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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What tumor is derived from primitive streak remnants and often contains bone - hair - or other tissue types?
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
The pH of CSF is 7.33 - acidotic.
Nondominant temporal lobe
2. What is the most common one? - Cancer of the vulva
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mitochondria
Aspiration
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)
3. What cell type of the epidermis functions as antigen - presenting cells?
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)
Diverticulosis
Phallus - urogenital folds - and labioscrotal swellings
4. What bone disorder is characterized by brown tumors - bone pain - deformities - and fractures due to excessive PTH?
CD19
Neurofibromatosis
1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions - and only cells with bound Ag undergo clonal expansion
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)
5. What immunologic test checks for a reaction between Abs and a particular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)
Water soluble
Agglutination test
Sheehan syndrome
S phase
6. What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated MCV?
Id (pleasure principle)
Verbigeration
Luteal phase
Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency
7. What three cephalosporins have good penetration against Bacteroides fragilis?
HBsAb IgG
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
The rate of infusion
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
8. What is the MCC of viral conjunctivitis?
Adenovirus
Celiac sprue (gluten - sensitive enteropathy)
>5 mm
Streptomycin
9. Name the DNA virus x Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Doxycycline and minocycline
Cytochrome a/a3
Herpes virus
Risperidone
10. What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone?
Glutamate
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)
Osteocyte
11. Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: x Open at rest; depolarization is stimulus to close; begin to reopen during the plateau phase and during repolarization
Galactoside permease
Voltage - gated potassium channels
Unconjugated (indirect)
Howell - Jolly bodies
12. What is the teratogenic effect associated with lithium?
Epstein - cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve
Target cell
Pompe's disease
Beta2- Adrenergic agents
13. What fat - soluble vitamin is connected to selenium metabolism?
P1 protein
Northern blot
Vitamin E
Mumps
14. What is the rate - limiting step of the following? - Ketogenolysis
Cardiac output
Head of the pancreas
Chromosome 11p
HMG CoA synthase
15. From What embryonic structure are the following structures derived? - The right and left ventricles
Small to medium - sized cerebral vessels
Preload. It is the load on a muscle Prior to contraction.
Primary hypoparathyroidism
Primitive ventricle
16. Is DM a contraindication to use of a Beta- blocker in a patient who is having an MI?
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a Beta- blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better outcomes than those who do not.
Concentration gradient
Erythromycin
The surface of the medulla
17. What two factors result in the base of the lung being hyperperfused?
Increased pulmonary arterial pressure (high perfusion) and more distensible vessels (low resistance) result in increased blood flow at the base.
Keratinocytes - the most numerous cells in the epidermis - carry melanin and produce keratin.
Chronic alcoholic
Foscarnet
18. What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for metabolic alkalosis?
CMV - Toxoplasma gondii - and Listeria
Hypoventilation - which increases CO2 - shifting the reaction to the right and increasing H+
Upper third skeletal muscle - middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle - and lower third smooth muscle
Adenovirus
19. What disease is described by the following characteristics: multiple motor and vocal tics - average age of onset 7 - a M:F ratio of 3:1 - and association with increased levels of dopamine?
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20. What branch off the vertebral artery supplies x The ventrolateral two - thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?
Huntington disease
<2
The concentration of plasma proteins determines effective osmolarity because capillary membranes are freely permeable to all substances except proteins.
Anterior spinal artery
21. What test uses very small amounts of DNA that can be amplified and analyzed without the use of Southern blotting or cloning?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)
PCR
Voltage - gated sodium channel
>10 mm
22. What is the direction of growth for the primitive streak - caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?
Rigors - leukopenia - decrease in blood pressure - and increase in temperature
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
The primitive streak grows caudal to rostral.
M12 strains
23. How many milliliters of O2 per milliliter of blood?
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization - ischemia - aging - and a host of other causes.
Metronidazole
0.2
<2
24. What is the effect of hypoventilation on cerebral blood flow?
Superior vena cava
Hypoventilation results in an increase in PCO2 levels and therefore an increase in blood flow.
Follicular phase
Glioblastoma multiforme
25. What phobia is described as the fear of open spaces?
Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of humiliation or hopelessness.
Mycoplasma
Buffers (remember that buffers are best when they are used in a pH range near its pK)
Fo/F1 complex
26. What prion - associated CNS pathology produces rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus - involuntary movements - and death within 6 to 12 months?
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).
Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease
Palms - up before palms - down maneuvers
Vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine)
27. What triggers phase 3 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
Hydatidiform mole
Rapid efflux of potassium
Impaired ejaculation
urease positive
28. What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the TCA cycle?
Succinyl CoA
Fibrinous exudates
Major
CSF H+ levels - with acidosis being the main central drive - resulting in hyperventilation (the opposite being true with alkalosis)
29. What is the only way to increase the Vmax of a reaction?
Antigenic determinant (epitope). (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)
All
Increase the concentration of enzymes
Beta- Hydroxybutyrate
30. What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? - Loss of adduction of the thigh
Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell maturation.)
Eisenmenger's syndrome
Obturator nerve
Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)
31. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: x Person takes his or her own feelings - beliefs - wishes - and so on and thinks they are someone else's. (e.g. - a cheating man thinks his wife is unfaithful)
Parasympathetics (parasympathetics point - sympathetics shoot)
Projection
Leptospira
Renal circulation
32. Where does the conversion of CO2 into HCO3- take place?
Gubernaculum
Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)
In the RBC; remember - you need carbonic anhydrase for the conversion - and plasma does not have this enzyme.
Saccule and utricle
33. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4 lymphocytes or monocytes - the ___________ is always considered abnormal.
presence of PMNs
First - pass effect
Concentration gradient
Erectile dysfunction
34. What components of the coagulation cascade are affected by estrogen?
80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)
Wernicke's encephalopathy
Female pseudohermaphrodite
Estrogen can result in a hypercoagulable state because of the decrease in AT III and increase in factors II - VII - IX - and X.
35. What are the three microscopic pathologic changes seen in Alzheimer's disease?
Pulse pressure
Senile plaques - neurofibrillary tangles - and granulovascular changes in neurons
Fc portion of IgG - C3b - and mannose - binding proteins
Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone - whereas Cushing's syndrome (adrenal adenoma) has decreased ACTH and no cortisol suppression with dexamethasone.
36. What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area involving only the inner layers?
EF- Tu or EF- ts and GTP
Clostridium perfringens
Pott disease
Mural infarct
37. What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?
Previous suicide attempt
Erythema multiforme
Keratinocytes - the most numerous cells in the epidermis - carry melanin and produce keratin.
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane
38. What is the DOC for esophageal candidiasis?
Fluconazole
Psoriasis
Osteoblasts - which in turn stimulate osteoclasts to break down bone - releasing Ca2+ into the interstitium. (Remember - blasts make - clasts take.)
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
39. Name the ocular lesion; be specific - Right calcarine cortex lesion
Hematoxylin
M 2
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Renal circulation
40. What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of the tibia - epiphyseal enlargements - and costochondral widening - with the endochondral bones being affected?
Dopamine
Under normal resting conditions no - but they are strongly stimulated when PO2 arterial levels decrease to 50 to 60 mm Hg - resulting in increased ventilatory drive.
Rickets
They are inversely proportional to each other; as pulse pressure increases - compliance decreases.
41. Name the associated chromosome - Albinism
G0 phase
Histone acetylases is a regulator favoring gene expression. All of the others favor inactivation.
Chromosome 11p
Atracurium
42. What ovarian disease involves psammoma bodies?
Ulnar to radial progression
Serocystadenocarcinoma
Doxacurium
Lead - time bias (remember - patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)
43. Innervate the striated muscle of the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernous muscles and result in ejaculation of semen.
CMV retinitis and HSV-2
Hepatitis D
Succinyl CoA synthetase
Somatic motor neurons
44. Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining - Smooth and linear pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
Plasmodium falciparum
Goodpasture disease
Itraconazole
45. What is the most common one? - Malignancy in children
Dorsal prefrontal cortex
All
Methylene blue
M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)
46. What pathology is associated with deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than 50 years?
Minoxidil (orally and topically - respectively!)
Pseudogout
Keratinocytes - the most numerous cells in the epidermis - carry melanin and produce keratin.
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
47. What is the rule of one - third regarding muscle type of the esophagus?
Healing by secondary intention
Upper third skeletal muscle - middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle - and lower third smooth muscle
Ungated channels
Dimercaprol - penicillamine
48. What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations of the PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in the fifth decade with abdominal masses - flank pain - hematuria - HTN - and renal insufficiency?
Primary hypogonadism (postmenopausal women)
Superior and posterior
Uroporphyrinogen - I synthase
Adult polycystic kidney disease
49. Lewy bodies
Renal cell carcinoma
Parkinson disease
Superficial spreading melanoma
LH
50. Neurofibrillary tangles
PPRF
Upper third skeletal muscle - middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle - and lower third smooth muscle
The sandfly
Alzheimer disease
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