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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What respiratory center in the caudal pons is the center for rhythm promoting prolonged inspirations?
Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase
Apneustic center (deep breathing place)
Serocystadenocarcinoma
EF-1 and GTP
2. What are the five K
Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance No - they can be skipped - repeated - and completed out of sequence.
IgG
Zafirlukast
Intrapleural pressure at the base is -2.5 cm H2O (more positive than the mean) - resulting in a force to collapse the alveoli.
3. What thrombolytic agent is derived from Beta- hemolytic streptococci - is antigenic - and produces depletion of circulating fibrinogen - plasminogen - and factors V and VII?
Ulnar nerve
Streptokinase
Metanephros
Aversive conditioning
4. What is the term for the amount of blood in the ventricle after maximal contraction?
Concrete operations (6-12 years)
Raloxifene
gp120
Residual volume
5. What AA is the major carrier of nitrogen byproducts from most tissues in the body?
With an increased rate of breathing the total ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation. Rapid - shallow breathing increases dead space ventilation with little change in alveolar ventilation. (This is hypoventilation).
Respiratory depression
Glutamine
Palindrome
6. What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR - RPF - FF - and glomerular capillary pressure? - GFR ? - RPF ? - FF ? - capillary pressure ?
Dilation of efferent arteriole
CN VI - VII - and VIII
Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level of the lesion
Pyrantel pamoate
7. What component of the inner ear x Contains perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of the head?
Cryptococcus
Semicircular canal
Urogenital folds
At the beginning of splay is when the renal threshold for glucose occurs and the excess begins to spill over into the urine.
8. What type of binding occurs with one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?
Medial medullary syndrome
RNA polymerase III
Vitamin B6
Affinity
9. What three structures are in contact with the left colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?
Peau d'orange
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Left: stomach - spleen - and left kidney; right: liver - duodenum - and right kidney
Constipation and miosis
10. In the elderly - what happens to total sleep time - percentage of REM sleep - and percentage of NREM sleep?
Coagulative
Total and NREM sleep decrease considerably as we age - but REM sleep remains relatively constant (20%) up to age 80 - then begins to decline.
Serocystadenoma
Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.
11. Name the correct artery - The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
Primitive ventricle
CD4
Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light therapy)
Right brachiocephalic artery
12. What causes a skeletal muscle contraction to terminate?
I- cell disease is a result of a genetic defect affecting the phosphorylation of mannose residues.
When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR - skeletal muscle contraction stops.
Fragile X syndrome
Air flows into the respiratory system.
13. What subset of CD4 helper T- cell function is helping the development of CD8 T cells?
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
Cryptococcus neoformans
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed - type hypersensitivity (type IV)
14. What is the most common chromosomal disorder?
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
Down syndrome
Alternative hypothesis (What is left after the null has been defined)
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
15. During puberty - What is the main drive for the increased GH secretion?
Increased androgen secretion at puberty drives the increased GH secretion.
The rectouterine pouch (of Douglas)
The left gastric - splenic - and common hepatic arteries
It increases REM and total sleep time.
16. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Alkylating agents
Empyema
Leukemias and lymphomas
Melasma
embranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
17. What cerebral lobes are most commonly affected in herpes encephalitis?
Temporal lobes
The affinity of the drug for its receptor
Cervical neoplasia
Flurazepam
18. At what stage of sleep is GH output elevated?
Tetracycline
1. Inhibin 2. Estradiol (E2) 3. Androgen - binding protein 4. Meiosis inhibiting factor (in fetal tissue) 5. Antim
Stage 4
Stage 2 - which accounts for approximately 45% of total sleep time - with REM occupying 20%.
19. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - Histamine
Histidine
Yolk sac tumor
Chromomycosis
Viral meningitis
20. What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin K- dependent factors?
CN V
Shifts it to the right
Site 3
Cefamandole - cefoperazone - and moxalactam
21. What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?
BPH
Type I (makes sense - since they have a predisposition for fractures and type I collagen is associated with bones and tendons)
Hypoxanthine (remember - IMP is a precursor for AMP and GMP)
Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in hyperthermia.
22. In an adult - Where does the spinal cord terminate and What is it called?
The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.
Right ventricle
1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see - can't wee - can't kick with your knee
Sjogren's syndrome - active hepatitis - systemic lupus erythematosus (with HLA- DR2) and type 1 diabetes (with HLA- DR4)
23. When do hCG concentrations peak in pregnancy?
Ribonucleotide reductase
In the first 3 months
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
Friedreich ataxia
24. What are the five branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
Procainamide
Osteosarcoma
Ulnar to radial progression
25. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Hypoglossal canal
Cocaine - induced coronary ischemia
CN XII
Prinzmetal variant angina
Gonococcus
26. Are excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity because of the amount of space the liver occupies.
Tryptophan
The short arm of chromosome 6
GABA and glutamic acid
27. What is the only enzyme in the body that uses N-5- methyl folate?
Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts)
Homocysteine methyl transferase
T4; because of the greater affinity for the binding protein - T4 has a significantly (nearly fifty times) longer half - life than T3.
Urogenital sinus
28. What neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis but does not induce tardive dyskinesia?
Axis V
Clozapine
Increase in urinary excretion of HCO3- - shifting the reaction to the right and increasing H+
Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)
29. Which PG is associated with maintaining a PDA?
Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic megacolon)
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin - ACh - and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.
Microglia
Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterial vessels - small changes in pressure result in large changes in blood volume.
30. Name the most common type or cause - Erysipelas
Primary hypoparathyroidism
Streptococcus pyogenes
Affinity (one of each)
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell - mediated)
31. What are the five conditions associated with normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
Proencephalon
Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets incorporated into the syncytiotrophoblast.)
Dependent
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
32. What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm?
HDL
Somatoform disorder
Chronic rejection
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)
33. What type of Ag do T cells recognize?
Roth spots
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g. - long bone fracture)
PGI 2
34. What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?
IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
Cytochrome c
Purkinje cell is the fastest - and the AV node is the slowest.
Long - term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.
35. What enzyme catalyzes the rate - limiting step in cholesterol metabolism?
Nodular sclerosis
HMG- CoA reductase
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in the distal ileum.
36. What lymphoma is associated with bleeding and cryoglobulin precipitation at low temperatures - headache and confusion due to hyperviscosity - IgM M- protein spike on serum electrophoresis - and Russell bodies?
Hallucinations are sensory impressions (without a stimulus); illusions are misperceptions of real stimuli; and delusions are false beliefs that are not shared by the culture.
Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)
Waldenstr
Estrone
37. What is the role of the negative charge on the filtering membrane of the glomerular capillaries?
The negative charge inhibits the filtration of protein anions.
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
Vitamin A is responsible for vision and epithelial health.
Huntington disease
38. What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?
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39. A unilateral lesion In what nucleus will produce ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate?
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.
DNA polymerases
Valproic acid
Nucleus ambiguus - resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.
40. Based on operant conditioning - What type of reinforcement is described when x Adding a stimulus stops a behavior?
Thymus - independent Ags
1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2
Punishment
Hormone secretion for T- cell differentiation and T- cell education to recognize self from nonself
41. What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is innervated by CN V3?
With arteriolar constriction both the flow and pressure downstream decrease.
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
The fastigial nucleus
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.
42. What branch of the immune system is acquired in response to an Ag?
Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
Negative reinforcement
The raphe nuclei
43. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot
Lateral compartment of the leg - superficial peroneal nerve
Eosinophilic exudates
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
Job syndrome
44. What cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for prophylactic management of asthma via blockade?
Urinary 17- ketosteroids
Cholera toxin
They prevent mast cell degranulation.
Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients with alcaptonuria.
45. What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? - The rise in right atrial pressure secondary to blood filling and terminating when the tricuspid valves opens
V wave
Pyloric stenosis
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
Depolarization is from apex to base and from endocardium to epicardium.
46. What virus lies dormant in the x Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?
Epinephrine
First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Herpes II
NADPH oxidase is deficient - resulting in an inability to produce toxic metabolites.
47. What form of penicillin is stable in acid environments?
Penicillin V
Proencephalon
Prostate cancer
Endometrial cancer
48. What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?
Yolk sac tumor
Th2 cells
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
Dysgerminoma
49. Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only inside HBV- infected cells?
PTH
Tetany
Hepatitis D
Increase enzyme concentrations
50. Name the components of the femoral canal - working laterally to medially.
Menses
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve - Artery - Vein - Empty space - and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament
Rectum
Adrenarche
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