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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. To What does failure to resolve separation anxiety lead?
Live vaccines
CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor component through parasympathetic stimulation.
School phobia
Ependymoma

2. What cerebral lobes are most commonly affected in herpes encephalitis?
Superior Oblique (CN IV) (LR6 SO4)3
Cystadenocarcinoma
Temporal lobes
Kawasaki disease

3. How can you differentiate vitamin K from vitamin C deficiency by bleeding time and PT levels?
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)
Metastatic calcification
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time and increased PT - and vitamin C deficiency has increased bleeding time and normal PT.

4. The dose of which second - generation sulfonylurea agent must be decreased for patients with hepatic dysfunction?

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5. What is the term for the negative resting membrane potential moving toward threshold?
Depolarization (i.e. - Na+ influx)
Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent cells as the name states - do not proliferate.)
Peroxidase - Which is also needed for iodination and coupling inside the follicular cell
REM

6. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Foramen spinosum
Middle meningeal artery
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Caseous necrosis
Increase (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)

7. What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? - Trichomoniasis
Chromosome 17
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
Metronidazole
Schizotypal

8. Is a marker for increased bone formation.
On the superior body of the posterior wall of the uterus
An elevated serum osteocalcin level
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Id (pleasure principle)

9. What pineal hormone's release is inhibited by daylight and increased dramatically during sleep?
Melatonin. It is a light - sensitive hormone that is associated with sleepiness.
a - and Beta- chains are on most T cells.
Plasmodium malariae
Coagulative

10. During What embryonic week does the intraembryonic coelom form?
Infrapatellar bursa
Chromosome 19
Third week
Superior Oblique (CN IV) (LR6 SO4)3

11. What is the term for thymic induction of T cells with high - affinity Ag receptors for self that are programmed to undergo apoptosis?
Negative selection. This helps to prevent autoimmune diseases.
Pertussis toxin
Measles (rubeola)
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.

12. What immunologic test checks for a reaction between Abs and a particular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)
First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.
Brushfield spots
naked viruses
Agglutination test

13. From Where is the energy for gluconeogenesis derived?
Reticulocyte
Bisphosphonates
Beta- Oxidation of fatty acids
Posterior chamber

14. What is the DOC for coccidioidomycosis?
Gilbert's syndrome
Pinpoint pupils - decreased respiratory rate - and coma
Are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States
Fluconazole

15. What four conditions result in secondary hyperaldosteronism?
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis
Poxvirus
Negative
TTP; thrombocytopenia with megathrombocytes is more characteristic of ITP.

16. If the P value is less than or equal to .05 - What do you do to the null hypothesis?
Tetany
Cyanide
Chemotaxis
Reject it

17. What five things are checked in the APGAR test?
Metformin
Thymidylate synthetase
1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR - Appearance - Pulse - Grimace - Activity - Respiration
Azithromycin

18. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Stopping the reinforcement that is leading to an undesired behavior?
Extinction
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
Gonorrhea
Hepatitis D

19. What cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to inhibit Th2 cell function?
INF- gamma
Staphylococcus aureus
Stages 3 and 4 (NREM)
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1 - and they inhibit GH secretion. GHRH stimulates GH secretion.

20. What thyroid enzyme is needed for oxidation of I- to I'?
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.
The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days - whereas onset of symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days.
Peroxidase - Which is also needed for iodination and coupling inside the follicular cell
Coagulative necrosis

21. Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values - Decreased iron - TIBC - and percent saturation; increased ferritin
Anemia of chronic disease
Phase 4; NE increases the slope of the prepotential - allowing threshold to be reached sooner - and increases the rate of firing.
The stapedius muscle
Complex I

22. In regard to motor development during infancy - choose the motor response that happens first - Proximal or distal progression
Proximal to distal progression
Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic bipolar). Patients are ego syntonic.
The carotid body - which monitors arterial blood directly
Hyperacute rejection

23. What is the MCC of the following meningitides? - In adults
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Shaping (successive approximation)

24. At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children x See death as irreversible?
Concrete operations (6-12 years)
GLUT 4
Cauda equina
Phallus

25. From What aortic arch are the following structures derived?
The time it takes ACh to diffuse to the postjunctional membrane
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis
1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages
Stapes artery

26. What are two causes of diffusion impairment in the lungs?
Integument (skin and its derivatives)
Gradient - time system
The mouth
Decrease in surface area and increase in membrane thickness (Palv O2 > PaO2)

27. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Acellular; some are enveloped; replicate within the host cell; no cell walls
Rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes (with HLA- DR3)
Viruses
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
Type I error (alpha error). (Remember it as saying something works when it doesn't.) The chance of a type I error occurring is the P value.

28. What component of the inner ear x Contains endolymph and responds to head turning and movement?
Areas 5 and 7
Semicircular duct
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Adult polycystic kidney disease

29. In what layer of the epidermis is melanin transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes?
Laminin
SITS
CD40 ligand
Stratum spinosum

30. Name the type of exudate - given the following examples - Meningococcal infection
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22 - 39 - and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.
Purulent exudates
Superior gluteal nerve
As the name indicates - there is no change in volume but there is an increase in pressure.

31. What is the most common one? - Neurotransmitter in the brain
First - pass effect
Internal 3' - 5' PDE bonds
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus - or GBS)
GABA - quantitatively

32. What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?
The respiratory system
Metastatic calcification
Ketoconazole
Amyloidosis

33. Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? - Gastric acid secretion
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG - IgA - or IgE on its surface.
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
Ethyl alcohol
H 2

34. Name the pattern of genetic transmission: both M and F are affected; M- to - M transmission may be present; both parents must be carriers; the trait skips generations; two mutant alleles are needed for disease; and affected children may be born of un
HMG CoA synthase
Papovavirus
Autosomal recessive
HPV

35. What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
Pinpoint pupils - decreased respiratory rate - and coma
Secondary spermatocyte
Multiple myeloma
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization - ischemia - aging - and a host of other causes.

36. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Medulla
Phase 4; NE increases the slope of the prepotential - allowing threshold to be reached sooner - and increases the rate of firing.
Rhombencephalon
Carbidopa and benserazide
Area 4

37. What vasculitis affects a 30-year - old Asian female having visual field deficits - dizziness - decreased blood pressure - and weakened pulses in the upper extremities?
Left atrium and tip of the right atrium
Contralateral muscle weakness when above the decussation - whereas an UMN injury below the pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral muscle weakness.
The interposed nucleus
Takayasu arteritis (medium - size to large vessels)

38. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - Cyanide
From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes.
Turner syndrome
Isoniazid treatment
Cytochrome a/a3

39. Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects - symptoms - and results of the lesion - Denies being blind - cortical blindness

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40. What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? - von Gierke's disease
H1 histones
Meningococcus (Gonococcus does not)
Complex I
Glucose -6- phosphatase

41. What modified smooth muscle cells of the kidney monitor BP in the afferent arteriole?
The JG cells
Histidine - because of the imidazole ring found in the R group - is basic.
Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years

42. What is the name of a thin brown ring around the outer edge of the cornea - seen in Wilson's disease?
Valence
Kayser - Fleischer ring
CHF - cirrhosis - and nephrosis
Fibrous pericardium

43. What is the term for how well a drug produces its desired response?
Efficacy
Left anterior descending artery
Superior
Haemophilus ducreyi

44. What is the drug of choice for steroid - induced osteoporosis?
Alendronate
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling phase.
Klinefelter syndrome
Mebendazole

45. Is CO2 a perfusion - or diffusion - limited O2 gas?
Pyrantel pamoate
Since CO2 is 24 times as soluble as O2 - the rate at which CO2 is brought to the membrane determines its rate of exchange - making it perfusion - limited a gas. For O2 the more time it is in contact with the membrane - the more likely it will diffuse
Crohn disease
Succinate dehydrogenase

46. What urinary metabolite is increased in patients with carcinoid syndrome?
Chromosome 4p
5- hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5- HIAA)
Chloral hydrate
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein - mediated transport

47. Name the most common cause - Infectious pancreatitis
Melanin
Infection
O2
Mumps

48. What is the bioactive form of thyroid hormone?
Vitamin D3
BPH. Although an argument can be made for prostatic cancer (you should expect a much higher PSA result) - these are buzzwords for BPH. Prostatic cancer is usually silent until late in the disease - when obstructive symptoms begin to occur.
Leuprolide
T3

49. What are the four functions of saliva?
Hypertension
1. Provide antibacterial action 2. Lubricate 3. Begin CHO digestion 4. Begin fat digestion
Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)
Aspartame

50. A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps - vomiting - diarrhea - and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato salad at a picnic; What is the most likely responsible organism?
Chromium (Cr)
Stage 1
Alcoholism
Staphylococcus aureus