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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Have analgesic - antipyretic - anti - inflammatory - and antiplatelet activities.
Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Aspartate transcarbamylase
Chemotaxis
NSAIDs

2. Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.

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3. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - RNA
Northern blot
Varicella
Lactulose
Axon hillock

4. Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: x Tenses the vocal ligaments - increasing the distance between the cartilages - thereby increasing the pitch
Hematogenous
Cricothyroid muscles
Histiocytosis X
Hematoxylin

5. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Left subclavian artery
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
Superior
Thymine
Enterococcus faecalis

6. What percentage of children born to HIV- positive mothers will test positive for HIV at birth?
Major
cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA - are continuous - and contain no introns or regulatory elements.
Panacinar
100% - with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year

7. Name the associated chromosome - Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia - a transport defect
Haemophilus ducreyi
Arthroconidia with hyphae
Chromosome 12

8. Neurofibrillary tangles
Osteosarcoma
Alzheimer disease
Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)

9. Name the cluster C personality disorder: x Orderly - inflexible - perfectionist; makes rules - lists - order; doesn't like change - has a poor sense of humor - and needs to keep a routine
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
Obsessive - compulsive
HBsAg (incubation period)
Chromosome 4p

10. The left subclavian artery is a branch of What artery?
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea - athetoid movements - progressive dementia - and behavioral problems.
Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients with alcaptonuria.
The left is a branch of the aortic arch - while the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk.
CD16 and CD56

11. Require NaCl in its growth medium.
Decrease (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome
Carbonic anhydrase
Vibrio parahaemolyticus

12. Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? - Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid - pheochromocytoma - and mucocutaneous neuromas
Surface tension; in the alveoli - it is a force that acts to collapse the lung.
MEN III (or IIb)
No - it is not a mandatory reportable offense (if you can believe it). Child and elderly abuse are mandatory reportable offenses.
HBc Ab

13. What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response - the reinforcement is given x On a set time schedule?
Fixed interval
Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.
Aminoacyl - tRNA synthetase - which uses 2 ATPs for this reaction.
Ulnar to radial progression

14. Name the MCC - Aspiration pneumonia in an alcoholic
TXA2
Klebsiella pneumoniae
The splenic vein
Iron deficiency anemia

15. What small gram - positive - non - spore - forming rod is a facultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is associated with unpasteurized milk products?
Tinea favosa (favus)
Kidney
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
Listeria monocytogenes

16. Name the four components of the narcoleptic tetrad.
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Ethacrynic acid
1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic hallucinations (while falling asleep) 3. Sleep attacks with excessive daytime sleepiness 4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic) Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep - with REM occurring within 10 minutes of sleep.

17. What cell in chronic inflammation is derived from blood monocytes?
Macrophages
Areas 1 - 2 - and 3
Rhombencephalon
Orotic acid (purine metabolism)

18. Avidin decreases the absorption of what vitamin?
The enzyme lysyl oxidase requires Cu2+and O2 to function properly.
Agranulocytosis; approximately 2% develop this side effect.
Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
Cancer

19. How much dietary iodine is necessary to maintain normal thyroid hormone secretion?
Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second (Remember - it is mandatory to report STDs to the CDC.)
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Most people ingest 500 mcg/day.
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
Anterior compartment of the leg - deep peroneal nerve

20. Name the B- cell CD marker: x Receptor for EBV
Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
Cortisol Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
Epidural hematoma
CD21; it is a complement receptor for cleaved C3

21. The clearance of what substance is the gold standard of GFR?
Inulin
Homicide. It is also the leading cause of death in black females aged 15 to 24.
Exhibitionism
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.

22. What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin - Johnson syndrome?
Sphingomyelinase
Volume of distribution is decreased when a large percentage of drug is protein bound.
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia - a transport defect
Round and ovarian ligaments

23. What female genital tract disorder is characterized by obesity - hirsutism - infertility - amenorrhea - elevated LH and testosterone levels - and low FSH levels?
Anticentromere Abs
Hydatidiform mole
Polycystic ovary disease (Stein - Leventhal syndrome)
Crohn disease

24. Name the most common type - Specific phobia
CN V - VI - VII - and VIII
Positive reinforcement
Public speaking (Remember: stage fright)
B lymphocyte

25. Measles - mumps - varicella zoster - and Francisella tularensis.
Are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States
Celiac - aorticorenal - and superior mesenteric ganglias. (Remember all ' Splanchnics' are Sympathetic except for the Pelvic splanchnics - which are Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers.)
REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.
Oxytocin

26. What are the two functions of the thymus in T- cell differentiation?
Hormone secretion for T- cell differentiation and T- cell education to recognize self from nonself
Parafollicular C cells
The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)
Insulin

27. What tract carries unconscious proprioceptive information from the Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles to the cerebellum - helping monitor and modulate muscle movements?
Corticospinal tract
Hairy cell leukemia
Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk and extremity information travels in the cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and fasciculus cuneatus both apply to upper extremities.)
CN VI - VII - and VIII

28. Based on operant conditioning - What type of reinforcement is described when x Adding a stimulus reinforces a behavior?
Positive reinforcement
Leydig cell tumor
Affinity (one of each)
Common and internal carotid arteries

29. What is the main factor determining GFR?
Sympathetic chain ganglion
Coxsackie A
Glomerular capillary pressure (increased glomerular capillary pressure - increased GFR and vice versa)
IgA nephropathy

30. What disease is seen in the 20- to 40-year - old age group - is more prevalent in women than men - involves diarrhea with or without bloody stools - starts in the rectum and ascends without skipping areas - includes pseudopolyps - and has a thickness
Ulcerative colitis
Stroke volume
Clostridium perfringens
Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance No - they can be skipped - repeated - and completed out of sequence.

31. Name the antidote - Ethylene glycol
Ethyl alcohol
Anti - HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti - HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.
Separation anxiety
C- peptide levels

32. What hormone has the following effects: chondrogenic in the epiphyseal end plates of bones; increases AA transport for protein synthesis; increases hydroxyproline (collagen); and increases chondroitin sulfate synthesis?
Left atrial myxoma
GH - especially IGF-1. GH also increases the incorporation of thymidine in DNA synthesis and uridine in RNA synthesis.
Thymus - independent Ags
pH of 2 and 9

33. What is the major muscle used in the relaxed state of expiration?
Pearson correlation
Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone - whereas Cushing's syndrome (adrenal adenoma) has decreased ACTH and no cortisol suppression with dexamethasone.
Under resting conditions expiration is considered a passive process; therefore - no muscles are used. In the active state the abdominal muscles can be considered the major muscle of expiration.
Impotence

34. Protein production - bile secretion - detoxification - conjugation - and lipid storage.
Functions of hepatocytes
Indirect hernia passes in the inguinal canal; a direct hernia passes directly through Hesselbach's triangle.
Penicillin G (benzylpenicillin)
Yes

35. What happens to the resistance of the system when a resistor is added in a series?
GP41
epithelial lining
Homicide. It is also the leading cause of death in black females aged 15 to 24.
Resistance of the system increases. (Remember - when resistors are connected in a series - the total of the resistance is the sum of the individual resistances.)

36. What cerebral vessel size is affected in patients with vascular dementia?
Yolk sac tumor
Volkmann's contracture
Ionized drugs are water soluble - and since only lipid - soluble drugs can cross biomembranes - an ionized drug cannot cross them without the help of a carrier.
Small to medium - sized cerebral vessels

37. What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Ampulla
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)

38. What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival rates?

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39. What viral infection in patients with sickle cell anemia results in aplastic crisis?
42 L - 67% of body weight
Methanol (wood alcohol)
8 weeks (response to a face)
Parvovirus B 19

40. What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests x The efficacy and occurrence of side effects in large group of patient volunteers?
Serum 25- hydroxy- vitamin D (25- OH- D)
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor is inhibitory.
Phase III. It is considered the definitive test.
Asparagine

41. What is the most common one? - Tumor arising within the bone
Apoptosis (Remember - there is a lack of inflammatory response.)
They are inversely proportional to each other; as pulse pressure increases - compliance decreases.
The alveolar PO2 and PCO2 levels
Multiple myeloma

42. Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information - Enveloped RNA flavivirus
Osteoclasts
Staphylococcus aureus
Variable ratio If it is based on time - it is an interval - and if it is based on the number of responses - it is a ratio.
Hepatitis C

43. What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA- B27- positive young females and presents with the triad of conjunctivitis - urethritis - and arthritis affecting the knees and ankles?
Methanol
Reiter syndrome
Arboviruses (bunyavirus - flavivirus - and togavirus)
Breast and lung cancer - respectively.

44. What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in x Tay- Sachs disease?
Fentanyl
Somatomedins
Hexosaminidase A
Lysosomal a -1 - 4- glucosidase

45. What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to epiphyseal fusion?
2 ATPs - via the amino acyl tRNA synthase enzyme
Rickets prior to fusion - osteomalacia if the deficiency occurs after epiphyseal fusion.
About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered - approximately half of REM is recovered - and only one - third of total sleep is ever made up.
At birth (reflex)

46. What are the three causes of normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?
Resistance decreases as resistors are added in parallel.
Marrow failure - cancer - and leukemia
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Left coronary artery

47. What drug - if given during pregnancy - would cause the uterus to exhibit signs of progesterone withdrawal and induce an abortion?
Shortens
RU 486
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism
Incidence rate

48. With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure - what happens to x TPR?
Intrapleural pressure decreases (becomes more negative).
Thrombus
Decreases
Measurement bias

49. What is the most common one? - Primary malignant tumor of the lungs
Somatomedins (IGF-1)
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
Type III
epithelial lining

50. Goodpasture Ag is a component of What type of collagen?
Target cell
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)
Type IV collagen
M 2