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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection - which Abs do you see?
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)
HBcAb and HBeAb. You see the antibodies c and e.
Clostridium botulinum
High average
2. Starry sky appearance of macrophages is pathognomonic of what lymphoma?
Burkitt lymphoma
1. Decrease alpha -1 activity 2. Increase Beta -2 activity 3. Increase ACh levels
NH4+(ammonium)
Vagus nerve
3. A patient goes to the ER with signs and symptoms of biliary colic. Which opioid analgesic do you choose?
Spasms of the uterus - bladder - and the biliary tree occur with all of the opioids except meperidine.
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also - but it is not a sphingolipid)
CN VII - IX - and X; taste and general sensation for the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus.
4. What is the term for the number of new events occurring in a population divided by the population at risk?
Incidence rate
Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.
Chi - square (when you are in doubt and have nominal data - use chi - square)
Copper
5. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Vagus nerve
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization - ischemia - aging - and a host of other causes.
Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)
Posterior
Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm/L)
6. Name the most common type or cause - Cushing syndrome
Pituitary adenoma
Sexual aversion disorder
Constipation and miosis
Thyroid hormones increase serum glucose levels by increasing the absorption of glucose from the small intestine.
7. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Vinyl chloride
Methylene blue
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
Angiosarcoma of the liver
Chromosome 21
8. What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? - Upper subscapularis nerve
First - pass effect
Subscapularis
Acute pyelonephritis
Accidents
9. What disorder is described as having x Conscious symptoms with unconscious motivation?
Factitious disorder
Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is devoid of fat. (Remember campers are fat.)
When the intra - alveolar pressure equals zero - there is no airflow.
Invasive ductal carcinoma
10. Name the type of graft described by these transplants: x From one site to another on the same person
Autograft
Chlamydia
Entamoeba histolytica (treat with metronidazole)
M12 strains
11. Replacing normal affect with 'brain power'
Argyll Robertson pupils
Intellectualization
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive - compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.
Atropine and 2- PAM (pralidoxime)
12. What medication is used to help alcoholics avoid relapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity?
Escherichia coli
Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptors increases with chronic alcohol abuse)
There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face.
Chromosome 15
13. Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: x Adducts the vocal ligaments - closes the air passageway during swallowing - and allows phonation
Epidermophyton
38 ATPs if aerobic - 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2 ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)
Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles
Histidine
14. What complex is needed for propionyl CoA carboxylase?
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in gingival hyperplasia)
Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are.
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
3'-5' direction - synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction
15. What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing a decrease in body temperature and mediates the response to conserve heat?
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16. What causes a skeletal muscle contraction to terminate?
When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR - skeletal muscle contraction stops.
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors
Posterior
Primary hypogonadism (postmenopausal women)
17. If the occurrence of one event had nothing to do with the occurrence of another event - How do you combine their probabilities?
Since they are independent events - their probabilities would be multiplied.
Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO 4- concentrations - whereas resorption (breakdown) is increased when there are low levels of Ca2+ or PO4-.
Fibrocystic change of the breast
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta - Hypertrophy of the right ventricle - Interventricular septal defect - Pulmonary stenosis
18. What pattern of inheritance is G-6- PD deficiency?
Alcoholic cirrhosis
X- linked recessive
RSV
NADPH oxidase is deficient - resulting in an inability to produce toxic metabolites.
19. What is the maximum rate possible with a given amount of enzyme?
Diabetes mellitus
Vmax
High average
Translation
20. How many attacks are needed over how much time before panic disorder is diagnosed?
Hypertrophy
Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) syndrome
Scrotal cancer - due to the high exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember - they come out of the blue.)
21. Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? - Hair and skin only
Stroke volume
By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep
Infrapatellar bursa
Microsporum
22. What test is used to screen for HIV?
Heinz bodies
ELISA. It detects anti - p24 IgG.
Osteoblasts - which in turn stimulate osteoclasts to break down bone - releasing Ca2+ into the interstitium. (Remember - blasts make - clasts take.)
Lumbar splanchnics
23. What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? - Aerospace industry - nuclear reactors
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of suspicion)
Xenograft
Chloramphenicol
Berylliosis
24. Which acid - fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite?
EBV
Mycobacterium leprae
Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
First - order elimination
25. What vitamin deficiency can result in high - output cardiac failure?
Chronic end - stage renal disease
Thiamine
ACh - histamine - and gastrin
>5 mm
26. The DSM- IV- TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In What axis would you place x Personality and mental disorders?
Cholera toxin irreversibly activates the cAMP- dependent chloride pumps of the small and large intestine - producing a large volume of chloride - rich diarrhea.
Axis II
The triad of respiratory depression - pinpoint pupils - and coma in an IV drug abuser suggests opioid overdose (e.g. - heroin) - and you should give naloxone.
Bulbus cordis
27. What is the name of the B cell - rich area of the spleen?
Chloramphenicol
Increase enzyme concentrations
CN III
Primary follicle (in the white pulp)
28. What enzyme requires molybdenum as a cofactor?
Tinea favosa (favus)
Urogenital sinus
Xanthine oxidase
Pneumococcus
29. Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: x Slight repolarization secondary to potassium and closure of the sodium channels
Phase 1
Internal 3' - 5' PDE bonds
Biotin (only if eaten in large quantities)
Premature ejaculation
30. What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions containing ?- synuclein found in the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra?
Lewy bodies
Haloperidol and fluphenazine (but use of any high - potency phenothiazine runs the risk of EPS)
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50 - making O2 more difficult to remove from the Hgb molecule.
Risk factors for cervical cancer
31. What enzyme is deficient in patients with PKU?
Thymus - independent Ags
Cytochrome a/a3
White muscle; short term too
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
32. What two Beta- blockers decrease serum lipids?
Acebutolol and Pindolol
Terminal ileum
Infliximab
Fibrocystic change of the breast
33. What oral hypoglycemic agent should be used with caution in patients with CHF because it causes lactic acidosis?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide and dorzolamide)
M 2
Metformin
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
34. Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: x Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation produced by vascular endothelium
Hepatitis E
PRPP aminotransferase
Internal 3' - 5' PDE bonds
PGI2
35. What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl - used in the short - term treatment of glaucoma and of acute mountain sickness?
Acetazolamide
Ipratropium
Tetany
Erythema nodosum
36. Which two negative sense RNA viruses have neuraminidase enzymes?
Vitamin C
Absolute refractory period is due to voltage inactivation of sodium channels.
Mumps and influenza virus
IgG
37. What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? - More than 35 years old
Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia)
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control
38. In what layer of the epidermis is melanin transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes?
Paranoid schizophrenia
Right atrium
Id (pleasure principle)
Stratum spinosum
39. What IL down - regulates cell mediated immunity?
Liquefaction necrosis
IL-10
HBeAg
P1 protein
40. What is defined as a general estimate of the functional capacities of a human?
M
Mees lines
IQ
Naloxone or naltrexone
41. What is the MCC of the following meningitides? - In military recruits
Copper deficiency
Suppression
Neisseria meningitides
C1 - C2 - or C4 deficiency
42. What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
Volkmann's contracture
Sporozoites
Palms - up before palms - down maneuvers
43. What two enzymes are vitamin B12- dependent
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in gingival hyperplasia)
Urogenital folds
Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl CoA transferase
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
44. In MHC class II molecules - what chain blocks access to the peptide - binding groove during transportation within the cell - ensuring that the MHC class II- peptide complex is transported to the surface?
Salmonella typhi
Transcription factor IID
Transient ischemic attack
Invariant chain. This is essential because the CD4 T cells have antigen receptors only for peptides bound to the MHC II molecule. (MHC restriction)
45. What condition results in a strawberry gallbladder?
CN III and IV
Glioblastoma multiforme
Cholesterolosis
Red muscle
46. What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?
Metronidazole
Calcarine sulcus
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Insulin increases intracellular K+ stores while decreasing serum K+ levels.
47. Only men have...
The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased reflexes - muscle fasciculations - decreased muscle tone - and muscle atrophy What two areas of the skin do flaccid paralysis). Don't forget - LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of the
Encapsulated bacteria
refractory sexual periods
Ampulla
48. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Plantar flex the foot - flex the toes - and invert the foot
Posterior compartment of the leg - tibial nerve
REM sleep. Remember - awake brain in a sleeping body.
Cefuroxime and cefaclor
Autosomal recessive
49. Name the most common type or cause - Erysipelas
CMV; remember - EBV is associated with heterophile - positive mononucleosis.
Superior
Streptococcus pyogenes
Heroin
50. What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations on the surface of their membrane - commonly seen in uremia?
IL-4
Tay- Sachs disease
HPV infection
Burr cells (echinocytes)
Sorry!:) No result found.
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