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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
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Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What syndrome is due to a deficiency of surfactant?
Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)
G0 phase
Clostridium botulinum
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.
2. What is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
Pimozide
Nephrotoxicity
Areas 18 and 19
Menstruation
3. What acid form of H+ in the urine cannot be titrated?
extrapyramidal dysfunction
Iatrogenesis
Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral blood flow.
NH4+(ammonium)
4. In the alveoli - what cell type is x for gas exchange?
Leucine and lysine
Type I pneumocytes
ATP/ADP Translocase
Clindamycin
5. What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene - attempting to find out the individual's unconscious perceptions in his or her life?
premature ejaculation
The liver (in the mitochondria)
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant - but the size - placement - erasures - and distortions are relevant.
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
6. In What three areas of the body are sympathetics the predominant tone?
Class III
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
Plasmodium vivax
Type IV collagen
7. What MHC class acts to remove foreign Ags from the body?
Oxygen
MHC class II Ags. This is accomplished via CD4 T cells.
Borderline
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
8. What IL - produced by macrophages - is chemotactic for neutrophils?
IL-8. It not only is chemotactic - it also acts as an adhesive for neutrophils.
31 pairs
Duodenal atresia
Primary biliary cirrhosis
9. What is your diagnosis of a young - thin asymptomatic female with a midsystolic click on cardiac auscultation?
Subarachnoid hematoma
Mitral valve prolapse
Mural infarct
Insulinoma
10. What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 70 to 79
Seminoma
Labioscrotal swelling
Borderline
CHF - cirrhosis - and nephrosis
11. ______________ that slow bacterial growth are bactericidal.
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Antimicrobial agents
Argyll Robertson pupils
Cytochrome a/a3
12. What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps - most commonly affects the colorectal area - and is associated with chromosome 5q21?
Familial polyposis coli
Coronary circulation
Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the list - but these are buzzwords to look for dissection.
Sensory
13. What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Acute CO poisoning
Stable angina
Thyroid hormones
14. What type of bias is it when the information is distorted because of the way it is gathered?
urease positive
Measurement bias
Diphyllobothrium latum
Mesencephalon
15. What Ig activates the alternate pathway - neutralizes bacterial endotoxins and viruses - and prevents bacterial adherence?
IgA
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG - IgA - or IgE on its surface.
ACh
Xanthine - hypoxanthine - theophylline - theobromine - caffeine - and uric acid are all purines.
16. Name the antidote - Lead
Negative correlation
Penicillamine - EDTA (calcium disodium edetate) - or dimercaprol
Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)
Small to medium - sized cerebral vessels
17. Name four major risk factors for atherosclerosis.
DM - hypercholesterolemia - smoking - and HTN are major risk factors. Being male - obesity - sedentary lifestyle - homocysteine elevation - oral contraceptive pills - and genetics are minor risk factors for atherosclerosis.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency (Folic acid deficiency has only homocystinuria as a sign.)
Lente or NPH insulin (neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin)
18. What are the four segmented RNA viruses?
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR
Gout
Glycogen synthase
19. Insulin - induced hypoglycemia is the most reliable (by far not the safest) test For what hormone deficiency?
Lung cancer
Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal Abs
GH deficiency
C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH)
20. What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous - with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps - and is associated with HLA- B27?
TCA cycle.
A decrease in cutaneous blood flow results from constriction of the arterioles - and decreased cutaneous blood volume results from constriction of the venous plexus.
Ulcerative colitis
X- linked dominant
21. What four conditions result in secondary hyperaldosteronism?
The sensory component is through the superior laryngeal nerve - and the motor limb is via the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis
DM - hypercholesterolemia - smoking - and HTN are major risk factors. Being male - obesity - sedentary lifestyle - homocysteine elevation - oral contraceptive pills - and genetics are minor risk factors for atherosclerosis.
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
22. Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary immune response?
More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary immune response (shorter lag period).
Right vagus innervates the SA node and the left vagus innervates the AV node
Silicosis - Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is synonymous with black lung disease - an upper lobe occupational disorder
Blastoconidia
23. Why are patients with Chronic Granulomatous Disease not prone to develop infections from catalase - negative bacteria?
Catalase - negative bacteria secrete H2O2 as a byproduct (remember - catalase breaks down H2O2) - allowing the neutrophils to use it as the substrate for the other toxic metabolites. Patients with CGD are prone to catalase - positive bacterial infect
Adipose tissue
Median (think of it as the halfway point)
External 3' - 5' PDE bonds
24. What nerve is associated with the following functions? - Flex the wrist and digits - pronate the wrist and the LOAF (Lumbricales - Opponens pollicis - Abductor pollicis brevis - Flexor pollicis brevis) muscles of the hand
Median nerve
HBcAb IgG - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg
Achondroplasia
Loose association
25. What small gram - positive - non - spore - forming rod is a facultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is associated with unpasteurized milk products?
Listeria monocytogenes
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
Fluconazole
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
26. By What age should children be able to draw the following figures? - Square
Spermatid
It is best to begin with open - ended questions - allowing patients to describe in their own words What troubles them. You can then move to closed - ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis.
5 years old
Adult T- cell leukemia
27. What pattern of inheritance does G-6- PD deficiency follow?
Rickets
The optic disk is the blind spot.
Riedel thyroiditis
X- linked recessive
28. What is the term for the amount of blood in the ventricle after maximal contraction?
Residual volume
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and therefore is considered the active form.
3 years old
Carcinoid tumor
29. What gram - positive anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the normal flora of the mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates?
Actinomyces israelii
The wall tension is greater because the aneurysm has a greater radius than the surrounding vessel.
Fibrinoid necrosis
2 NADPHs per acetyl CoA
30. Increased self - esteem - flight of ideas - decreased sleep - increased libido - weight loss - and erratic behavior are all symptoms of what disorder?
Lung cancer
Bipolar disorder (manic - depressive disorder)
Rickets prior to fusion - osteomalacia if the deficiency occurs after epiphyseal fusion.
Nephrotoxic oxylate stones
31. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: x Cells cease replicating (i.e. - nerve cell)
Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II
G0 phase
Propofol
Blastoconidia
32. What family do the following viruses belong to? - Ebola
Basal ganglia
Filovirus
Volkmann's contracture
alpha - Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on - cells and inhibitory effects on - cells.
33. What three cells are essential for T- cell differentiation in the thymus?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Borderline
Type II pneumocytes
Dendritic cells - macrophages - and thymic epithelial cells
34. What is the physiologically active form of Ca2+?
Middle cerebral artery
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
Free ionized Ca2+
The increased H+ moves intracellularly and is buffered by K+ leaving the cells - resulting in intracellular depletion and serum excess. (Intracellular hypokalemia is the reason you supplement potassium in diabetic ketoacidosis - even though the serum
35. What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? - Trichomoniasis
Bordetella pertussis
They prevent mast cell degranulation.
Positive sense RNA can be used as mRNA. Negative sense RNA cannot be used as mRNA; it requires special RNA- dependent RNA polymerases.
Metronidazole
36. Is the bound form or free form of a lipid - soluble hormone responsible for the negative feedback activity?
When showing two pictures in rapid succession - you split the pictures half a second apart - resulting in the second picture masking the first (indicating poor short - term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of schizophrenic patients.
Free form determines hormone activity and is responsible for the negative feedback loop.
Chlamydia trachomatis
Graves disease
37. Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with CN III palsy?
Major
Transtentorial (uncal)
Trimethoprim
1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical substances 2. Chemical specificity needed for transportation 3. Zero - order saturation kinetics (Transportation is maximal when all transporters are saturated.) 4. Rate of transportation faster than i
38. What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? - Shipyards - brake linings - insulation - and old building construction
Spectinomycin
Asbestosis
Hydatidiform mole
Leuprolide
39. Where do adult tapeworms develop - in the intermediate or definitive host?
Budd - Chiari syndrome
extrapyramidal dysfunction
Area 6
Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host - whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host.
40. What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?
Breast cancer
Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3
Laminin
Renal plasma flow (decrease flow - increase FF)
41. Which drug is used to treat respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?
Propranolol
Kidney
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Naloxone or naltrexone
42. Which antimicrobial class may cause tooth enamel dysplasia and decreased bone growth in children?
Triazolam
Carbidopa and benserazide
Tetracycline
Ticlopidine or clopidogrel
43. What is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to?
The number of Ags that the Ab can bind
Eosin
Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes in the DIP joints.
Head of the pancreas
44. The DSM- IV- TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In What axis would you place x Global assessment of function?
Gubernaculum
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
Axis V
Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
45. What is the primary method of nonverbal communication of emotional states?
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma
Psoas major
Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)
Streptococcus viridans
46. What is the most common one? - Site for colonic diverticula
urease positive
Sigmoid colon
almitate
Superoxide dismutase - glutathione peroxidase - catalase
47. What test is done to diagnose CGD?
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
Primary Hemochromatosis
IgG4
Glutamine and aspartate
48. For what disease are SS- A(Ro) - SS- B(La) - and R- ANA diagnostic markers?
Sj
TAT (Thematic apperception test)
Spermatogonia (type B)
GP120
49. What bone cell has receptors for PTH?
Meningioma
Phallus
Osteoblasts (Remember - they modulate the function of osteoclasts.)
Phase 1
50. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meio
Protamine sulfate
Rifampin
Cryptococcus neoformans
Fungi
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