Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. How many carbons do estrogens have?
Melanosis coli
absorption
Estrogens are 18- carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.)
The carotid body - which monitors arterial blood directly

2. What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
Scleroderma
Huntington disease
Rate of absorption

3. What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres?
Protease - integrase - and reverse transcriptase
Middle cerebral artery
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus - or GBS)
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism

4. What is the major pulmonary side effect of
Respiratory depression
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
Celecoxib
IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF- gamma also)

5. If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or insertion of a chest tube - do you use the inferior or the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why?
Alcohol consumption
If positive - hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300 mOsm/L); if negative - hypertonic urine (osmolarity > 300 mOsm/L)>>
The superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is your landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border of each rib is the neurovascular bundle - and you would risk injury if you went below the rib.
Leydig cell tumor

6. What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? - Following biliary infections
Enterococcus faecalis
Mumps and influenza virus
Pneumocystis carinii
The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high venous PO2) difference in the body because of the overperfusion of the kidneys resulting from filtration.

7. If the pH is low with increased CO2 levels and decreased HCO3- levels - What is the acid - base disturbance?
NE - via its vasoconstrictive action on blood vessels
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.
Postinfectious GN
Combined metabolic and respiratory acidosis

8. What is the name for the most prominent spinous process?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases - C6 in 20% - T1 in 10%)
Helicase (requires ATP for energy)
Diverticulosis
a -1 - 6 transferase

9. What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug of choice for whipworm and pinworm?
Sensory
Mebendazole
Carbidopa and benserazide
Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle

10. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Pons
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g. - cheese - dried fish - sauerkraut - chocolate - avocados - and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
Areas 5 and 7
90% as HCO3- - 5% as carbamino compounds - and 5% as dissolved CO2
Rhombencephalon

11. What is the only specific Ag - presenting cell?
Wegener granulomatosis
Coxsackie B
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)
B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells are nonspecific.

12. Which CNs act as the sensory and motor components of the gag reflex?
Atropine with pralidoxime
The sensory limb is via CN IX - and the motor limb is from CN X.
The lung will expand; also the opposite is true.
Glioblastoma multiforme

13. What is the rate - limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis?
Humor
Glycogen synthase
Flutamide
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative

14. Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity?
Sphingomyelin
Abs to HBsAg
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the - oti - is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)
Social learning theory

15. What enzyme - induced by insulin and activated by apo C- II - is required for chylomicron and VLDL metabolism?
The removal of Na+ results in the renal tubule becoming negatively charged. The negative luminal charge attracts both K+ and H+ into the renal tubule and promotes HCO3- to enter the ECF and results in hypokalemic alkalosis.
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
Turner syndrome
Lipoprotein lipase

16. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - Actin and myosin lengths
No change in length
The promoter indicates where transcription will begin.
Reliability (think of it as 'nice grouping' or 'precise')
Epstein - cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve

17. What is the first formal IQ test used today for children aged 2 to 18?
Rhombencephalon
Retinoblastoma
Minor
Stanford - Binet Scale - developed in 1905 - is useful in the very bright - the impaired - and children less than 6 years old.

18. What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness - conjunctivitis - maculopapular rash - and lymphadenopathy?
Kawasaki disease
Stratum lucidum
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett esophagus)

19. Arrange the following layers in the correct sequence through which a needle must pass in a lumbar puncture - Skin x Subarachnoid space x Interspinous ligament x Dura mater x Deep fascia x Epidural space x Superficial fascia x Interlaminar space x Su
Edrophonium
During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3- L4 - with the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark. Order of puncture: 1. Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep fascia 4. Supraspino
von Gierke's disease
Tolcapone and entacapone

20. What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the direct passage of ions and particles between two adjacent cells?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.
Gap junctions

21. Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development - spermatid - spermatocyte (primary or secondary) - spermatogonia (type A or B): x 46/2n (divide meiotically)
Osteosarcoma
Scrofula
urease positive
Spermatogonia (type A)

22. What is the function of white rami communicantes?
Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor is inhibitory.
Quinolones

23. What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP (5- Phosphoribosyl -1- Pyrophosphate)?
Malassezia furfur (treat with selenium sulfide)
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Bactericidal
Orotic acid (purine metabolism)

24. At what vertebral levels does the aortic arch begin and end?
It both begins and ends at T4 (sternal angle [of Louis]).
Anticentromere Abs
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
Crohn disease

25. What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?
Azithromycin
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)
Frontal lobe
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein

26. What vessels carry deoxygenated blood into the lungs from the right ventricle?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
An elevated serum osteocalcin level
1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine
The right and left pulmonary arteries - the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood

27. Progesterone has __________ activities.
Clear cell
Ovarian fibroma
Thermogenic
Pantothenic acid

28. What is the most common one? - Primary tumor metastasis to the bone
Cestodes
Measurement bias
Arsenic - thorotrast - and vinyl chloride
Breast

29. What branch off the vertebral artery supplies x The ventrolateral two - thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?
The primitive streak grows caudal to rostral.
Pubis - ilium - and ischium
transcription
Anterior spinal artery

30. Name the type of necrosis - Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis
DiGeorge syndrome - Which is due to a failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouch development. Remember - B cell deficiencies are associated with extracellular infection. T cell deficiencies are associated with intracellular infections
The number of Ags that the Ab can bind
Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis occurs from vomiting because of the loss of H+ - K+ - and Cl -.
Gangrenous necrosis

31. Name the type of necrosis - Due to lipase activity and has a chalky white appearance
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three Es)
RBCs
Tetracyclines
Fat necrosis

32. What must be supplemented in patients with medium - chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Short - chain fatty acids
Itraconazole
Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) - an anti - RhD IgG antibody - prevents generation of RhD- specific memory B cells in the mother.

33. What viral infection is associated with black vomit?
Cerebral aqueduct
Concentration gradient
Yellow fever (flavivirus)
Spironolactone

34. Regarding the viral growth curve - is the external virus present before or after the latent period?
Haemophilus influenzae type B
After the latent period
Hepatitis D
Chylomicrons

35. What mushroom poisoning is associated with fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis?
Amanita phalloides
NaCl is removed from the lumen to dilute the fluid leaving the loop of Henle.
Increased androgen secretion at puberty drives the increased GH secretion.
Stimulus control

36. What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? - Concentration of CHO - AA - ketones - peptides
No CHO - AA - ketones - or peptides are left in the tubular lumen.
Clofazimine
TAT (Thematic apperception test)
Ephedrine

37. What are the two most common chains of the TCR?
3 to 4 days
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer - Which is commonly unilateral - single nodule - no variation with pregnancy.
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by increasing the number of Beta - receptors and their sensitivity to catecholamines.
a - and Beta- chains are on most T cells.

38. What is the most common one? - Site for carcinoid tumors
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
Appendix (second is terminal ileum)
They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.
LTC4 and LTD4

39. Can be secreted.
Androgens are 19- carbon steroids.
Autograft
Glucose -6- phosphatase
B- cell Ag receptors

40. What is the term for the load on a muscle in the relaxed state?
GP IIb and IIIa receptors
Phallic stage (4-6 years)
Preload. It is the load on a muscle Prior to contraction.
Pedophilia

41. What is the term for how well a drug produces its desired response?
hCG
Anterior wall of the first part of the duodenum
Stratum granulosum
Efficacy

42. What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular groove of the humerus?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

43. The dose of which second - generation sulfonylurea agent must be decreased for patients with hepatic dysfunction?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

44. Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?
Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the lesion.
Bladder carcinoma
RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.
GH

45. What organism causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
Decreases
Type I error (alpha error). (Remember it as saying something works when it doesn't.) The chance of a type I error occurring is the P value.
Mallory- Weiss syndrome

46. Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. Wrist
Sickle cell disease
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember - for major articulations - wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)
The respiratory system
Type I pneumocytes

47. What vessel is lacerated in an epidural hematoma?
Beryllium
Arsenic - thorotrast - and vinyl chloride
Middle meningeal artery
CN VII

48. What type of hallucination occurs during awakening?
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during awakening - whereas hypnagogic hallucinations occur while one is falling asleep.
Wilson disease. (Remember - patients commonly present with psychiatric manifestations and movement disorders but may be asymptomatic.)

49. What is the term for thickened - hyperpigmented skin in the axillae - groin - and skin folds associated with malignancies - obesity - and DM?
Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.
Acanthosis nigricans
Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA - are fragmented - and contain all sequences found in the particular genome copied.
The left gastric - splenic - and common hepatic arteries

50. Name the most common type or cause - Spontaneous pneumothorax
One - and it provides the energy for mechanical contraction.
Emphysematous bleb
Intussusception
Stable angina