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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What slow - growing primary CNS tumor that affects mostly females is associated with psammoma bodies?
Meningioma
Arsenic
Anticentromere Abs
Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
2. What are the glycoprotein receptors that platelets and fibrinogen cross - link to when forming a thrombus?
GP IIb and IIIa receptors
Ratio scale
Factitious disorder
Superoxide dismutase - glutathione peroxidase - catalase
3. What cell in the heart has the highest rate of automaticity?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially life - threatening condition Which is treated with symptomatic support - bromocriptine - and dantrolene.
SA node; it is the reason it is the primary pacemaker of the heart.
Global aphasia
In early- morning sleep - usually between the sixth and eighth hours
4. What is the most common one? - Primary CNS tumor in children
PGI2
Thick skin
Medulla blastoma
Cryptococcus
5. How many high - energy bonds does the cycle of elongation cost?
Four high energy bonds - two from ATP in AA activation and two from GTP
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.
Phase I
Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion occurs after puberty - amenorrhea or impotence will be seen.
6. Name the cluster B personality disorder: x Criminal behavior; lacking friends - reckless - and unable to conform to social norms
Velocity is inversely related to cross - sectional area.
S2 - S3 - S4
Antisocial
Dimercaprol - penicillamine
7. Is a cause of asthma.
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a substance is equal - the substance is freely filtered by the kidney.
GERD
Astrocytoma
Phase I
8. What frontal lobe cortex is associated with organizing and planning the intellectual and emotional aspect of behavior?
Masochism
embranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase 8. Glucose -6- phosphatase
9. Name the most common type or cause - Viral pneumonia leading to death
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase
RSV
Periaortic lymph nodes
10. What hematologic malignancy is treated with the monoclonal antibody rituximab?
Phase 1
Ascending limb
Autosomal dominant
Non - Hodgkin lymphoma
11. What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery?
5' deiodinase
Left colic - superior rectal - and sigmoidal arteries
Amantadine
Follicular phase
12. What is the most common disease or infection reported to the CDC?
Seminoma
MEN II and III syndromes
Intermediate part of the hemispheres
Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second (Remember - it is mandatory to report STDs to the CDC.)
13. Is encapsulated.
Obesity - DM - HTN - multiparity - early menarche - and late menopause
Thyroid hormones are necessary for conversion of carotene to vitamin A.
Left atrial myxoma
Gonococcus
14. What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? - Calcium reabsorption - phosphate excretion
PTH
ICF volume decreases when there is an increase in osmolarity and vice versa.
Carnitine acyltransferase - I
Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
15. Name these immature defense mechanisms: x Taking others' beliefs - thoughts - and external stimuli and making them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done consciously - it is called imitation.)
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier - it may become immunogenic.
Bile pigments and bile salts
Introjection (a sports fan is a good example)
Bell pad
16. What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as x Autoantibodies directed against RBC Ag I?
CN III and IV
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Alzheimer disease
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
17. What three lung measurements must be calculated because they cannot be measured by simple spirometry?
TLC - FRC - and RV have to be calculated. (Remember - any volume that has RV as a component has be calculated.)
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor is inhibitory.
1. Lowers surface tension - so it decreases recoil and increases compliance 2. Reduces capillary filtration 3. Promotes stability in small alveoli by lowering surface tension
Id (pleasure principle)
18. What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and PO4?
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also - but it is not a sphingolipid)
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
Shortens
Mast cells
19. What disease arises from the adrenal medulla - displaces and crosses the midline - metastasizes early - is the most common solid tumor - and is seen in the 2- to 4-year - old age group?
Neuroblastoma
False - positive rate
Social learning theory
Diffuse proliferative GN
20. What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?
Efficacy
Antimicrobial agents
Poxvirus
Decreases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate.
21. What type of random controlled test is least subjective to bias?
C3b
Double - blind study. It is the most scientifically rigorous study known.
Hemiballismus
Albumin
22. What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole - abortion - or normal pregnancy?
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)
Dysgerminoma
Tetralogy of Fallot
Anterior compartment of the thigh - femoral nerve
23. Which streptococcal species is associated with dental caries and infective endocarditis in patients with poor oral hygiene?
Pro - opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH and Beta- lipotropin.
Agglutination test
Streptococcus viridans
NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are unable to recall.
24. What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) x Patient with AIDS
Eaton - Lambert syndrome
Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
>5 mm
mRNA
25. What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?
Hairy cell leukemia
Insulin increases total body stores of protein - fat - and CHOs. When you think insulin - you think storage.
Homogentisic oxidase
Positive correlation
26. Which direction is air flowing when the intra - alveolar pressure is zero?
Bunyavirus
When the intra - alveolar pressure equals zero - there is no airflow.
Allopurinol
C5b - C9
27. What is the term for drug removal per unit of time in a given volume of blood?
Clearance
IgG4
The resistance will decrease one - sixteenth of the original resistance.
Stratum spinosum
28. What artery supplies the right atrium - right ventricle - sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes?
Right coronary artery
Breast and lung cancer - respectively.
Chloramphenicol
Major
29. How many mature sperm are produced by one type B spermatogonium?
Benign nevus (mole)
C3b
Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of possibilities for the answers are projective.
Four
30. What is the most common one? - Cardiac anomaly in children
Lung and bronchus cancer
The vestibulo - ocular reflex
Marrow failure - cancer - and leukemia
PDA
31. What CNs arise from x The pons?
Homogentisic oxidase
Gastric carcinoma
CN V - VI - VII - and VIII
Basal cell carcinoma
32. What form of AA is found only in collagen?
Hydroxyproline
Thalassemia minor
3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' end.
The muscle's ATPase activity
33. Are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific.
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
Middle cerebral artery
Foramen of Monro
Interferons
34. What condition results from a 46XX karyotype and female internal organs with virilized external genitalia?
IgM
IgA nephropathy
Female pseudohermaphrodite
Glioblastoma multiforme
35. What staphylococcal species is positive for Beta - hemolysis and coagulase?
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam ( OTL - Outside The Liver)
Leiomyoma
Dimercaprol
Staphylococcus aureus
36. With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated somatomedin C level associated?
Chronic end - stage renal disease
GH- producing adenoma
Denial
HBeAg
37. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Foramen ovale
CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve
Scrofula
Coccidioides immitis
Sideroblastic anemia
38. What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in x The lateral cerebellar hemispheres?
The interposed nucleus
Labile
Stages 3 and 4 (NREM)
Water - soluble hormones are considered fast - acting hormones.
39. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - Protein
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors
Omega -3; linoleic is omega -6
Clarke's nucleus
Western blot
40. What component of the ANS is responsible for movement of semen from the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts?
No - you never refuse to treat a patient simply because he or she can't pay. You are a patient advocate.
Cyproheptadine
Parkinson's disease (I can't underestimate all of the buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)
Sympathetic nervous system
41. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Pancreas
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Stable
Aminoacyl - tRNA synthetase - which uses 2 ATPs for this reaction.
1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e. - porphyrin and heme synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency 4. Lead poisoning
42. What disease is associated with the HLA- DR2 and HLA- DR3 alleles
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Escherichia coli
Rectum
Inhaled anesthetics with low lipid solubility have low potency (directly related) - so they have rapid induction and rapid recovery; vice versa for drugs with high lipid solubility.
43. What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple adenomatous polyps - osteomas - fibromas - and epidural inclusion cysts?
Gardner syndrome
Transtentorial (uncal)
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea - athetoid movements - progressive dementia - and behavioral problems.
Chromosome 15 - 17
44. What three cells are essential for T- cell differentiation in the thymus?
Popliteus
Melanoma - cancer of the stomach and bladder
Schatzki ring
Dendritic cells - macrophages - and thymic epithelial cells
45. Name the macrophages by location: x Liver
Insulin increases total body stores of protein - fat - and CHOs. When you think insulin - you think storage.
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle - delaying the closure of the pulmonic valve.
Kupffer cells
Patent urachus
46. What bone houses the ulnar groove?
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb
Accommodation
Direct pathway; a good example is Parkinson's disease.
47. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Adduct the thigh and flex the hip
S phase
The pulsatile release of GnRH
Increase (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve
48. What three structures increase the surface area of the GI tract?
Operon
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. Microvilli (600 times)
Infant Doe. Generally - parents cannot forego lifesaving treatment - but this case states that there are exceptions to the rule.
Sickle cell disease
49. What is the most common one? - Kidney stone type
Lung cancer
Calcium oxalate
1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids
Potter facies
50. If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus - which way is the fast component directed - toward or away from the lesion?
Helicase (requires ATP for energy)
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.
The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.
DNA polymerases
Can you answer 50 questions in 15 minutes?
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