Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Instructions:
  • Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
  • If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
  • Match each statement with the correct term.
  • Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. How many ATPs per glucose are generated from glycolysis in RBCs?






2. What is the name of the spinal cord passing within the subarachnoid space and forming the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?






3. Which IgG cannot activate complement?






4. Based on operant conditioning - What type of reinforcement is described when x Removing a stimulus stops a behavior?






5. What two Beta2- agonists are used to produce bronchodilation?






6. Is not found in smooth muscle - liver - and the kidneys.






7. What chromosome 4 - AD disorder is a degeneration of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?


8. Which gram - negative diplococcus grows on chocolate agar? Thayer - Martin medium?






9. What are the five Ig isotypes?






10. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: x Recall of objects - distances - and scenes; visual input processed here






11. What antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma?






12. What is the name for the following RBC indices? - Average Hgb concentration/given volume of packed RBCs






13. Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? - Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid - pheochromocytoma - and mucocutaneous neuromas






14. What are the three C's of a TCAD overdose?






15. What B- cell neoplasm is seen in males with massive splenomegaly - produces dry tap on bone marrow aspirations - and stains positive for tartrate - resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)?






16. What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? - Obturator nerve






17. Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48- hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide






18. What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? - Loss of flexion of the knees and toes - plantarflexion - and weakened inversion






19. Name the most common type or cause - Acute bacterial endocarditis






20. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Azygos vein






21. What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction - splits to contribute to the rectus sheath - contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon - and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle of the sperm






22. What IL - produced by macrophages - is chemotactic for neutrophils?






23. What thyroid abnormality has the following? - TRH decreased - TSH decreased - T4 decreased






24. Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72- hour fever spike pattern






25. What is the site of action of the following? - K+- sparing diuretics






26. What is the most common one? - Renal calculus type






27. Is excretion greater than or less than filtration for net secretion to occur?






28. Name the most common type or cause - GN in the world






29. What is the term to describe how easily a vessel stretches?






30. What is the most common one? - Primary malignant tumor of the ovary






31. Based on the following information - is the renal transplantation rejection acute - chronic - or hyperacute? - Months to years after transplantation; gradual onset of HTN - oliguria - and azotemia; seen as intimal fibrosis of the blood vessels and in






32. What triggers phase 0 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?






33. What muscles in the hand adduct the fingers?






34. What Brodmann area is associated with x Primary visual cortex?






35. What bacteriostatic agent's side effect profile includes grey baby syndrome and aplastic anemia?






36. What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?






37. What determines the overall force generated by the ventricular muscle during systole?






38. What syndrome is associated with gastrin - producing islet cell tumor resulting in multiple intractable peptic ulcers?






39. What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? - Cortisol decreased - ACTH decreased






40. What is the central issue regarding the Roe vs. Wade decision (legalization of abortion)?






41. How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are required for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?






42. Being college educated increases a man's risk of having...






43. What is the most common one? - Stromal tumor of the ovary






44. What antitubercular agent causes a red - orange tinge to tears and urine?






45. What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?






46. What is the most common one? - Renal cell cancer type






47. What structure of the knee is described thus? - C- shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament






48. What is the term for tissue - based basophils?






49. What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in x The midbrain?






50. Are contraindicated in patients with SCID.