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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. How many ATPs per glucose are generated in glycolysis?
Hemophilia B
Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
Housemaid's knee
38 ATPs if aerobic - 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2 ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)
2. What is the most common one? - Solid tumor in the body
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Sickle cell anemia - Caisson disease - chronic steroid use - and Gaucher disease
Nephroblastoma
NSAIDs
3. What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? - The hypothalamus
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett esophagus)
Histamine
Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response)
Rhabdomyoma
4. From the fourth month of fetal life to term - what secretes the progesterone and estrogen to maintains the uterus?
7 to 14 days
Priapism
Apneustic center (deep breathing place)
The placenta
5. What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?
Zinc (Zn) deficiency
Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic pathway
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Remember - Becker's is slower in progress - less severe - later in onset - and lacks cardiac involvement.)
6. What complement factor or factors are associated with x Anaphylaxis?
Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.
PGE2 and PGF2a
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly - and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.
C3a - C4a - C5a
7. What pathology is associated with elevated levels of Ca2+ - cardiac arrhythmias - bone resorption - kidney stones - and metastatic calcifications?
Bisphosphonates
Primary hyperparathyroidism
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.
8. At the D2A receptor have the capacity to induce pseudoparkinsonism.
This is the triad of renal cell carcinoma
Dopamine antagonists
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.
Pantothenic acid
9. What disorder is due to a 5-- reductase deficiency - resulting in testicular tissue and stunted male external genitalia?
Vitelline fistula
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Male pseudo - intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these individuals are 46XY.
Kupffer cells
10. What pathway uses HMG CoA synthetase in the cytoplasm?
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.
Cholesterol biosynthesis
Lead - time bias (remember - patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)
Purulent exudates
11. What phase of the menstrual cycle is dominated by estrogen? Progesterone?
hCG
Follicular phase is estrogen - dependent with increased FSH levels - while the luteal phase is progesterone - dependent.
Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty withdrawal!)
Intraductal papilloma
12. Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information: x Synthesizes the lagging strand during replication
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Anterior wall of the first part of the duodenum
DNA polymerase - a
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
13. Is the hydroxyl (- OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3' or the 5' end?
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14. What part of the ANS is affected in the biofeedback model of operant conditioning?
Fat necrosis
HHV 6
Humor
The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.
15. What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior two - thirds of the tongue?
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)
Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger - to - nose test.
Lysosomal a -1 - 4- glucosidase
Chorda tympani of CN VII
16. What are the strongest determinants of gender identity?
Sensory
Parental assignment and culture (not biology)
Rho-immunoglobin
Nucleus ambiguus - resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.
17. What are the three glycogenic organs?
Tryptophan
Liver - kidney - and GI epithelium
Clostridium botulinum
Volkmann's contracture
18. What form of bias occurs when the experimenter's expectation inadvertently is expressed to the subjects - producing the desired effects? How can it be eliminated?
Transtentorial (uncal)
Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)
Pygmalion effect (experimenter expectancy). This can be eliminated with double - blind studies.
Naloxone or naltrexone
19. Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: x Found in most tissues - including brain and RBCs
GLUT 3 and 4
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40
Intellectualization
20. Which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid cyst disease?
Echinococcus multilocularis
Nucleus pulposus
The odontoid process of C2
Flutamide
21. Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: x Synthesizes tRNA - snRNA - and the 5S rRNA
Macula densa
An increase in the afterload decreases velocity; they are inversely related. (V equals 1 divided by afterload.)
Spearman correlation
RNA polymerase III
22. What disorder is associated with loss of polarity - anaplasia - pleomorphism - discohesiveness - increase in the nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio - hyperchromasia - and increase in the rate of mitosis?
Malignancy
2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
Prader - Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome - respectively
Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and polydipsia.
23. What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? - Decreased testosterone production is accompanied by an increase in LH production.
Aged adult
Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular capillaries (promotes filtration)
Embolic
Multiple myeloma
24. What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response - the reinforcement is given x On a set time schedule?
Normal values
Hypoxia
Fixed interval
Ergosterol
25. What reflex increases TPR in an attempt to maintain BP during a hemorrhage?
The carotid sinus reflex
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
Benign lentigo
Prinzmetal variant angina
26. What organ functions to keep blood glucose levels normal through both well - fed and fasting states and produces ketones in response to increased fatty acid oxidation?
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight
Liver
The portal tract of the liver lobule
27. How long after ovulation does fertilization occur?
gag gene
Eosinophils
8 to 25 hours
Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients with alcaptonuria.
28. Dopamine antagonists are...
Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)
antiemetic
Short - chain fatty acids
Metanephros
29. As what AAs do muscles send nitrogen to the liver?
Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk and extremity information travels in the cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and fasciculus cuneatus both apply to upper extremities.)
Encapsulated bacteria
Alanine and glutamine
Under normal resting conditions no - but they are strongly stimulated when PO2 arterial levels decrease to 50 to 60 mm Hg - resulting in increased ventilatory drive.
30. What form of antimicrobial therapy is best for an immunocompromised patient?
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)
LH
C4 (the upper border of the thyroid cartilage)
Bactericidal
31. After fertilization - what cells of the corpus luteum x Secrete estrogen?
Vibrio vulnificus
Plasmodium falciparum
Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca cells form from the theca interna.
Frameshift
32. What hematologic agent is used in the treatment of intermittent claudication because it decreases blood viscosity and increases RBC membrane flexibility and stability?
Pentoxifylline
Cholesterol biosynthesis
Complex I
Primary polydipsia; patients with diabetes insipidus will continue to produce large volumes of dilute urine.
33. Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the gastrointestinal tract?
Stage 2 - which accounts for approximately 45% of total sleep time - with REM occupying 20%.
IgA
Enterococcus (Streptococcus faecalis)
Schistosoma haematobium
34. What tetracycline is associated with hepatotoxicity?
nef and tat genes
Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)
Pernicious anemia
Chlortetracycline
35. What cell type of the bone has PTH receptors?
GLUT 2
Ampulla
Osteoblasts - which in turn stimulate osteoclasts to break down bone - releasing Ca2+ into the interstitium. (Remember - blasts make - clasts take.)
Penicillamine - EDTA (calcium disodium edetate) - or dimercaprol
36. What causes a skeletal muscle contraction to terminate?
T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis).
When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR - skeletal muscle contraction stops.
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
The increased H+ moves intracellularly and is buffered by K+ leaving the cells - resulting in intracellular depletion and serum excess. (Intracellular hypokalemia is the reason you supplement potassium in diabetic ketoacidosis - even though the serum
37. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Auditory toxicity
Vancomycin
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
Amiloride
38. After a longstanding left - to - right shunt reverses - causing cyanosis - and becomes a right - to - left shunt - What is it termed?
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39. What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?
Glycine/arginine
Ependymal cells
Iron (Fe)
The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.
40. What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen production.
Internal abdominal oblique
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
41. What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? - Interstitial fluid
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Rotavirus
Dendrites receive information - whereas axons send information.
9.3 L - 15% of body weight
42. Is the Lac operon activated or inactivated in the presence of both glucose and lactose?
Methyldopa
Dilation of the internal mammary arteries results in erosions on the inner surface of the ribs and is seen as notching.
Myasthenia gravis
Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels and therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP and CAP.
43. What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
Mitral valve stenosis
Gaucher disease
Voltage - gated potassium channels
competency
44. What type of potential is characterized as graded - decremental - and exhibiting summation?
Because the chronic inhibition of dopamine (PIF) on the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland is removed - thereby increasing the secretion of prolactin.
Methicillin
Subthreshold potential
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a problem with alcohol.
45. What are the eight liver - specific enzymes?
Osteosarcoma
Thrombocytopenia - eczema - and immunodeficiency is the triad of this X- linked recessive disorder.
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase 8. Glucose -6- phosphatase
Left abducens nerve
46. Russell bodies
Multiple myeloma
Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)
Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted
Hepatitis A
47. What hormones - secreted in proportion to the size of the placenta - are an index of fetal well - being?
Ampulla
hCS and serum estriol - which are produced by the fetal liver and placenta - respectively - are used as estimates of fetal well - being.
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
Nodular sclerosis
48. What part of the heart forms x Apex?
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient - greater diffusion rate) 2. Surface area (greater surface area - greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility (greater solubility - greater diffusion rate) 4. Membrane thickness (thicker the membrane - slowe
Tip of the left ventricle
The right and left pulmonary arteries - the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
49. What is the name of the benzodiazepine antagonist used in the treatment of an overdose?
Flumazenil
The dose of glipizide must be decreased in hepatic dysfunction. Glyburide's dose must be decreased in renal dysfunction.
Rectum
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.
50. Name the type of necrosis - Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis
Urogenital folds
Gangrenous necrosis
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
LH
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