Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the only antifungal agent to penetrate CSF?
Atelectasis
1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids
Fluconazole
HBcAb IgG - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg

2. What disorder is associated with decreased platelet count - prolonged PT and PTT - decreased fibrinogen - and increased fibrin split products (D- dimers)?
QRS complex
Agglutination test
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Depression

3. What are the longest - acting and shortest - acting benzodiazepines?
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest acting.
Isotonic contraction
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
Fat necrosis

4. What is the first Ab a baby makes?
Obturator nerve
Hepatitis D
1. Increased tube radius 2. Increased velocity 3. Decreased viscosity 4. Increased number of branches 5. Narrowing of an orifice
IgM

5. What determines the plasma level at steady state?
Cyanide
Cori cycle
The rate of infusion
Renal cell carcinoma

6. What Brodmann area is associated with x Wernicke's area?
Atropine - 2- PAM (pralidoxime)
Beryllium
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40
Metanephros

7. Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
Ionized drugs are water soluble - and since only lipid - soluble drugs can cross biomembranes - an ionized drug cannot cross them without the help of a carrier.
Valproic acid
G0 phase
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver - it results in hepatomegaly.

8. What determines the Vmax of skeletal muscle?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

9. What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?
Deltoid
ACL
Poxvirus
Cerebellum

10. If free water clearance (CH2O) is positive - What type of urine is formed? And if it is negative?
BPH. Although an argument can be made for prostatic cancer (you should expect a much higher PSA result) - these are buzzwords for BPH. Prostatic cancer is usually silent until late in the disease - when obstructive symptoms begin to occur.
Marfan syndrome
If positive - hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300 mOsm/L); if negative - hypertonic urine (osmolarity > 300 mOsm/L)>>
Galactoside permease

11. The gallbladder functions to...
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.
produce bile
Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH wet - wacky - wobbly)

12. What AR disorder is due to a deficiency in glycoprotein IIb - IIIa - resulting in a defect in platelet aggregation?
Glanzmann syndrome
reflexes
Positive sense RNA can be used as mRNA. Negative sense RNA cannot be used as mRNA; it requires special RNA- dependent RNA polymerases.
PGE2

13. What type of Ag do B cells recognize?
BPH
Free - unprocessed Ag
Staphylococcus aureus
Passive - aggressive

14. Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information - Naked capsid RNA calicivirus
Thymine
Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon). The substituted standard could not apply because the patient had never been competent - so no one knew What the patient would have wanted. Therefore - the decision was based on What a 'reasonable' person would have w
Melanoma
Hepatitis E

15. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: x Intellectual processing of sensory information - with the left (dominant) processing verbal information - the right processing visual - spatial orientation
Inhibited orgasm
Parietal lobe
Neurofibromatosis
CN III and IV

16. Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? - Skin - hair - and nails
Proximal tubule
Trichophyton
Accommodation
Acetoacetate - acetone - and Beta- hydroxybutyrate

17. What type of scale is graded into equal increments - showing not only any difference but how much?
Broca's aphasia
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked - acetaldehyde builds up - and its presence in excess results in nausea and hypotension.
In children - the fourth ventricle; in adults - the lateral ventricle or spinal cord
Interval scale (a ruler - for example)

18. Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: x Continuous involuntary contraction - uninuclear striated branched fibers - actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern - dyadic T tubules - intercalated discs - troponin and desmin as a Z disc
Pulmonary embolism due to a DVT; this is not absolute but a classic description.
PGE2 and PGF2a
Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)
Cardiac muscle

19. Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Gubernaculum
1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions - and only cells with bound Ag undergo clonal expansion
Ulcerative colitis

20. What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response - the reinforcement is given x Varying in time?
CN V
Variable interval
Pseudomonas
1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm

21. Inhibition of peripheral aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and increased CNS availability of L- dopa are results of what drug used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
Citrate - via the citrate shuttle
Carbidopa and benserazide
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.
Multiple myeloma

22. With what stage of sleep are bruxisms associated?
Glioblastoma multiforme
Oxytocin
Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2 sleep.
RSV

23. What chromosome is mutant in patients with cystic fibrosis?
Carcinoid tumor
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.
Patients with cystic fibrosis have a mutation in the chloride channel protein in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7.
Superior vena cava

24. What are the CAGE questions?
Pulmonary infections
The thalamus (I like to think of the thalamus as the executive secretary for the cerebral cortex. All information destined for the cortex has to go through the thalamus.)
The conversion of CHO to pregnenolone via the enzyme desmolase
Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?)

25. Circulating levels of what hormone in men is responsible for the negative feedback loop to the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland regulating the release of LH?
Lead - time bias (remember - patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis
Body dysmorphic disorder
Testosterone

26. What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH - Ca2+ - and inorganic phosphate (Pi)? - PTH decreased - Ca2+ increased - Pi increased
Secondary hypoparathyroidism (vitamin D toxicity)
Arch of the aorta
Caseous necrosis
C4 (the upper border of the thyroid cartilage)

27. At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children x Have abstract thinking?
Risk factors for cervical cancer
Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal with incidence.)
Formal operations (> 12 years)
Right coronary artery

28. What two enzymes are vitamin B12- dependent
Pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae)
Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl CoA transferase
Microsporum
The vestibulo - ocular reflex

29. What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty - masculinization - gynecomastia in adults - and crystalloids of Reinke?
Id
Leydig cell tumor
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused.
Spermatid

30. What congenital small bowel outpouching is a remnant of the vitelline duct?
Isovolumetric contraction
Liver - kidneys - and pituitary gland via 5' deiodinase enzyme
HBsAg as its envelope
Meckel diverticulum

31. What substrate gets built up in Gaucher's disease?
Creutzfeldt - Jakob's disease. Patients first develop vague somatic complaints and anxiety - rapidly followed by dysarthria - myoclonus - ataxia - and choreoathetosis.
Shifts it to the right
Glucosyl cerebroside
Voyeurism

32. Contracting both medial rectus muscles simultaneously makes the images of near objects remain on the same part of the retina. What term describes this process?
Ego dystonic
Regardless of the rate of infusion - it takes 4 to 5 half - lives to reach steady state.
Convergence
Psammoma bodies

33. What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opioids?
>5 mm
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score - where MA = mental age and CA = chronological age
Procainamide
Enkephalins

34. With What thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7 articulate?
Paranoid schizophrenia
1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius
Cauda equina
Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.

35. Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? - Pain and pruritus
H 1
Mumps
Th2
Amiloride

36. Name the MCC - Walking pneumonia - seen in teens and military recruits
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember - for major articulations - wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Celecoxib
M

37. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - Oligomycin
1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine
p -53
Fo/F1 complex
Cortisol - a 21- carbon steroid - has a - OH group at position 17.

38. Blood and its vessels form During What embryonic week?
In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary afferent neurons
Pearson correlation
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
Skin - liver - and kidneys

39. What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the production of ADH?
External 3' - 5' PDE bonds
Increase in erythropoietin and increase in 2 - 3- BPG - also called 2 - 3- diphosphoglycerate (2 - 3- P2Gri) (increase in glycolysis)
Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes insipidus.
Vimentin

40. What area of the brain is linked to emotion and movement?
Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6 and is needed to transfer the amino groups of one carbon skeleton to another.
Mesolimbic system
Actinomyces israelii
Isoleucine - leucine - and valine

41. A patient has to prove his or her...
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.
Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell maturation.)
competency
Thiogalactoside transacetylase

42. Based on operant conditioning - What type of reinforcement is described when x Removing a stimulus stops a behavior?
Follicular lymphoma
Primary follicle (in the white pulp)
Extinction
Negative

43. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: x Cells cease replicating (i.e. - nerve cell)
Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X) Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
Cyanide
Pneumococcus
G0 phase

44. Based on the onset of the symptoms - how are bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and Chlamydia differentiated?
The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days - whereas onset of symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days.
IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - and IgM
Ea (activation energy)
Ketamine

45. What is the term for headaches - inability to concentrate - sleep disturbances; avoidance of associated stimuli; reliving events as dreams or flashbacks following a psychologically stressful event beyond the normal range of expectation?
Metastatic calcification
Galactose and glucose
Posttraumatic stress disorder. (Important: symptoms must be exhibited for longer than 1 month.)
T cells - not B cells

46. Name the antidote - Digoxin
Antidigoxin Fab fragments
Toxoplasmosis
Filiform papillae
12 days after ovulation

47. What is the drug of choice in the treatment of the lepra reaction?
Clofazimine
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Clostridium perfringens
GnRH

48. What artery travels with the following veins? - Small cardiac vein
Right coronary artery
give a warning
The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus - inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). The needle is part of the blood - drawing procedure and is the conditioned stimulus (unconditioned and conditioned stimuli are paired) resulting in th
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis

49. What is the period between falling asleep and REM sleep called?
Severe (range 20-34)
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)
naked viruses
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.

50. What condition results in the following CSF results? - Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90% PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120
Ea (activation energy)
Major
Bacterial meningitis
Antigenic determinant (epitope)