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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps - most commonly affects the colorectal area - and is associated with chromosome 5q21?
Waldenstr
Hydralazine - isoniazid - and procainamide (HIP)
Familial polyposis coli
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

2. What vessels have the largest total cross - sectional area in systemic circulation?
CMV; remember - EBV is associated with heterophile - positive mononucleosis.
Coprophilia
Gastric carcinoma
Capillaries

3. At What three sites can the HMP shunt enter into glycolysis?
1. Fructose -6- phosphate 2. Glucose -6- phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate
Carnitine acyltransferase I
Middle
Calcium influx secondary to slow channel opening

4. Results in vitamin B12 deficiencies.
Removal of the ileum
Yolk sac tumor
Foramen of Monro
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)

5. Name the MCC - Walking pneumonia - seen in teens and military recruits
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
Sexual aversion disorder

6. What is a palpable - elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?
Paramyxovirus
Clostridium botulinum
Papule
Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)

7. Prolactin levels can serve as a rough indicator of...
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)
overall dopamine activity
Thrombocytopenia - eczema - and immunodeficiency is the triad of this X- linked recessive disorder.
Vitamin D3

8. What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?
Sympathetic nervous system
EF- G of the 50S subunit
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
Hormone secretion for T- cell differentiation and T- cell education to recognize self from nonself

9. What does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it from other fungi?
Phase 2
Carbonic anhydrase
It forms a germinal tube at 37
MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This allows the body to eliminate tumor cells - virus - infected cells

10. What is the term to describe homosexuals who x Are uncomfortable with their own person and disagree with their sense of self?
Ego dystonic
Boutonni
Alzheimer disease
Cleft palate

11. What TCAD causes sudden cardiac death in children?
In the PNS - myelin is produced by Schwann cells - in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.
Desipramine
Psammoma bodies
Chlamydia trachomatis

12. What virus is associated with body cavity large B- cell lymphomas?
Glanzmann syndrome
HHV-8
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T- cell lymphoma)
Krukenberg tumor

13. With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels of the skin and the kidneys?
Type III
TXA2
Henoch - Sch
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

14. What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 70 to 79
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Borderline
Histamine
Graves disease

15. What bilateral AR disorder seen in infancy as progressive renal failure has multiple small cysts at right angles to the cortical surface?
Combined metabolic and respiratory acidosis
Lipid - soluble hormones are considered slow - acting hormones.
Range
Polycystic kidney disease of childhood

16. If a mother delivers a Rho - positive baby - she should receive...
Gain of isotonic fluid (isotonic saline)
Puborectalis
Mikulicz syndrome
Rho-immunoglobin

17. With What two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?
Squamous cell carcinoma
The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased reflexes - muscle fasciculations - decreased muscle tone - and muscle atrophy What two areas of the skin do flaccid paralysis). Don't forget - LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of the
Asbestosis and silicosis
Glanzmann syndrome

18. What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion?
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell
IgM
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
LDL

19. What is the most common one? - Testicular tumor in men over 50 years old
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
Testicular lymphoma
Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase

20. What triggers phase 4 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
SLE; ANA - anti - dsDNA and anti - Sm (anti - Smith)
Decreasing potassium conductance - which results in increased excitability
Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.

21. What is the rate - limiting step of the following? - Cholesterol synthesis
Folic acid deficiency
HMG CoA reductase
Rotavirus
Pygmalion effect (experimenter expectancy). This can be eliminated with double - blind studies.

22. What is the primary end product of pyrimidine synthesis?
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
Area 8
Middle meningeal artery
UMP

23. What is the function of the cerebellum?
Criterion - referenced tests. You need a certain number correct to pass (e.g. - the USMLE).
Gaucher disease
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
Planning and fine - tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember - the function of the basal ganglia is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.

24. What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?
Euchromatin - the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24- hour period is during stage 4 sleep.
Amyl nitrate - sodium nitrate - or sodium thiosulfate

25. What T- cell surface projection recognizes and reacts to foreign Ags (presented by APCs)?
An increase in the afterload decreases velocity; they are inversely related. (V equals 1 divided by afterload.)
MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome)
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.
TCR

26. Why is there an increase in FF if the GFR is decreased under sympathetic stimulation?
Virchow triad - associated with the formation of a thrombus.
Transposons
Because RPF is markedly decreased - while GFR is only minimally diminished; this results in an increase in FF (remember FF = GFR/RPF).
Minocycline

27. What hormone disorder is characterized by the following abnormalities in sex steroids? - LH? - and FSH?? - Sex steroids - LH - FSH ?
MEN I (or Wermer syndrome)
GnRH constant infusion
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)
Hemophilia B

28. What vessel is lacerated in an epidural hematoma?
HBcAb IgM
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.
Muscles of the internal eye
Middle meningeal artery

29. What gluconeogenic mitochondrial enzyme requires biotin?
Pyruvate carboxylase
Mallory- Weiss syndrome
Hypospadia
Filtration is greater than excretion for net reabsorption to occur.

30. What enzyme is deficient in patients with CGD?
Paramyxovirus
Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6 and is needed to transfer the amino groups of one carbon skeleton to another.
NADPH oxidase is deficient - resulting in an inability to produce toxic metabolites.
Verbigeration

31. What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?
Foramen of Winslow
Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium.
Urogenital folds
Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X

32. What is the most common one? - Organism that causes pyelonephritis
Epinephrine
Escherichia coli
Isoniazid
As flow increases - the urine becomes more dilute because of decreased time for H2O reabsorption.

33. What is the neurotransmitter at the K- receptor?
IL-10
Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)
Dynorphin
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)

34. What is the term for the inherent ability to induce a specific immune response?
The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands - it compresses the fibers from the upper temporal fields of the optic chiasm - producing bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia
Riedel thyroiditis
Riboflavin (B2) deficiency
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.

35. Why are clozapine and olanzapine unlikely to result in EPS effects?
N-5- methyl THF
Because they do not block D2A receptors - they are antagonists of 5HT2 receptors.
Hypotonia (rag doll appearance)
Adulthood

36. What stage of sleep is associated with somnambulism?
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)
Calcium oxylate
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs most often in the first third of sleep.

37. What pH (acidotic or alkalotic) is needed for pepsinogen to pepsin conversion?
Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and therefore needed for protein digestion.
Inactivated
Keloid
Nucleus ambiguus - resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.

38. What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon?
Mikulicz syndrome
Pseudomembranous exudates
Minocycline
Saltatory conduction

39. What 11- amino acid peptide is the neurotransmitter of sensory neurons that conveys pain from the periphery to the spinal cord?
Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.)
There would be a Fab' region; thus - it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.
<2
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary

40. What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C infections?
positive correlation
Melasma
embranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
Bulla

41. What motile - gram - negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase positive - urease positive - and associated with gastritis - peptic ulcer disease - and stomach cancer?
Helicobacter pylori
Preload. It is the load on a muscle Prior to contraction.
Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome
IgE

42. Name the DNA virus x Linear dsDNA; enveloped; virion - associated polymerases; replicates in the cytoplasm :
Negative
Poxvirus
Carbidopa and benserazide
Parietal lobe

43. Name the most common type or cause - Sudden cardiac death
5 years old
Stretch receptors prevent overdistension of the lungs during inspiration.
Recovery and death
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)

44. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Eukaryotic cell - 15 to 25 microns - 80S ribosomes - no cell walls - replicates via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
Parasites
About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered - approximately half of REM is recovered - and only one - third of total sleep is ever made up.
Hepatitis C
1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e. - porphyrin and heme synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency 4. Lead poisoning

45. What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200 - protein level 2.5 - and a specific gravity below 1.020?
Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and has an elevated cellular content.
Internal abdominal oblique
One - way ANOVA
B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells are nonspecific.

46. Which trematode is associated with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?
Afterload
Thyroid hormones are necessary for conversion of carotene to vitamin A.
Short - chain fatty acids
Schistosoma haematobium

47. Why is the apex of the lung hypoventilated when a person is standing upright?
Histrionic
The alveoli at the apex are almost completely inflated prior to inflation - and although they are large - they receive low levels of alveolar ventilation.
Lesch - Nyhan syndrome
Coxsackie B

48. Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half - life?
Triazolam
Large intestine. Water is passively removed from the lumen.
Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.
A low - resistance system is formed by resistors added in parallel.

49. Name the most common type - Psychiatric disorder in women of all ages
Carbamazepine
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Anxiety disorders; for men it is substance abuse.

50. What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? - Leishmaniasis
HBeAg
Urinary 17- OH steroids
Stibogluconate
Propionic acid