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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the classic triad of TB?
Fever - night sweats - and hemoptysis
Broca's aphasia
Fading
t the end of the PCT 25% of Na+ - Cl - - K+ is left

2. What is the name of the force that develops in the wall of the lungs as they expand?
Listeria
Borderline
Lung recoil - being a force to collapse the lung - increases as the lung enlarges during inspiration.
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis

3. Is most of the coronary artery blood flow during systole or diastole?
Carbidopa and benserazide
Anterior compartment of the thigh - femoral nerve
Diastole. During systole the left ventricle contracts - resulting in intramyocardial vessel compression and therefore very little blood flow in the coronary circulation.
Intellectualization

4. Name the most common type - Learning disability
HDL
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus
Dyslexia
Schwannoma

5. Name the DNA virus x Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Rhabdovirus
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
RSV
Herpes virus

6. What syndrome has loss of deep tendon reflexes - muscle weakness - and ascending paralysis preceded by a viral illness?
Nevirapine; it cuts the rate from 20% to 10%. AZT is also used - cutting the rate from 20% to 10%.
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
Guillain - Barr
3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' end.

7. What organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis?
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.
The optic disk is the blind spot.
Zafirlukast
Because they do not block D2A receptors - they are antagonists of 5HT2 receptors.

8. What is the term for drug removal per unit of time in a given volume of blood?
Clearance
The lateral vestibular nucleus
Pseudomonas
Alcoholism

9. Which organism causes trench fever?
T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis).
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
Rochalimaea quintana (now called Bartonella quintana)
Rigors - leukopenia - decrease in blood pressure - and increase in temperature

10. At the D2A receptor have the capacity to induce pseudoparkinsonism.
Alzheimer disease
Dopamine antagonists
Short - chain fatty acids
Hydralazine - isoniazid - and procainamide (HIP)

11. What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host?
Integrase
Since they are independent events - their probabilities would be multiplied.
Urogenital sinus
Posterior cruciate ligament

12. Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. Elbow
Cryptococcus
Humerus with ulna (major) and radius (minor)
Folic acid
Isoniazid treatment

13. What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous - with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps - and is associated with HLA- B27?
Ulcerative colitis
Mitosis
They chronically inhibit ADH secretion; when there is a decrease in the blood volume - the stretch receptors send fewer signals - and ADH is secreted.
Ciliary ganglion

14. What is the monoamine oxidase B (MAOB) inhibitor?
The thyroid gland
Duodenum
Selegiline
In the JG cells of the kidney

15. Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: x Pain and fever
Cancer of the lung - stomach - colon - and breast
Mural infarct
PGE2
Proximal to distal progression

16. Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: x Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to open quickly; will not respond to a second stimulus until cell is repolarized.
Thiogalactoside transacetylase
Thymine (B1)
Voltage - gated sodium channel
Ventral posteromedial nucleus

17. What is the most common one? - Skin tumor in the United States
Cysticerci
Basal cell carcinoma
8 to 25 hours
Labetalol

18. Where is renin produced?
Chronic end - stage renal disease
VSD
Paranoid
In the JG cells of the kidney

19. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Removing a reinforcement (without the patient knowing) gradually over time to stop a condition?
Fading
Chromosome 14 - 18
Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts)
Type IV collagen

20. Name the associated chromosome - Gaucher disease
Diazoxide
Cefuroxime and cefaclor
Paramesonephric ducts
Chromosome 1

21. Describe What type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume - ICF volume - and body osmolarity - respectively: x ECF: increase; ICF: no change; body: no change
By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep
Gain of isotonic fluid (isotonic saline)
Type I symptoms (positive); schizophrenics have them - but otherwise healthy persons do not.
The concentration of plasma proteins determines effective osmolarity because capillary membranes are freely permeable to all substances except proteins.

22. Has proteolytic metabolic effects.
Epinephrine
Neomycin
Hydralazine
Being awake

23. The DSM- IV- TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In What axis would you place x Medical or physical ailments?
Arboviruses (bunyavirus - flavivirus - and togavirus)
Myasthenia gravis
Benign nevus (mole)
Axis III

24. Is GH considered a gluconeogenic hormone?
Suppression
Filtration is greater than excretion for net reabsorption to occur.
Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)
Yes - it decreases fat and muscle uptake of glucose - thereby increasing blood glucose levels.

25. What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15- to 35-year - old age group - peaks when the person is 35 years of age - and is a bulky mass that spreads via the lymphatic system?
Hypoglycemia for secretion and hyperglycemia for inhibition
Schatzki ring
Seminoma
Transketolase and transaldolase. The reactions they catalyze are reversible.

26. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Trachea
G1 phase; G2 and S phase are diploid (2N).
1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam
eIF-2 in the P site
Superior

27. Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: x Back - filling into the left atrium during systole; increased v - wave - preload - left atrial volume - and left ventricular filling
Negative reinforcement
Inferior phrenic artery
Mitral insufficiency
In early- morning sleep - usually between the sixth and eighth hours

28. Name the most common type or cause - Chancre
Rhombencephalon
Haemophilus ducreyi
Bile pigments and bile salts
Middle

29. Name the period described by the following statement: no matter how strong a stimulus is - no further action potentials can be stimulated.
antiemetic
Residual volume
Arterioles have the largest drop - whereas the vena cava has the smallest pressure drop in systemic circulation.
Absolute refractory period is due to voltage inactivation of sodium channels.

30. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x erb -1
Dissociation
PRPP aminotransferase
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
positive correlation

31. All aluminum - containing antacids can cause...
hypophosphatemia
Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN lesion.
Preoperational (2-6 years)
Norm reference (i.e. - 75% of the students in the class will pass)

32. What Freudian psyche component is described as x The urges - sex aggression - and 'primitive' processes?
False - negative rate
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb
Id (pleasure principle)
Ewing's sarcoma

33. Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: x Pulls the arytenoids cartilages closer to the thyroid - relaxing the vocal ligaments and thereby decreasing the pitch
Glutamate
H 1
Thyroarytenoid muscles
The notochord

34. Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control?
ACE inhibitors (- pril)
Thermogenic
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
Lead - time bias (remember - patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)

35. What happens to extracellular volume with a net gain in body fluid?
Chromium (Cr)
positive correlation
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is a net gain in total body water and decreases when there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is named in terms of the ECF compartment.
Streptokinase

36. What is the only Ig that crosses the placenta?
Compulsions. They are actions done to fix the bad thoughts. Obsessions are the thoughts.
IgG
Chlamydia trachomatis
Cysticerci

37. What is the most serious form of tinea capitis - which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?
Liver - kidneys - and pituitary gland via 5' deiodinase enzyme
Tinea favosa (favus)
A loss of afferent activity indicates a decrease in BP - and an increase in afferent activity indicates an increase in BP.
Clear cell

38. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - NAD
Tryptophan
Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)
Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone - whereas Cushing's syndrome (adrenal adenoma) has decreased ACTH and no cortisol suppression with dexamethasone.
t the end of the PCT 25% of Na+ - Cl - - K+ is left

39. Name the type of graft described by these transplants: x From one person to the next (the same species)
Positive
Benign nevus (mole)
Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in the distal ileum.
Allograft

40. Name the MCC of death - In diabetic individuals
Tetralogy of Fallot
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
MI
Neutropenia - splenomegaly - and rheumatoid arthritis

41. A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps - vomiting - diarrhea - and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato salad at a picnic; What is the most likely responsible organism?
Increased GABA levels decrease the likelihood of learned helplessness.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Taenia solium
Staphylococcus aureus

42. What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell?
Free polysomes. Membrane - associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.
Erythromycin
Glanzmann syndrome
Mycobacterium marinum

43. Name the most common type or cause - Acute renal failure in the United States
HPV serotypes 6 and 11
Acute tubular necrosis
Saccule and utricle
Moderate (35-49)

44. What is the rate - limiting step in the synthetic pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve terminal?
Stretch receptors prevent overdistension of the lungs during inspiration.
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
Cell - mediated immunity
Infrapatellar bursa

45. What tumor is seen in the 2- to 4-year - old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli - tubules - and stroma; and metastasizes late to the lungs?
Wilms tumor
Case fatality rate
IF
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.

46. Which aminoglycoside is used only topically because it is too toxic for systemic use?
Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months.
Dapsone
Neomycin
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels

47. What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?
14 days
Euchromatin - the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
Basophilic stippling
Latency stage (6-12 years)

48. What is the term for a delay in the onset of normal IgG synthesis seen in the fifth to sixth month of life?
Middle cerebral artery
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months.
Guanethidine and bretylium

49. What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing ectodermal - endodermal - and mesodermal elements (i.e. - skin - hair - teeth and neural tissue)?
Berry aneurysm
Teratoma (dermoid cyst)
Magnesium
Muscle glycogen phosphorylase

50. What is the statistical term for the proportion of truly nondiseased persons in the screened population who are identified as nondiseased?
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
Leydig cell tumor
naked viruses
Streptococcus viridans