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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. At high doses aspirin has ________ properties.
pI (isoelectric point)
Nystagmus and ataxia
With arteriolar constriction both the flow and pressure downstream decrease.
Uricosuric

2. A 30-year - old woman goes to your office with bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with menstruation and have cyclical pain and engorgement. What is your diagnosis?
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer - Which is commonly unilateral - single nodule - no variation with pregnancy.
Trypsin
Gout
In early- morning sleep - usually between the sixth and eighth hours

3. What are the four major functions of the acquired immune system?
Nitroprusside
1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell division or complementation 3. Control the level of the response 4. Remove foreign material
Latissimus dorsi
Type IV collagen

4. Name the most common type or cause - Urethritis in a young - newly sexually active individual
Autism. Head - banging - rocking - and self - injurious behaviors are also common in autism.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C5- C9
Transferrin

5. What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 results in normal - size vertebral column and skull and short - thick extremities?
Achondroplasia
Malassezia furfur (treat with selenium sulfide)
Cross - sectional studies determine prevalence - not incidence or cause and effect.
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative

6. Which leukotriene
Candida albicans
Superior and posterior
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea - athetoid movements - progressive dementia - and behavioral problems.
LTB4

7. What are the three epidermal derivatives?
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions - and only cells with bound Ag undergo clonal expansion
80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)
Necrotizing enterocolitis

8. With what stage of sleep are bruxisms associated?
GLUT 4
Increase in erythropoietin and increase in 2 - 3- BPG - also called 2 - 3- diphosphoglycerate (2 - 3- P2Gri) (increase in glycolysis)
Glycerol kinase
Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2 sleep.

9. What is the term for RBC fragments?
Serratia
Schistocytes
Succinyl CoA synthetase
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2

10. What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with x a1- Blockers?
urease positive
Impaired ejaculation
Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA - are fragmented - and contain all sequences found in the particular genome copied.
Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids)

11. What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of the tibia - epiphyseal enlargements - and costochondral widening - with the endochondral bones being affected?
Rickets
C3a - C4a - and C5a
Hydatidiform mole
Extinction

12. What is the most common one? - Esophageal carcinoma
Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal with incidence.)
Chromosome 15q
Sickle cell disease
Squamous cell carcinoma

13. What area of the small intestine is characterized by Peyer's patches?
Ileum
Phase III. It is considered the definitive test.
Hyperacute rejection
Histrionic

14. What term is an index of the effort needed to expand the lungs (i.e. - overcomes recoil)?
Right nasal hemianopsia
Phallus
Compliance; the more compliant a lung is - the easier it is to inflate.
Internal 3' - 5' PDE bonds

15. What type of resistance system (i.e. - high or low) is formed when resistors are added in parallel?
Asbestosis and silicosis
A low - resistance system is formed by resistors added in parallel.
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream - and the -35 promoter site is self - explanatory.
Nephrotoxicity

16. What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
von Hippel - Lindau syndrome
Subclavian vein
Hypoparathyroidism

17. What disorder is described as having x Conscious symptoms with conscious motivation?
Lisch nodules
Succinylcholine and halothane (Treatment is with dantrolene.)
Malingering
MEN III (or IIb)

18. Is the clearance for a substance greater than or less than for inulin if it is freely filtered and secreted? If it is freely filtered and reabsorbed?
IgM
Filtered and secreted: Cx > Cin (i.e. - PAH). Filtered and reabsorbed: Cx < Cin (i.e. - glucose) - where Cx = clearance of a substance and Cin = clearance of inulin.
Hematoxylin
1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages

19. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)
Aminoglycosides
Hormone - sensitive lipase
Endometrial cancer
Cerebellum

20. What are the two leading causes of cancer - related death in men?
Prostate and lung cancer - respectively
CD14
Bronchoconstriction is associated with parasympathetic stimulation (ACh) - and catecholamine stimulation is associated with bronchodilation (why epinephrine is used in emergency treatment of bronchial asthma.)
ACE inhibitors (the - pril agents)

21. What mineral is an important component of the enzyme xanthine oxidase?
Molybdenum (Mb)
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
Hypoventilation results in an increase in PCO2 levels and therefore an increase in blood flow.
7 years old

22. Auer rods
Carnitine acyltransferase I
AML- M3
Amphotericin B
The JG cells

23. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Reinforcing successive attempts that lead to the desired goal (gradual improvement)?
Clostridium perfrigens
Shaping (successive approximation)
A positive AV difference indicates that a substance is extracted by the organ - and a negative difference indicates that it is produced by the organ.
Raynaud's phenomenon

24. What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase - massive organomegaly - zebra bodies - and foamy histiocytes and is associated with chromosome 11p?
Niemann - Pick disease
ALA dehydrogenase and ferrochelatase
Subacute combined degeneration - Which is bilateral below the level of the lesion.
Gradient - time system

25. What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths x In the population?
Crude mortality rate
Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome
Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and polydipsia.
Th2

26. What cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest?
Phase 2
Site 3
PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: wPeT and hPiTT - which means warfarin - extrinsic - PT; heparin - intrinsic - PTT)
Melanocytes

27. What percentage of CO2 is carried in the plasma as HCO3- ?
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2 - reducing the carrying capacity and shifting the curve to the left - making it difficult to remove the CO molecule from Hgb.
IDL
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies - indicating high protein synthesis.
90% as HCO3- - 5% as carbamino compounds - and 5% as dissolved CO2

28. What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG - IgA - or IgE on its surface.
Cilia
Purulent exudates
Pernicious anemia

29. What two PGs are used to induce labor?
Centriacinar worse in upper lobes; panacinar worse in base of lower lobes
PGE2 and PGF2a
HBcAb and HBeAb. You see the antibodies c and e.
Tay- Sachs disease

30. What is the leading cause of school dropout?
Secondary spermatocyte
Pregnancy
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla - Areola - and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production) - and if confronted by an APE - your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innerva
Spinal trigeminal nucleus

31. What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis x In patients with sickle cell disease?
Selegiline
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)
Auspitz sign
Anterior compartment of the thigh - femoral nerve

32. What lipoprotein is formed if an IDL particle acquires cholesterol from a HDL particle?
Extinction
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
LDL
hCG

33. What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
Amiloride
Sciatic nerve
Deficiency in surfactant
Hyperkalemia

34. What is the most common one? - Testicular tumor in infants and children
Howell - Jolly bodies
Site 2
Yolk sac tumor
Caput medusa - internal hemorrhoids - esophageal varices - retroperitoneal varices - and splenomegaly

35. What gram - positive anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the normal flora of the mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates?
Actinomyces israelii
Physostigmine
Rheumatoid arthritis
Seminoma

36. What is the term to describe the increase in organ size due to the increase in cell size and function?
Hypertrophy
IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is for Lymphoid)
Glucokinase
Osteoclasts

37. What complement factor deficiency leads to x Hereditary angioedema?
Melanocytes
Goodpasture syndrome
Meningococcus (Gonococcus does not)
C1 inhibitor (C1- INH)

38. If free water clearance (CH2O) is positive - What type of urine is formed? And if it is negative?
Transcription factor IID
If positive - hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300 mOsm/L); if negative - hypertonic urine (osmolarity > 300 mOsm/L)>>
Tensor tympani
Left coronary artery

39. What two AAs require vitamin C for hydroxylation?
Medial nuclear group (limbic system)
Internal carotid artery
Proline and lysine
Minor

40. Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: x Continuous involuntary contraction - uninuclear striated branched fibers - actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern - dyadic T tubules - intercalated discs - troponin and desmin as a Z disc
Increases
Dependent
Cardiac muscle
Projection

41. What four CN carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second (Remember - it is mandatory to report STDs to the CDC.)
Correlation. No - correlation does not imply causation.
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
CN III - VII - IX - and X

42. There is a strong ________ between IQ and academic achievement.
Stretch receptors prevent overdistension of the lungs during inspiration.
positive correlation
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. a - Limit dextrans (a -1 - 6 binding)
cDNA - when it is made from mRNA

43. What law was adopted to shield physicians from liability when helping at the scene of an accident?
Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to stop and help.)
X- linked recessive
Water
Production of oxygen free radicals

44. What form of sunlight is the most carcinogenic?
Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight
Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6 and is needed to transfer the amino groups of one carbon skeleton to another.
Gastric carcinoma
Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of possibilities for the answers are projective.

45. What type of correlation is defined as x Two variables with no linear relation to one another?
Gout
Zero correlation
Ferrochelatase
Basal cell carcinoma

46. Mallory bodies
Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.)
EF- Tu or EF- ts and GTP
Progestins
Chronic alcoholic

47. What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur - humerus - and tibia?
Empyema
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).
Caisson disease
Beta2- Adrenergic agents

48. What antiviral agent for ganciclovir - resistant infections has limited utility because of its nephrotoxic side effect?
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g. - cheese - dried fish - sauerkraut - chocolate - avocados - and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
Ag - Ab binding
Foscarnet
Testicular tumors

49. What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas?
Type 2
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
Salpingitis
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. GTP

50. What thyroid abnormality has the following? - TRH increased - TSH decreased - T4 decreased
Lactose must be present and glucose must be absent
1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels 2. Administer IgG in high concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells with Ag bound to IgG (complexes) 4. Turn off the original T or B cell with anti - Ab
Secondary hypothyroidism/pituitary (Low TSH results in low T4 and increased TRH because of lack of a negative feedback loop.)
Type III hypersensitivity reaction