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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What nucleus supplies the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?
Edinger - Westphal nucleus (via CN III)
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
Superior gluteal nerve
Cytochrome c
2. What cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp of the spleen?
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein - mediated transport
Saccule and utricle
Haemophilus ducreyi
3. What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? - AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion - resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia - ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss - contralateral loss of pain and temperature to the
Dystrophic calcification
Lateral pontine syndrome
Libman - Sacks endocarditis
4.7 L - 5% of body weight
4. Which nicotinic receptor antagonist is inactivated to laudanosine?
Translation
Submandibular gland produces mainly serous and the sublingual gland produces mainly mucous secretions.
enveloped
Atracurium
5. In what disease is there a genetic absence of UDP- glucuronate transferase - resulting in an increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?
Crigler - Najjar syndrome
Secondary hypercortisolism (pituitary)
Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.
G- C rich sequences - because they have 3 hydrogen bonds - where A- T has 2 hydrogen bonds - resulting in higher melting points.
6. Why is the base of the lung hyperventilated when a person is standing upright?
Dopamine levels rise with waking; dopamine is associated with wakefulness.
Rubor (red) - dolor (pain) - calor (heat) - tumor (swelling); also sometimes there is loss of function
Rheumatic fever
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant - so there is a large change in their size and volume and therefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.
7. What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison population?
Gubernaculum
Argyll Robertson pupils
Antisocial personality
Cell - mediated immunity
8. What vascular injury may result from a supracondylar fracture of the femur?
Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic effect.)
Epinephrine
Nicotinic acid - because its side effects include hyperuricemia and exacerbation of ulcers.
The popliteal artery - the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa - risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.
9. What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7 - causing a defect in Cl - transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?
V wave
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation
Aminoglycosides
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)
10. What percent of unwed mothers are teenagers?
Opioids cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in increased intracerebral pressure.
50% - with 50% of them having the child
The thyroid gland
CD40
11. What is the most common one? - Primary malignant tumor of the lungs
LH
Osteoarthritis
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
Phase 1
12. What toxicities are caused by the following agents? - Halothane
3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
Median nerve
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Hepatitis - with or without necrosis
13. What is the most common one? - Thyroid adenoma
A decrease in cutaneous blood flow results from constriction of the arterioles - and decreased cutaneous blood volume results from constriction of the venous plexus.
Follicular adenoma
Rho-immunoglobin
Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response)
14. Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk for infection From what type of organisms?
Chemotaxis
Myeloperoxidase
Encapsulated bacteria
Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
15. What is the most common one? - Type of melanoma
Superficial spreading melanoma
The carotid sinus is a pressure - sensitive (low) receptor - while the carotid body is an oxygen - sensitive (low) receptor. (Remember 'Sinus Pressure').
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance No - they can be skipped - repeated - and completed out of sequence.
16. Name the six vitamin K- dependent coagulation factors.
Decreases
Negative
Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times that of the general population.
Factors II - VII - IX - and X and proteins C and S.
17. What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
Motor aspect
Superior vena cava
18. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Phrenic nerve
alpha2- Receptors
Enterobius vermicularis; the treatment is albendazole.
Birds
Superior and middle
19. What is the most common one? - Brain tumor
Choriocarcinoma
Transient ischemic attack
Metastatic
Epstein - cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve
20. What Hgb - derived endogenous pigment is found in areas of hemorrhage or bruises?
Hemosiderin
Hepatitis D
Chromosome 19
Ataxia - telangiectasia
21. Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: x Stylomastoid foramen
Complex 4
Osteoarthritis
CN VII
Iatrogenesis
22. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: x Period of DNA replication (preparing for mitosis)
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
Hemangioma (benign)
S phase
Secondary hypothyroidism/pituitary (Low TSH results in low T4 and increased TRH because of lack of a negative feedback loop.)
23. What three bases are pyrimidines?
Dilator pupillae muscle
Acetoacetate - acetone - and Beta- hydroxybutyrate
1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine
IgA
24. What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?
Cilia
Selection bias
Thymus - independent Ags
Dapsone
25. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Controls balance and eye movements?
Adult T- cell leukemia
Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all of medicine!)
Galactitol
Mesencephalic nucleus
26. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Dacarbazine
Swan - neck deformities
Parkinson's disease (I can't underestimate all of the buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
G0 phase
27. Which antihistamine is one of the DOCs for treatment of vertigo?
Medial medullary syndrome
Meclizine
Coxiella burnetii
Alzheimer disease
28. What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?
Paramesonephric ducts
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.
Levator palpebrae superioris
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
29. What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? - Lysosomal glucosidase (acid maltase)
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30. With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure - what happens to x Heart rate?
Decreases
Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic effect.)
GABA - quantitatively
Skeletal muscle
31. Which gram - negative diplococcus ferments maltose?
11- Beta - Hydroxylase deficiency results in excess production of 11- deoxycorticosterone - a weak mineralocorticoid. It increases BP - Na+ - and ECF volume along with production of adrenal androgens.
Dominant parietal lobe (Gerstmann's syndrome)
Meningococcus (Gonococcus does not)
Scrotal cancer - due to the high exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
32. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: IVC
Coarctation of the aorta
Chromosome 13
Mitosis
Middle
33. Do not have MHC class I Ags on their surface.
EBV
RBCs
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
GABA - quantitatively
34. Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in...
reflexes
Plasmodium falciparum
EBV infections resulting in infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the Monospot test. (Remember - it may be negative in the first week of the illness - so retest if you have a high index of suspicion.)
cDNA - when it is made from mRNA
35. What is the term to describe basophils that have left the bloodstream and entered a tissue?
EF-1 and GTP
Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules)
IgA nephropathy
Mast cells
36. What cancer is particularly likely to affect English chimney sweeps?
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve
DNA polymerase - a
Scrotal cancer - due to the high exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
Leukemias and lymphomas
37. What syndrome is characterized by embryologic failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches resulting in hypocalcemia - tetany - and T- cell deficiency?
Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)
DiGeorge syndrome
Keloid
Menses
38. What negative sense RNA virus is associated with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri bodies?
CD40
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a substance is equal - the substance is freely filtered by the kidney.
Ventral lateral nucleus
Rabies
39. Induces the cytochrome P-450 enzymes.
Nephroblastoma
Ethyl alcohol
Gastric ulcer
Senile plaques - neurofibrillary tangles - and granulovascular changes in neurons
40. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output - Input from the amygdala - prefrontal cortex - and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated gyrus
Galactitol
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a Beta- blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better outcomes than those who do not.
Medial nuclear group (limbic system)
Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
41. When a drug is administered orally and enters into portal circulation - it undergoes hepatic metabolism. What is the name of this effect?
Middle
Anemia of chronic disease
Nucleus pulposus
First - pass effect
42. Is filtration greater than or less than excretion for net reabsorption to occur?
Lung cancer
Filtration is greater than excretion for net reabsorption to occur.
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Primary hyperparathyroidism
43. On the venous pressure curve - What do the following waves represent? - A wave?
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during awakening - whereas hypnagogic hallucinations occur while one is falling asleep.
Bladder cancer
Atrial contraction Atrial - Contraction - Venous
IgG
44. What is the end product of purine catabolism?
Left atrium
Uric acid
H 1
Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)
45. What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a pharyngeal fistula is formed?
The second pharyngeal pouch and groove
Dihydrotestosterone
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Eosin
46. Prolactin levels can serve as a rough indicator of...
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by increasing the number of Beta - receptors and their sensitivity to catecholamines.
overall dopamine activity
Week four - and they remain dormant there until puberty.
Pimozide
47. Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics - apo E - apo B-100 - apo C- II
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24- hour period is during stage 4 sleep.
VLDL
Dynorphin
12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle (Krebs cycle)
48. What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon?
Saltatory conduction
Mycobacterium marinum
transcription
Direct fluorescent Ab test
49. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Vinblastine
Superior
Mitosis
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.
2 and 5HT3 receptors
50. Where do adult tapeworms develop - in the intermediate or definitive host?
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
Spleen
Missense
Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host - whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host.
Sorry!:) No result found.
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