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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. When the ECF osmolarity increases - what happens to cell size?
Propionic acid
Glucagon
Stable
Increase in ECF osmolarity means a in decrease in ICF osmolarity - so cells shrink.
2. What is the rate - limiting enzyme on glycolysis?
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
Phosphofructokinase -1 and costs 1 ATP
Ovarian cancer
CML and All
3. What viral infection is associated with black vomit?
Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via increasing potassium conductance - taking longer to reach threshold and slowing the rate of firing.
Yellow fever (flavivirus)
Streptomycin
PGD2 - PGE2 - and PGF 2
4. What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?
Median nerve lesion
Prostatic carcinoma
Urogenital sinus
Histidine
5. What is the rate - limiting step in the synthetic pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve terminal?
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
Senile plaques - neurofibrillary tangles - and granulovascular changes in neurons
gamma and delta chains
Squamous cell carcinoma
6. Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent - shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; associated with cerebral malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Superoxide dismutase - glutathione peroxidase - catalase
Water - soluble hormones are considered fast - acting hormones.
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
7. Where does the conversion of CO2 into HCO3- take place?
In the RBC; remember - you need carbonic anhydrase for the conversion - and plasma does not have this enzyme.
Physiologic dead space is the total dead space of the respiratory system.
Omega -3; linoleic is omega -6
Flow cytometric analysis
8. How is velocity related to the total cross - sectional area of a blood vessel?
Mees lines
Velocity is inversely related to cross - sectional area.
Ulcerative colitis
Medial meniscus
9. What is the term for the inherent ability to induce a specific immune response?
Rate of absorption
Increased REM sleep - decreased REM latency - and decreased stage 4 sleep - leading to early morning awakening
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.
IgM
10. What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as x Autoantibodies directed against RBC Ag I?
Ristocetin
Internal iliac nodes
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Adipose tissue
11. What is the name for the most prominent spinous process?
Kupffer cells
Stratum granulosum
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)
12. Name the type of exudate - given the following examples - Meningococcal infection
BPH. Although an argument can be made for prostatic cancer (you should expect a much higher PSA result) - these are buzzwords for BPH. Prostatic cancer is usually silent until late in the disease - when obstructive symptoms begin to occur.
Purulent exudates
Parkinson's disease
Thiogalactoside transacetylase
13. What nucleus supplies the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?
Chromosome 19
Edinger - Westphal nucleus (via CN III)
Dystrophic calcification
Yersinia pestis
14. What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in x The vermis?
Streptococcus viridans
The fastigial nucleus
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve
Prevalence rate
15. What is the first formal IQ test used today for children aged 2 to 18?
Caplan syndrome
Limbic system
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by increasing the number of Beta - receptors and their sensitivity to catecholamines.
Stanford - Binet Scale - developed in 1905 - is useful in the very bright - the impaired - and children less than 6 years old.
16. What level of mental retardation is characterized by x Being self - supportive with minimal guidance and able to be gainfully employed (includes 85% of the mentally retarded)?
Residual volume
rRNA
Mild (50-70)
Extrahepatic biliary atresia
17. What term describes the reflex that increases the curvature of the lens - allowing near vision?
Depolarization (i.e. - Na+ influx)
Both
Accommodation
Amyl nitrate - sodium nitrate - or sodium thiosulfate
18. What is the function of white rami communicantes?
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier - it may become immunogenic.
Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
It decreases insulin secretion.
19. What is the most common one? - Liver tumor
Right - sided valves
Narcissistic
MEN I (or Wermer syndrome)
Metastatic carcinoma
20. What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?
Tensor tympani
Coronary circulation
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Chemotaxis
21. What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus - dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles - and signs of extrapyramidal lesions?
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
Huntington disease
Auspitz sign
As the standard deviation increases - the greater the chance of error.
22. Induces the cytochrome P-450 enzymes.
HBsAb IgG
Hemiazygous vein
Kupffer cells
Ethyl alcohol
23. Which antihyperlipidemic agent would you not prescribe for a patient with a history of gout or PUD?
Nicotinic acid - because its side effects include hyperuricemia and exacerbation of ulcers.
Pergolide
Marfan syndrome
Thermogenic
24. What primary acid - base disturbance is cause by a decrease in alveolar ventilation (increasing CO2 levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the right and increasing H+ and HCO3- levels?
Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.
Flumazenil
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2 - high H+ - slightly high HCO3-)
25. Which class of antihypertensives produces angioedema - hyperkalemia - and a dry cough?
ACE inhibitors (the - pril agents)
Schistocytes
Legionella (think air conditioners)
ELISA test
26. What two vitamins are inactivated when they come in contact with acetaldehyde?
They are in ganglia in the PNS.
When it crosses the teres major
Subacute combined degeneration - Which is bilateral below the level of the lesion.
Thiamine and folate
27. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Pulmonary artery and veins
Middle
Crigler - Najjar syndrome
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Buffers (remember that buffers are best when they are used in a pH range near its pK)
28. What is the first branch of the abdominal artery?
P1 protein
Proencephalon
Osteoblasts (Remember - they modulate the function of osteoclasts.)
Inferior phrenic artery
29. What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second messenger system?
HMG CoA synthase
1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI mucosa
Huntington disease
a1- Receptors
30. Deposits in the oral cavity.
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases - there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.
The Purkinje cell
Excess lead
Panacinar
31. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - Sarcomere
Plasmodium malariae
Shortens
Hemorrhagic exudates
Mitral valve closure indicates the termination of the ventricular filling phase and beginning of isovolumetric contraction.
32. What is the most abused drug across all age groups?
The pulmonary vein - which carries oxygenated blood from the lung to the left atrium.
Sphingomyelinase
The urine becomes hypertonic because of water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a problem with alcohol.
33. Regarding the Lac operon - for What do the following genes code? - A gene
Id
eIF-2 in the P site
Thiogalactoside transacetylase
A decrease in Ca2+ and an increase in PO4
34. What rare disorder presents as a large - hard - irregular thyroid gland due to fibrous proliferation of connective tissue in the thyroid gland and extends to adjacent structures?
Salmeterol
Myeloperoxidase
Isoleucine - threonine - tryptophan - tyrosine - and phenylalanine
Riedel thyroiditis
35. What are the three end products of amylase digestion?
The stomach
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. a - Limit dextrans (a -1 - 6 binding)
Areas 1 - 2 - and 3
Chromosome 6
36. What Ig is associated with Ag recognition receptor on the surface of mature B cells?
Lithium
At least 15%
IgD; IgM is also correct.
Chromosome 15 - 17
37. What bacteriostatic agent's side effect profile includes grey baby syndrome and aplastic anemia?
Chloramphenicol
Congenital heart disease
Mitochondria - linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
38. What are the three posttranscriptional modifications?
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39. Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? - Migratory polyarthritis
Excess lead
C1 through C4
Epinephrine
Major
40. Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: x Synthesizes 28S - 18S and 5.8S rRNAs
Primary hypoparathyroidism
Criterion - referenced tests. You need a certain number correct to pass (e.g. - the USMLE).
Reye syndrome
RNA polymerase I
41. Name the ocular lesion; be specific - Right calcarine cortex lesion
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Menses
18 years old (except if emancipated)
Kupffer cells
42. In the classical conditioning model - when a behavior is learned - what must occur to break the probability that a response will happen?
Birth defects - low birth weight (< 1500 g) with neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) - and SIDS
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increase in cardiac output - resulting in a minimal change in BP.
CN IX - X - and XII
43. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Vinyl chloride
Angiosarcoma of the liver
Antidigoxin Fab fragments
Allograft
Relaxation of the diaphragm increases the intrapleural pressure (becomes more positive).
44. Serum concentration of what substance is used as a clinical measure of a patient's GFR?
Swan - neck deformities
Creatinine
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.
Heroin
45. Which sedative - hypnotic is contraindicated for patients taking warfarin?
Multiple myeloma
Chloral hydrate
Class IV
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country approximately $100 billion a year.
46. What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA- B27- positive young men - involves the sacroiliac joints - has no subcutaneous nodules - and has a bamboo spine appearance on radiograph?
Vitamin E
Nonsense
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Ankylosing spondylitis
47. What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon associated with laxative abuse?
CN X
Melanosis coli
Grasp proceeds release
Under resting conditions expiration is considered a passive process; therefore - no muscles are used. In the active state the abdominal muscles can be considered the major muscle of expiration.
48. Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development - spermatid - spermatocyte (primary or secondary) - spermatogonia (type A or B): x 46/2n (divide mitotically)
Spermatogonia (type B)
Plasma cell
von Gierke's disease
In children - the fourth ventricle; in adults - the lateral ventricle or spinal cord
49. Regarding neuroleptics - What is the relationship between potency and anticholinergic side effects?
Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are.
Carbamazepine
Inversely proportional: the higher the potency - the lower the anticholinergic side effects.
H 2
50. Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Placental alkaline phosphatase
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect.
Mitral valve closure indicates the termination of the ventricular filling phase and beginning of isovolumetric contraction.
Seminoma
Splenic flexure