of error.
Succinyl CoA
GP41

31. What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
Lead
Alcohol consumption
Anterior tibial artery
Pearson correlation

32. Name the T- cell CD marker: x Essential for Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)
The internal laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information from above the vocal cords while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information below.
Macule (e.g. - a freckle)
CD40 ligand
Niacin (B3)

33. What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?
An increase in serum glucose levels
Lumbar splanchnics
Oxygen
Metastatic calcification

34. Regarding the venous system - what happens to blood volume if there is a small change in pressure?
Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterial vessels - small changes in pressure result in large changes in blood volume.
Isolation of affect
Middle meningeal artery
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember - they come out of the blue.)

35. What is the only way to increase the Vmax of a reaction?
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation
VIPoma
Increase the concentration of enzymes
The alveoli at the apex are almost completely inflated prior to inflation - and although they are large - they receive low levels of alveolar ventilation.

36. What are the five effects of insulin on fat metabolism?
1. Increased glucose uptake by fat cells 2. Increased triglyceride uptake by fat cells 3. Increased conversion of CHOs into fat 4. Decreased lipolysis in fat tissue 5. Decreased ketone body formation
Increases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Yolk sac tumor
Squamous cell carcinoma

37. What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parasitic worms?
Osteopetrosis (Albers - Sch
Type II
Major basic protein
Physostigmine

38. What type of correlation compares two interval variables?
Pearson correlation
Hydroxyapatite
Internal carotid artery
Clostridium botulinum

39. Name these immature defense mechanisms: x Returning to an earlier stage of development (e.g. - enuresis)
cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA - are continuous - and contain no introns or regulatory elements.
Schizotypal
Femoral hernias
Regression

40. What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a peripheral blood smear?
NADPH and molecular O 2
Ticlopidine or clopidogrel
Urogenital folds
Hypersegmented neutrophils

41. At What age does a child develop x Preferential smile?

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42. What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?
Homogentisic oxidase
Ethacrynic acid
NADPH oxidase
Inferior phrenic artery

43. What antidepressant - which recently was approved for general anxiety disorder - inhibits the reuptake of NE and 5- HT?
Cytochrome b/c1
Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic effect.)
Positive
Velocity is inversely related to cross - sectional area.

44. What virus is associated with body cavity large B- cell lymphomas?
HHV-8
Lymphoblastic lymphoma
hCG
Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig levels.

45. What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?
Nucleus pulposus
Hemorrhagic exudates
CN IV
Herpes virus

46. What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor components of the light reflex?
The V/Q ratio increases - since the area is ventilated but hypoperfused as a result of the occlusion.
CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor component through parasympathetic stimulation.
Eclipse period
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative

47. What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery?
S phase
Rheumatoid arthritis
Pneumocystis carinii
Left colic - superior rectal - and sigmoidal arteries

48. Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information - Naked capsid RNA picornavirus
VIPoma
Metastatic
Hepatitis A
Hyperkalemia

49. What two HIV regulatory genes down - regulate MHC class I expression in the host?
PTH
nef and tat genes
Minor
Serocystadenocarcinoma

50. Name the MCC of death - In diabetic individuals
Huntington disease
Functions of hepatocytes
CN IX - X - and XI; sigmoid sinus
MI