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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Left subclavian artery
CN I
Superior
Afterload
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

2. What complement factor or factors are associated with x Anaphylaxis?
The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days - whereas onset of symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days.
V wave
Popliteus
C3a - C4a - C5a

3. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Providing the person with information regarding his or her internal responses to stimuli with methods of controlling them?
Biofeedback
positive correlation
Preoperational (2-6 years)
The lung will expand; also the opposite is true.

4. What two receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone lead to vomiting when stimulated?
Lumbar splanchnics
2 and 5HT3 receptors
Androgens are 19- carbon steroids.
Mitochondria

5. In what condition do you see dimpling on the kidney's surface?
Pyelonephritis
1. Ca2+ : calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
naked viruses

6. How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment?
Long - term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.
Thoracic splanchnic fibers
t the end of the PCT 25% of Na+ - Cl - - K+ is left
NO!! Remember - only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).

7. Is linolenic acid an omega -3 or omega -6 fatty acid?
Omega -3; linoleic is omega -6
REM
Paneth cells
IL-2. T cells express IL-2 receptors on their surface to induce self - expression.

8. What CNs arise from x The medulla?
Gangrenous necrosis
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
CN IX - X - and XII CN XI arises from the cervical spinal cord.
Rifampin

9. What is the most common one? - Site of ischemia in the GI tract
Flucytosine
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
PRPP aminotransferase
Splenic flexure

10. Name four chemotactic factors for neutrophils.
Filovirus
Pregnancy
N- formyl - methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8
Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.

11. What Ig is associated with mucosal surfaces and external secretions?
Osler nodes
Fitz - Hugh - Curtis syndrome
hCG
IgA

12. Ophthalmic artery is a branch of What artery?
Internal carotid artery
Rhombencephalon
Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is the same as impotence.)
Lymphoblastic lymphoma

13. Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion?
No. Prions are infectious proteins - so antibiotics are useless.
Negative
2 to 4 hours
In the mouth with salivary a - amylase (ptyalin)

14. What is the DOC for hyperprolactinemia?
Pergolide
Follicular phase
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity and decreased blood volume.
Lateral part of the hemispheres

15. Name the most common type or cause - Painless hematuria
Zollinger - Ellison syndrome
The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly in the first half of sleep.
Rheumatic fever
Renal cell carcinoma

16. What is the term for ejaculation before or immediately after vaginal penetration on a regular basis?
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa
Mitochondria
Premature ejaculation
Permanent

17. Lucid interval
Vitamin B6
Epidural hematoma
Proud flesh
Cysticerci

18. What is the term for the potential difference across a cell membrane?
Transmembrane potential (an absolute number)
False - negative rate
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Somatoform disorder

19. What is the biochemical trigger for REM sleep?
Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.)
Enkephalins
Excess lead
Coombs test

20. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Hydroxyurea
Thyroarytenoid muscles
S phase
Hyperventilation - which decreases CO2 - shifting the reaction to the left and decreasing H+
Histamine

21. If you order a V/Q scan for suspected pulmonary emboli - is the filling defect seen on the ventilation or perfusion side?
Keloid
Ventilation of an unperfused lung segment is highly suspicious for pulmonary embolism.
Oxytocin
Hydroxyproline

22. What is the most common complement deficiency?
Corticospinal tract
C2 deficiency
Distal convoluted tubules
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve

23. What enzyme requires molybdenum as a cofactor?
Beta- Galactosidase
Hyperacute rejection
Parasympathetic stimulation - via the vagus nerve - results in bronchoconstriction - whereas sympathetic stimulation results in bronchodilation.
Xanthine oxidase

24. What chronic systemic inflammatory disease commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a progressive - symmetric arthritis affecting the hands - wrists - knees - and ankles that improves with increased activity?
Picornaviridae
Latissimus dorsi
White muscle; short term too
Rheumatoid arthritis

25. What are the five pieces of information considered necessary for fully informed consent?

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26. What is the most common one? - Primary tumor metastasis to the bone
1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. Reovirus (Remember PCR)
Breast
alpha - Motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers (a motor unit) - whereas gamma - motor neurons innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.
Motor nucleus of CN V

27. What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?
Chromosome 13
Hypnozoite
Bactericidal
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa

28. Name the most common type or cause - Infection in a patient on a ventilator
p -53
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Increase the concentration of enzymes
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung - esophagus - ureter - and kidney - just to Name a few.

29. What protein - losing enteropathy has grossly enlarged rugal fold in the body and fundus of the stomach in middle - aged males - resulting in decreased acid production and an increased risk of gastric cancer?
Cholera toxin
Sympathetic nervous system
M
CN XII

30. What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7 - causing a defect in Cl - transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?
Passive - aggressive
Rate of absorption
Chromosome 7
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)

31. What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in x Gaucher's disease?
An increase in the afterload decreases velocity; they are inversely related. (V equals 1 divided by afterload.)
Helicase (requires ATP for energy)
Fungi
Glucocerebrosidase

32. Name these mature defense mechanisms: x Converting an unacceptable impulse to a socially acceptable form (Hint: it is the most mature of all defense mechanisms)
Emphysematous bleb
High - frequency sound waves
Listeria
Sublimation

33. What does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it from other fungi?
Libman - Sacks endocarditis
Decreases
It forms a germinal tube at 37
NH4+(ammonium)

34. What is the drug of choice for hypertensive patients with a decreased renal function?
Lewy bodies
Calcium oxylate
Hematoxylin
a - Methyldopa (Guanabenz or clonidine is also used.)

35. What is the only antifungal agent to penetrate CSF?
21-Beta- Hydroxylase deficiency leads to hypotension - hyponatremia - and virilization.
RU 486
Fluconazole
HPV infection

36. What is the most common one? - Acquired GI emergency of infancy
Necrotizing enterocolitis
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases - there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell - mediated)

37. What CN transmits sensory information from the cornea?
Diazoxide
CN V1 - the occulomotor division of the trigeminal nerve - is the sensory component of the corneal reflex.
Middle
Biofeedback

38. Name the type of necrosis - Soft - friable - cottage - cheese appearing; characteristically seen in TB
Chi - square.
Caseous necrosis
HBc Ab
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)

39. What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by x Increased total body sodium - ECF volume - plasma volume - BP - and pH; decreased potassium - renin and AT II activity; no edema?
Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)
Arcuate line
Axon hillock
Alzheimer disease

40. What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Day care - associated diarrhea in infants
Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.
Northern blot
Staphylococcus aureus
Rotavirus

41. What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas?
Physostigmine
Type 2
Glycerol kinase
Alanine and glutamine

42. Name the DNA virus x Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
G-6- PD deficiency
Herpes virus
Fragile X syndrome
Schizoid

43. What follicular cell possesses FSH receptors and converts androgens into estradiol?
Lateral part of the hemispheres
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Granulosa cells
Melanoma - cancer of the stomach and bladder

44. Name the most common cause - Croup
Parainfluenza virus
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.
Pedophilia
Osteoarthritis

45. Name the most common type or cause - Urinary tract obstruction
Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
Barr bodies in females - T- cell receptor loci - and immunoglobulin light and heavy chain loci
BPH
Loss of hypotonic fluid (alcohol - diabetes insipidus - dehydration)

46. What equals the total tension on a muscle minus the preload?
Afterload
H 1
Four
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases

47. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - Barbiturates
Pertussis toxin
HBeAb
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
Complex I

48. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?
The vermis
Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase
Metastatic calcification
AML- M3

49. What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?
HBeAb
Free hormone levels remain constant - and the bound hormone level changes with a decrease in binding hormones.
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember - for major articulations - wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

50. What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?
Neisseria gonorrhea (history of STD in patient with monoarticular infectious arthritis: think gonococcus)
Diphenhydramine
Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus
VSD - RVH - overriding aorta - and pulmonary stenosis