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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
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Subjects
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health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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study here
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Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What are the four chemotactic agents?
Ganciclovir
Jejunum (upper)
Pseudomembranous exudates
1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides
2. Under resting conditions - What is the main determinant of cerebral blood flow?
Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries
Baseline apical intrapleural pressure is -10 cm H2O (more negative than the mean) resulting in a force to expand the alveoli.
de Quervain thyroiditis
Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral blood flow.
3. What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? - Calcium reabsorption - phosphate reabsorption
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect.
Vitamin D3
VSD
Breast and lung cancer - respectively.
4. Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
Folic acid deficiency
Leiomyoma
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia
5. What hereditary bone disorder is due to decreased osteoclast function - resulting in thick - sclerotic bones that fracture easily?
Blastoconidia
Osteopetrosis (Albers - Sch
Guanethidine and bretylium
Homicide. It is also the leading cause of death in black females aged 15 to 24.
6. Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with osteoporosis or osteomalacia?
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium - phosphorus - and alkaline phosphatase.
Leiomyoma (fibroids)
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.
Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest velocity in systemic circulation
7. Name the most common type or cause - Painless hematuria
Arterioles
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score - where MA = mental age and CA = chronological age
Renal cell carcinoma
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
8. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Foramen magnum
CN XI - vertebral arteries
IgA nephropathy
Clostridium botulinum
Valproic acid
9. What type of GN - associated with celiac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis - has mesangial deposits of IgA - C3 - properdin - IgG - and IgM?
The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it harms the fetus.
Short - chain fatty acids
Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
10. What type of resistance system - high or low - is formed when resistors are added in a series?
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Tyrosine
Shifts it to the right
A high - resistance system is formed when resistors are added in a series.
11. What region or regions of the adrenal cortex are stimulated by ACTH?
Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis
Leukemias and lymphomas
Somatomedins
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a substance is equal - the substance is freely filtered by the kidney.
12. What three organs are necessary for the production of vitamin D3(cholecalciferol)?
Permanent
Minocycline
Skin - liver - and kidneys
7 years old
13. What thyroid abnormality has the following? - TRH decreased - TSH decreased - T4 increased
Microsporum
Scavenger receptor (SR- B1)
Graves disease (Increased T4 decreases TRH and TSH through negative feedback.)
Cestodes
14. What is the MCC of the following meningitides? - In neonates to 3 months of age
Streptococcus agalactiae and Escherichia coli
Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus)
Heart rate determines the diastolic interval - and contractility determines the systolic interval.
Yes
15. What ocular muscle x Depresses and adducts the eyeball?
ATP/ADP Translocase
CN XI - vertebral arteries
The raphe nuclei
Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
16. How can a genetic deficiency of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase be differentiated from an ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency?
Cystadenocarcinoma
Uracil and orotic acid levels increase with ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency and are normal in carbamoyl phosphate synthetase deficiency.
Axis V
GH - especially IGF-1. GH also increases the incorporation of thymidine in DNA synthesis and uridine in RNA synthesis.
17. What histone binds two nucleosomes together?
H1 histones
Scrofula
Plasmodium vivax
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
18. Which nicotinic receptor antagonist is inactivated to laudanosine?
Lac repressor protein
Anaerobes
Preductal (infantile)
Atracurium
19. What neuroendocrine tumor produces excess serotonin; is associated with diarrhea - flushing - bronchospasms - wheezing; and is diagnosed by findings of elevated urinary 5- HIAA levels?
Thymus - independent Ags
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
Hydroxyproline (breakdown product of collagen)
Carcinoid tumor
20. Name the antidote - Acetaminophen
Clonidine
Expressive aphasia
N- Acetylcysteine
Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium
21. What are the three posttranscriptional modifications?
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22. What lymphoma is characterized by CD19 - CD20 - CD5; CD23- negative; and chromosome 11;14 translocations?
The coding strand is identical to mRNA - and the template strand is complementary and antiparallel.
Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an efferent pupillary defect (CN III) - B/L constrict when light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the affected eye.
Mantle cell lymphoma
Type I pneumocytes
23. What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas?
Risperidone
Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight
Type 2
Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic effect.)
24. Via what cell surface receptor does HDL cholesterol from the periphery enter hepatoceles?
Scavenger receptor (SR- B1)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Southern blot
Oxytocin
25. With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?
1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR
Renal failure
NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are unable to recall.
Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis occurs in colonic diarrhea because of the net secretion of HCO3- and potassium into the colonic lumen.
26. What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates x The parotid gland?
Series circuit
IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the second step in the immune response - known as Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF- alpha to activate macrophages
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the - oti - is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
27. Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: x Separating oneself from the experience. The facts are accepted but the form is changed for protection.
Methyldopa
Dissociation
Silicosis - Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is synonymous with black lung disease - an upper lobe occupational disorder
Glucokinase
28. What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?
Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever
Rhombencephalon
Parallel circuit
refuse
29. What apoprotein is required for the release of chylomicrons from the epithelial cells into the lymphatics?
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused.
There is a difference; it takes about 7 to 8 half - lives to reach mathematical steady state and 4 to 5 half - lives to reach clinical steady state.
apo B-48
Microglia
30. How many days prior to ovulation does estradiol peak in the menstrual cycle?
2 days prior to ovulation
ALA dehydrogenase and ferrochelatase
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked - acetaldehyde builds up - and its presence in excess results in nausea and hypotension.
Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis)
31. Name the associated chromosome - Huntington disease
EF-2 and GTP
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
Chromosome 4p
A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle - whereas a Ghon complex is a focus with hilar lymph node involvement.
32. What is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with CLL?
Dopamine
Anopheles mosquito
Metanephros
Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL have abnormal karyotypes.)
33. Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: x Painful subcutaneous nodules on fingers and toes
Gubernaculum
45XO
Osler nodes
Desipramine
34. What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?
Foramen of Winslow
Oncotic pressure increases because of the removal of water.
Streptococcus pyogenes
Afterload
35. What form of bilirubin is carried on albumin?
Unconjugated (indirect)
Palms - up before palms - down maneuvers
C- peptide levels
Misoprostol
36. Are resistant to the effects of aminoglycosides.
Adenocarcinoma
Anaerobes
Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial - Contraction - Venous
Parental assignment and culture (not biology)
37. For what disease are SS- A(Ro) - SS- B(La) - and R- ANA diagnostic markers?
Succinyl CoA
Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules)
Sj
Basal cell carcinoma
38. Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders?
Mitochondria - linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.
Yes - by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners - being overweight - and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused females.
No - it is used in chronic treatment of gout to decrease the uric acid pools in the body.
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
39. What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with MEN I syndrome?
Silicosis - Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is synonymous with black lung disease - an upper lobe occupational disorder
a - and Beta- chains are on most T cells.
Gastrinoma
DNA polymerases
40. What is the most common one? - Benign breast tumor in females less than 35 years old
Silent
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase - lipase - and proteases for digestion.
Pheochromocytoma
Fibroadenoma
41. What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty - masculinization - gynecomastia in adults - and crystalloids of Reinke?
Beryllium
Ulcerative colitis
Clavicle - acromion - and glenoid fossa of the scapula and the humerus
Leydig cell tumor
42. What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) x Patient with AIDS
>5 mm
Duodenum
1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of the procedure 3. Risks of the procedure 4. The nature of the procedure (what you are doing) 5. The alternative to this procedure and its availability (Don't forget the last one; this is where physicians get
HBcAb IgM
43. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x Additional air that can be taken in after normal inspiration
Operon
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
NE
Gastrinoma
44. In What trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?
The first trimester
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
5HT1D
Labile
45. What is the most common one? - Helminthic parasite worldwide
Ascaris lumbricoides
The odontoid process of C2
VLDL
AML- M3
46. What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? - Trichomoniasis
The JG cells
Metronidazole
Decreases
Peroxidase - Which is also needed for iodination and coupling inside the follicular cell
47. What is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a patient who was cut by an oyster shell?
C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH)
Vibrio vulnificus
Neuroblastoma
The parasympathetic nervous system
48. What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each other through the use of fibrinogen?
Sickle cell anemia - Caisson disease - chronic steroid use - and Gaucher disease
Nucleus pulposus
GP IIb/IIIa - Which is why GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors are used in the treatment of acute coronary syndromes
Tropomyosin
49. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Pulmonary artery and veins
1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastric ligaments) 2. Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver 4. Triangular ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery derivatives.
Parkinson disease
Middle
Middle meningeal artery
50. What is the term for the amount of a drug that is needed to produce the desired effect?
Decrease (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
Potency
Parasites
Pentoxifylline
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