Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Carotid canal
DiGeorge syndrome
Profound (I.Q. range < 20)
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus

2. What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?
Flutamide
Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium - which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx.
Hypnozoite
Lipoprotein lipase

3. An 80-year - old woman presents to you with right - sided temporal headache - facial pain and blurred vision on the affected side - and an elevated ESR. Your diagnosis?
Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
Dyslexia
Blastomyces dermatitidis

4. For what hormone do Leydig cells have receptors?
Caisson disease
LH
Bacillus anthracis
Mumps

5. What is the neurotransmitter at the d - receptor?
Enkephalin
Cysticerci
Superoxide dismutase - glutathione peroxidase - catalase
Leptospira

6. What type of membrane is characterized as being permeable to water only?
Inhibin - m
A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication - and the jaw deviates to the right.
Semipermeable membrane; a selectively permeable membrane allows both water and small solutes to pass through its membrane.
Regression

7. What type of hallucination occurs during awakening?
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2 - high H+ - slightly high HCO3-)
Osteosarcoma
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during awakening - whereas hypnagogic hallucinations occur while one is falling asleep.
The energy of activation

8. Name the most common type or cause - Right heart failure
Gonorrhea
Succinyl CoA synthetase
Gonococcus
Left heart failure

9. What paraphilia is defined as x Sexual fantasies or practices with animals?
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis
G-6- PD deficiency
Zoophilia
Axis I

10. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: x Delta waves
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
Posterior interventricular artery
Stage 3 and 4
Cardiac muscle

11. What term is described as the prestretch on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole?
1. Increased tube radius 2. Increased velocity 3. Decreased viscosity 4. Increased number of branches 5. Narrowing of an orifice
Ethyl alcohol
Preload (the load on the muscle in the relaxed state)
Azithromycin

12. What are the CAGE questions?
Megaloblasts
Aged adult
CD28
Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?)

13. What type of cell can never leave the lymph node?
Pyruvate carboxylase
Negative
Osteoclasts
Plasma cell

14. What pyrimidine base is found x In both DNA and RNA?
False - negative rate
Cytosine
Adhesions and hernias
Afterload

15. What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the frontal and the parietal lobes?
Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud)
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
Somatization disorder
Aortic stenosis

16. What four factors affect diffusion rate?
Turner syndrome
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient - greater diffusion rate) 2. Surface area (greater surface area - greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility (greater solubility - greater diffusion rate) 4. Membrane thickness (thicker the membrane - slowe
Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic acid
Pancreas and colon

17. What hormone causes contractions of smooth muscle - regulates interdigestive motility - and prepares the intestine for the next meal?
Fixed ratio (rewards set behaviors)
Week four - and they remain dormant there until puberty.
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and the lunate is the most commonly dislocated.
Motilin

18. How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment?
Clostridium perfringens
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett esophagus)
Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia)
Long - term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.

19. In regard to motor development during infancy - choose the motor response that happens first - Radial or ulnar progression
Minoxidil (orally and topically - respectively!)
The popliteal artery - the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa - risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.
Ulnar to radial progression
Pyruvate carboxylase

20. What are the four posttranslational modifications done by the Golgi apparatus?
1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino acids
Since CO2 is 24 times as soluble as O2 - the rate at which CO2 is brought to the membrane determines its rate of exchange - making it perfusion - limited a gas. For O2 the more time it is in contact with the membrane - the more likely it will diffuse
Salmonella
When the pH is more acidic than the pI - it has a net positive charge - and when the pH is more basic than the pI - it has a net negative charge.

21. Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72- hour fever spike pattern
Plasmodium malariae
presence of PMNs
Anemia of chronic disease
Swan - neck deformities

22. What type of Plasmodium affects x Only mature RBCs?
Hematoxylin
Plasmodium malariae
HPV
Periaortic lymph nodes

23. What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome fuses with a substrate for breakdown?
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive and secondary as active)
The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high venous PO2) difference in the body because of the overperfusion of the kidneys resulting from filtration.
1. Ca2+ : calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon
Alanine and glutamine

24. What is the most common one? - Tumor of the female genitourinary tract
Leiomyoma
Right - sided valves
almitate
Aldolase B deficiencies are treated by eliminating fructose from the diet.

25. What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body?
Somatoform pain disorder
Job syndrome
There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face.
PRPP aminotransferase

26. Regarding the viral growth curve - is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period?
After the eclipse period
Alcohol abuse
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.
Superior

27. Name the RNA subtype based on the following: x Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are precursors of mRNA
EF- Tu or EF- ts and GTP
Gangrenous necrosis
hnRNA
Psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel disease - and Reiter's syndrome

28. What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? - Epididymis - ductus deferens - seminal vesicle - and ejaculatory duct
Yellow fever (flavivirus)
Rapid cycling bipolar disorder
Cilia
Mesonephric duct

29. What motile - gram - negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase positive - urease positive - and associated with gastritis - peptic ulcer disease - and stomach cancer?
Resistance decreases as resistors are added in parallel.
Stable angina
Helicobacter pylori
Haemophilus influenzae type B

30. What reflex increases TPR in an attempt to maintain BP during a hemorrhage?
Clostridium botulinum
gag gene
The carotid sinus reflex
The aorta

31. Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements - Extend the hip and flex the knee
Microsporum
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.
None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks hydrogen bonds - not covalent bonds.
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve

32. What MHC class of antigens do all nucleated cells carry on their surface membranes?
Superior and posterior
The dose of glipizide must be decreased in hepatic dysfunction. Glyburide's dose must be decreased in renal dysfunction.
Histiocytosis X
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.

33. What three factors increase simple diffusion?
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view death as a form of punishment.
1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane

34. Are bactericidal.
For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no - but if the information would do more harm than good - withhold. This is very rare but it does occur.
16S subunit
Tetracyclines
Dorsal prefrontal cortex

35. How many codons code for AAs? How many for termination of translation?
The courts. These are legal - not medical terms.
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA - UGA - UAG) code for the termination of translation.
Competitive antagonist
Gaucher disease

36. What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the following? - Hydroxyurea
Dominant temporal lobe
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
Ribonucleotide reductase
Herpes virus I and II

37. What region of the Ig does not change with class switching?
Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis
Hypervariable region
Selective erectile disorder
GP120

38. Name the most common type or cause - Chronic metal poisoning
Lead
3 to 4 days
Beryllium
Glucose -6- phosphatase

39. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Lateral ventricles
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase - lipase - and proteases for digestion.
CHF
Aedes (the same for yellow fever)
Proencephalon

40. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Cardiac muscle
Porcelain gallbladder
Epidermophyton
Permanent
A patent processus vaginalis

41. What is the term for the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures?
DNA polymerase I
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Pseudogout
Pulse pressure

42. What rapidly progressive and aggressive T- cell lymphoma affects young males with a mediastinal mass (thymic)?
EF-2 and GTP
C3 deficiency
Ticlopidine or clopidogrel
Lymphoblastic lymphoma

43. Which of the colliculi help direct the movement of both eyes in a gaze?
Borrelia recurrentis
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.
Borderline
Mitral insufficiency

44. What presynaptic receptor does NE use to terminate further neurotransmitter release?
alpha2- Receptors
Plasmodium vivax
Kupffer cells
Serous exudates

45. What hormone disorder is characterized by the following abnormalities in sex steroids? - LH? - and FSH?? - Sex steroids - LH - FSH ?
Ferrochelatase
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea - athetoid movements - progressive dementia - and behavioral problems.
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP- SMX)
Primary hypogonadism (postmenopausal women)

46. Name the reaction that appears in babies who are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age - peaks around 8 months - and decreases at 12 months.)
Separation anxiety
Complex I
Areas 18 and 19
Keratinocytes - the most numerous cells in the epidermis - carry melanin and produce keratin.

47. Is there a difference between mathematical and clinical steady states? If so - What are their values (half - lives)?
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. a - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
There is a difference; it takes about 7 to 8 half - lives to reach mathematical steady state and 4 to 5 half - lives to reach clinical steady state.
Physiologic antagonism
extrapyramidal dysfunction

48. What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1-2 and innervates smooth muscle - cardiac muscle - glands - head - thoracic viscera - and blood vessels of the body wall and limbs?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Because RPF is markedly decreased - while GFR is only minimally diminished; this results in an increase in FF (remember FF = GFR/RPF).
Sympathetic chain ganglion
Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit of the limbic system)

49. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: x Cells cease replicating (i.e. - nerve cell)
refuse
G0 phase
Anatomical dead space - which ends at the level of the terminal bronchioles.
Primary hypercortisolism

50. In the alveoli - what cell type is x responsible for producing surfactant?
If positive - hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300 mOsm/L); if negative - hypertonic urine (osmolarity > 300 mOsm/L)>>
Type II pneumocytes
Graves disease
An increase in serum glucose levels