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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name the type of exudate - given the following examples - Uremic pericarditis
Closure of the aortic valve indicates the termination of the ejection phase and the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
Motor nucleus of CN V
Fibrinous exudates
Hemorrhagic exudates

2. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Aortic arch
Riboflavin (B2)
Superior
Adjustment disorder. It is a diagnosis of exclusion (used if no other choice).
env structural protein

3. What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? - ICF
Chromosome 15
For males it's prostate cancer - and for females it's breast cancer.
28 L - 40% of body weight
Leiomyoma

4. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase
Northern blot
Prostate cancer
Transverse abdominis
Chromosome 9 - 22 (Philadelphia chromosome)

5. At the level of rib 6 - the internal thoracic artery divides into What two arteries?
Hormone secretion for T- cell differentiation and T- cell education to recognize self from nonself
Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high - step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.
Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries
IQ

6. What are the five Ig isotypes?
The greater the myelination - the greater the conduction velocity.
CN VII and VIII
IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - and IgM
EBV infections resulting in infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the Monospot test. (Remember - it may be negative in the first week of the illness - so retest if you have a high index of suspicion.)

7. What is the name of the protein coat that surrounds the nuclear envelope?
Two - way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time.
Vimentin
CN XI - vertebral arteries
Median (think of it as the halfway point)

8. What are the three characteristics of ADHD?
Niemann - Pick and Tay- Sachs diseases
Streptococcus pneumoniae
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
Skin - liver - and kidneys

9. What is the most common one? - Neoplastic tumor in the lungs
CD4+T cells
Metastatic carcinomas
MGB (think EARS)
G-6- PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase deficiency is second.

10. What T- cell surface projection recognizes and reacts to foreign Ags (presented by APCs)?
M12 strains
TCR
Ptosis (eyelid drooping) - miosis (pupillary constriction) - and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1- to T4 are obstructed.
Varicella

11. What is the signal to open the voltage - gated transmembrane potassium channels?
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these slow channels - and if they are prevented from opening - it will slow down the repolarization phase.
Purkinje cell is the fastest - and the AV node is the slowest.
Zoophilia
CN II and ophthalmic artery

12. Name the Hgb - O2 binding site based on the following information: x Requires a PO2 level of 40 mm Hg to remain attached
Site 3
Mebendazole
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)
Peau d'orange

13. To what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach?
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis
ACh receptor
Chromium (Cr)

14. Is excretion greater than or less than filtration for net secretion to occur?
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion to occur.
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff's syndrome.
PTH

15. What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?
Vitreous humor
Tetany
HGPRT
Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3

16. What three steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?
1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. a - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Fossa ovale
Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)

17. Activates the histidine operon.
Histidine
Parkinson's disease
Internal carotid artery
IgE

18. What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?
Multiple myeloma
Melanoma - cancer of the stomach and bladder
Metastatic calcification
Planning and fine - tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember - the function of the basal ganglia is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.

19. What complex is needed for propionyl CoA carboxylase?
Amnesia. (The person is aware of the memory loss.)
Bacillus anthracis
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
Clozapine

20. What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?
Thyroid gland
Mild (50-70)
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Viral meningitis

21. How many covalent bonds per purine - pyrimidine base pairing are broken during denaturation of dsDNA?
Chief cells
Variola virus (Smallpox)
None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks hydrogen bonds - not covalent bonds.
Common peroneal nerve

22. What area of the female reproductive tract is lined by stratified squamous epithelium rich in |glycogen?
Lipid - soluble hormones are considered slow - acting hormones.
Astrocytes
UMP
The vagina

23. What three factors increase simple diffusion?
Leuprolide
MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome)
CN V
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane

24. What is the name of the process in which cells migrate toward an attractant along a concentration gradient?
Sheehan syndrome
Chemotaxis
Proton pump inhibitors
Spearman correlation

25. In a ventricular pacemaker cell - what phase of the action potential is affected by ACh?
HIV and poxvirus
Variola virus (Smallpox)
MGB (think EARS)
Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via increasing potassium conductance - taking longer to reach threshold and slowing the rate of firing.

26. What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?
The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic acid - Which is also the principal neurotransmitter of the visual pathways.
Kayser - Fleischer rings
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
Primary biliary cirrhosis

27. Which phase of clinical drug testing includes postmarket reporting of adverse reactions?
Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) syndrome
Phase 4
Phosphofructokinase -1 and costs 1 ATP
Neisseria meningitidis

28. Which two negative sense RNA viruses have neuraminidase enzymes?
The subclavian artery
Helicase (requires ATP for energy)
HBcAb IgM - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg
Mumps and influenza virus

29. What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions containing ?- synuclein found in the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra?
Lewy bodies
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
A positive PPD skin test
Bainbridge reflex

30. What is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin?
Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium.
Pregnancy
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency (Folic acid deficiency has only homocystinuria as a sign.)
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.

31. What cell of the duodenum secretes CCK?
Enteroendocrine (EE) cells; they also secrete secretin.
Celecoxib
Dysplasia
Sciatic nerve

32. What three muscles constitute the erector spinae?

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33. Where do adult tapeworms develop - in the intermediate or definitive host?
C1 through C4
MI
Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host - whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host.
Albumin

34. What malabsorption syndrome produces abdominal distention - bloating - flatulence - diarrhea - steatorrhea - and weight loss shortly after eating bread products?
Celiac sprue (gluten - sensitive enteropathy)
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Epispadia
Antimicrobial agents

35. What is the effect of T3 on heart rate and cardiac output?
Clozapine
Severe (range 20-34)
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by increasing the number of Beta - receptors and their sensitivity to catecholamines.
Afterload

36. What virus lies dormant in the x Dorsal root ganglia?
Protein A
Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Varicella
GnRH constant infusion

37. What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?
Fever - night sweats - and hemoptysis
Disulfiram
By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep
Secondary hyperthyroidism (Increased TSH results in increased T4 production and increased negative feedback on to hypothalamus and decreased release of TRH.)

38. What do UMNs innervate?
Barbiturate overdose and benzodiazepine withdrawal carry the highest mortality rates.
They innervate LMNs.
Goodpasture syndrome
Under normal resting conditions no - but they are strongly stimulated when PO2 arterial levels decrease to 50 to 60 mm Hg - resulting in increased ventilatory drive.

39. What general pattern of sleep is described by slowing of EEG rhythms (high voltage and slower synchronization) - muscle contractions - and lack of eye movement or mental activity?
NREM sleep. Remember awake body - sleeping brain
Ungated channels
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
Western blot

40. What organ is responsible for the elimination of excess nitrogen from the body?
The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen from the body as urea in the urine.
Clavicle - acromion - and glenoid fossa of the scapula and the humerus
greater
Gangrenous necrosis

41. What antiarrhythmic agent is the DOC for treating and diagnosing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) and AV nodal arrhythmias?
Leuprolide
Schistocytes
Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic pathway
Adenosine (it is an excellent agent to use in emergencies because its half - life is 30 seconds)

42. What syndrome results if the enzyme ?-1- iduronidase is deficient? L- iduronate sulfatase deficiency?
During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3- L4 - with the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark. Order of puncture: 1. Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep fascia 4. Supraspino
Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome - respectively
The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.
Recovery and death

43. What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? - Ovary - follicles - rete ovarii
Monosodium urate crystals
Gonads
Stratum spinosum
Superior vena cava

44. What syndrome is characterized by embryologic failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches resulting in hypocalcemia - tetany - and T- cell deficiency?
Schizotypal
Plasmodium vivax
DiGeorge syndrome
Waldenstr

45. What subset of CD4 helper T cells stimulate B- cell division and differentiation?
Labioscrotal swelling
Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery
Th2
CO

46. What agent used in the treatment of BPH and baldness is a 5- a - reductase inhibitor?
Finasteride
Clonidine
From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes.
Staphylococcus aureus

47. What is the most common one? - Form of vasculitis
Ultralente
Liver - kidney - and GI epithelium
Pontocerebellar angle syndrome
Temporal arteritis

48. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Paclitaxel
Scavenger receptor (SR- B1)
Mitosis
Iatrogenesis
M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)

49. What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?
Antisocial
Rifampin
Squamous cell carcinoma
Normal values

50. What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with x Muscarinic receptors (ACh)?
Site 2
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Mode
Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy persons have them - but schizophrenics do not.