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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: x Found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissues
Afterload
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
GLUT 4
The negative charge inhibits the filtration of protein anions.

2. When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into the embryo?
6 weeks 10 weeks
Phase 4
The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture.
Chromosome 11p

3. Name the antidote - Cyanide
Amyl nitrate - sodium nitrate - or sodium thiosulfate
Fluconazole
Chromosome 11p
Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.)

4. What case is best known for use of the 'best interest standard'?

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5. Which serotypes of HPV are associated with plantar warts?
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases
HPV serotypes 1 and 4
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful) - which lies closest to the midline of the spinal cord.
Folic acid deficiency

6. What determines the rate of a reaction?
The energy of activation (Ea)
Resistance and vessel length are proportionally related. The greater the length of the vessel - the greater the resistance is on the vessel.
Hematoxylin
Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is the same as impotence.)

7. What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR - RPF - FF - and glomerular capillary pressure? - GFR ? - RPF ? - FF normal - capillary pressure ?
Ungated potassium channel
Dilation of afferent arteriole
GnRH constant infusion
Native Americans

8. Which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched with pigeon droppings?
Rifampin
Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)
Squamous cell carcinoma
Cryptococcus neoformans

9. Name the most common cause - Croup
Parainfluenza virus
Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3
Testicular lymphoma
Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)

10. Which PG is associated with maintaining a PDA?
Altruism
emancipates
By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin - ACh - and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.

11. What structure of the knee is described thus? - Prevents anterior displacement and has lateral - to - medial attachment on the tibia
Krukenberg tumor
Intrapleural pressure at the base is -2.5 cm H2O (more positive than the mean) - resulting in a force to collapse the alveoli.
ACL
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes

12. What test is done to diagnose CGD?
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
Infection
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG - IgA - or IgE on its surface.

13. Unconsciously forgetting(forgetting that you forgot something!)
Ependymoma
Repression
G- C rich sequences - because they have 3 hydrogen bonds - where A- T has 2 hydrogen bonds - resulting in higher melting points.
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)

14. What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?
HBeAg
Alzheimer disease
Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery
The small subunit (40S) binds first.

15. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Cartilage abnormalities
Measurement bias
Alcoholics Anonymous
Quinolones
From the wall of the yolk sac

16. Name the most common type or cause - Chronic metal poisoning
Lead
Reverse transcriptase
Sideroblastic anemia
Mesangial macrophages

17. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Controls distal musculature?
Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)
Intermediate part of the hemispheres
At least 15%
PRPP aminotransferase

18. WBCs in the urine
Acute cystitis
Increase (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
IgG4
The raphe nuclei

19. Can a physician commit a patient?
Fo/F1 complex
NO!! Remember - only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).
Copper deficiency
Chi - square.

20. A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis; What is the most likely offending organism?
Mycobacterium marinum
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Hydroxyapatite
Ristocetin

21. What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infections resulting in permanent airway dilation and associated with Kartagener syndrome?
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.
Prinzmetal variant angina
Mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma
Bronchiectasis

22. What is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's disease?
IgD; IgM is also correct.
Selegiline
Ego
PGE (along with low oxygen tension)

23. Is derived from the ventral wall of the foregut.
Wegener granulomatosis
The resting membrane potential of the cell is -90 mV because of the intracellular proteins.
Chorda tympani of CN VII
The respiratory system

24. What condition results in the following CSF results? - Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90% PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120
Lateral collateral ligament
Cross - sectional studies determine prevalence - not incidence or cause and effect.
Bacterial meningitis
The surface of the medulla

25. What is the triad of NPH?
Klinefelter syndrome
Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH wet - wacky - wobbly)
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium - phosphorus - and alkaline phosphatase.
Metabolic alkalosis (summary: high pH - low H+ and high HCO3-)

26. What small gram - negative facultative intracellular rod is transmitted to human host by Dermacentor tick bite?
Isograft
Quinolones
The alveolar PO2 and PCO2 levels
Francisella tularensis

27. Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: x Found in liver and pancreatic Beta- cells
Flumazenil
It forms a germinal tube at 37
GLUT 2
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)

28. What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? - Urinary bladder and urethra
Subclavian vein
Fanconi - like syndrome
Dominant temporal lobe
Urogenital sinus

29. How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol intoxication?
Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal
MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome)
Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
Ampicillin and amoxicillin

30. Name the most common cause - Insomnia
Stable
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
VSD - RVH - overriding aorta - and pulmonary stenosis
Depression

31. Metformin is contraindicated in ________ because of weight gain as its side effect.
Alendronate
Urogenital folds
Pheochromocytoma
Obese patients

32. What mixed a - antagonists are used for patients with pheochromocytoma?
Erythromycin
Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.
The carotid sinus reflex

33. Based on operant conditioning - What type of reinforcement is described when x Removing a stimulus stops a behavior?
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)
Extinction
Streptokinase

34. What are the five conditions associated with normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
Barr bodies in females - T- cell receptor loci - and immunoglobulin light and heavy chain loci
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
RNA polymerase II

35. What is the term for the strength of the association between Ags and Abs?
Boutonni
Menses
Iodine - resulting in congenital hypothyroidism
Avidity. There is a positive correlation between valence numbers and avidity.

36. What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? - AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion - resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia - ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss - contralateral loss of pain and temperature to the
Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia
Lateral pontine syndrome
HPV
AML- M3

37. What is the central chemoreceptor's main drive for ventilation?
Eosin
CSF H+ levels - with acidosis being the main central drive - resulting in hyperventilation (the opposite being true with alkalosis)
Kimmelstiel - Wilson disease
Aspartame

38. What is the signal to open the voltage - gated transmembrane sodium channels?
Type 2
Transcription factor IID
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these channels - which are closed in resting conditions.
Ventricular contraction Atrial - Contraction - Venous

39. What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? - Selective T- cell immunodeficiency
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
ACL
Coxsackie B
Psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel disease - and Reiter's syndrome

40. What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with x Increased depth of breathing?
Selegiline
Superior and middle
Mitral insufficiency
With an increased depth of breathing both the total and alveolar ventilation increase. This concept is always tested on the boards - so remember it.

41. Name the ocular lesion; be specific - A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)
Trazodone
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Cortisol Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.

42. Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: x Diastolic murmur - increased right ventricular pressure - left atrial pressure - and atrial to ventricular pressure gradient; decreased left ventricular filling pressure
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
Mitral stenosis

43. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: x Everything in the world is perceived as either good or bad . No middle ground; it is all extremes.
Splitting
Hemochromatosis
FSH and testosterone
Allograft

44. What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE- mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
HPV infection
Eosinophils
Streptococcus viridans
Mycobacterium marinum

45. What pancreatic islet cell secretes glucagons?
Adipose tissue
Poxvirus
alpha - Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on - cells and inhibitory effects on - cells.
Kupffer cells

46. What vitamin deficiency produces homocystinuria and methylmalonic aciduria?
Transcription (C comes before L in the alphabet - and transCription comes before transLation)
H1 histones
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency (Folic acid deficiency has only homocystinuria as a sign.)
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.

47. What are the four effects of suckling on the mother?
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Pancreatic cancer
1. Increased synthesis and secretion of oxytocin 2. Increased release of PIF by the hypothalamus 3. Inhibition of GnRH (suppressing FSH/LH) 4. Milk secretion
Myasthenia gravis

48. What two viruses get their envelope not from budding but from coding?
Parkinson disease
1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous
HIV and poxvirus
Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome

49. What large - spore - forming - gram - positive anaerobic rod is associated with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma?
Gonorrhea
Cholesterol biosynthesis
Clostridium tetani
Y - W-135 - and C and A capsular polysaccharides

50. What is the most common primary malignant tumor in bone?
Median nerve lesion
Lateral part of the hemispheres
Osteosarcoma
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)