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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: x Systolic murmur - increased preload and afterload - decreased aortic pulse pressure and coronary blood flow
CN V
Aortic stenosis
Kayser - Fleischer ring
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors

2. How much dietary iodine is necessary to maintain normal thyroid hormone secretion?
Shortens
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Most people ingest 500 mcg/day.
Graves disease (Increased T4 decreases TRH and TSH through negative feedback.)
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

3. Acts as the vertebral body of C1 allowing lateral rotation of the head. The first cervical vertebra has no vertebral body.
Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO 4- concentrations - whereas resorption (breakdown) is increased when there are low levels of Ca2+ or PO4-.
The odontoid process of C2
Afferent arteriole
Mannitol

4. What two PGs are used to induce labor?
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
PGE2 and PGF2a
The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.
EBV

5. Are hydrolysis - oxidation - and reduction phase I or II biotransformations?
Mycobacterium marinum
Tidal volume (VT)
Serocystadenocarcinoma
Phase I

6. Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? - Infection
HDL
Negative
Posterior compartment of the thigh - tibial nerve
The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic acid - Which is also the principal neurotransmitter of the visual pathways.

7. Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: x Fast channels open - then quickly close - and sodium influx results in depolarization
Zileuton
Phase 0
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.
Ag processing; it is needed for class I molecules. Class II molecules have an invariant chain that protects them from breakdown.

8. What is the term for days 15 to 28 in the female cycle?
Primary hypoparathyroidism
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels
Luteal phase
In the RBC; remember - you need carbonic anhydrase for the conversion - and plasma does not have this enzyme.

9. What is the most common one? - Germ cell tumor in men
I- cell disease is a result of a genetic defect affecting the phosphorylation of mannose residues.
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
Seminoma
Coxsackie B

10. Name the most common cause - Croup
Hemangioblastoma
Temporal lobes
Orotic acid (purine metabolism)
Parainfluenza virus

11. Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: x Continuous involuntary contraction - uninuclear striated branched fibers - actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern - dyadic T tubules - intercalated discs - troponin and desmin as a Z disc
Pituitary hypogonadism
Cardiac muscle
Primary hyperparathyroidism
EF- G of the 50S subunit

12. What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is x 120 to 129
Superior
Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. Microvilli (600 times)
Hematoxylin

13. To What does failure to resolve separation anxiety lead?
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
Positive sense RNA can be used as mRNA. Negative sense RNA cannot be used as mRNA; it requires special RNA- dependent RNA polymerases.
School phobia
Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the corpus callosum.

14. What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE- mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
Asbestosis
Adenosine deaminase
Voltage - gated calcium channel

15. What are the two precursors of heme?
It is rare with normal grief; however - it is relatively common in depression
Autograft
Limbic system
Glycine and succinyl - CoA

16. What AA is a precursor of the following substances? - N2O
Arginine
Hemiazygous vein
Yes. In a negatively skewed distribution the mean is greater than the median is greater than the mode.
All (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)

17. Name the most common type or cause - Meningitis in adults
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.
Schistosoma have separate males and females.
Insulin
Pneumococcus

18. What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? - Cortisol increased - ACTH decreased
Primary hypercortisolism
Your duty is to tell the patient - not the family. The patient decides who gets to know and who doesn't - not you.
Serous exudates
DNA polymerases

19. What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia - ataxia - paresthesias - monocular blindness and weakness - or spastic paresis?
1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency
Fitz - Hugh - Curtis syndrome
Dendrites receive information - whereas axons send information.
Multiple sclerosis

20. Name the associated chromosome - VON Hippel - Lindau disease
Astrocytes
Short - chain fatty acids
1:1. Remember - the flow through the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit are equal.
Chromosome 3p

21. What enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamides?
Superior and posterior
Anemia of chronic disease
Doxycycline
Dihydropteroate synthetase

22. Name the antidote - Arsenic
Dimercaprol - D- penicillamine
Posterior
Opsonization
Hepatitis E (enteric)

23. What Brodmann area is associated with x Primary motor cortex?
Posterior
Area 4
Loose association
Vital capacity (VC)

24. What happens to cortisol levels in sleep - deprived individuals?
11- Beta - Hydroxylase deficiency results in excess production of 11- deoxycorticosterone - a weak mineralocorticoid. It increases BP - Na+ - and ECF volume along with production of adrenal androgens.
Cardiac output
Thermogenic
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep - deprived individuals.

25. What is the bone marrow maturation time for a phagocytic cell?
The one start codon - AUG - in eukaryotes codes for methionine and in prokaryotes formylmethionine.
2 to 4 hours
Neutrophils - eosinophils - and basophils
14 days

26. Which agent used in the treatment of asthma is a selective inhibitor of the lipoxygenase pathway?
V wave
LC4 - LD4 - and LE 4
Zileuton
Osteosarcoma

27. Name the associated chromosome - Patau syndrome
Methionine (start) and tryptophan are the only two AAs with only one codon.
Chromosome 13
1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical substances 2. Chemical specificity needed for transportation 3. Zero - order saturation kinetics (Transportation is maximal when all transporters are saturated.) 4. Rate of transportation faster than i
Single - strand DNA binding protein

28. What is the term for excessive amounts of granulation tissue that can block re - epithelialization and wound healing?
C3 deficiency
Proud flesh
Substituted judgment. It is made by the person who best knows the patient - not the closest relative.
Aminoglycosides

29. In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?

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30. What enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria?
Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase
Chloramphenicol
CN X
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate

31. In what organ system would you attempt to localize a sign for shaken baby syndrome'? What do you look for?

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32. Name the most common one - Chromosomal disorder
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.
Schistocytes
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

33. Lucid interval
Transient protein C deficiency - because of its relatively short half - life - may result if warfarin is instituted alone.
Epidural hematoma
Hepatitis A
Enkephalin

34. What disease is seen in the 20- to 40-year - old age group - is more prevalent in women than men - involves diarrhea with or without bloody stools - starts in the rectum and ascends without skipping areas - includes pseudopolyps - and has a thickness
Primary hypogonadism (postmenopausal women)
Proportionate mortality rate
Ulcerative colitis
Left abducens nerve

35. In What type of circuit is the total resistance always less than that of the individual resistors?
Osteosarcoma
Left atrium
Operon
Parallel circuit

36. Are two different receptors with two different agonists characteristic of pharmacologic or physiologic antagonism?
Varicocele
HBeAg
Pott disease
Physiologic antagonism

37. Are hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts more commonly associated with embolic or thrombotic occlusions?
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome
Viruses
Embolic
TCR

38. What is the effect of LH on the production of adrenal androgens?
Urogenital folds
Sleep latency
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen production.
Proencephalon

39. Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? - Cytoplasm
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.
Ego dystonic
Eosin
Prolactinoma

40. What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? - A band
Cerebellum
Glucagon
No change in length
Acute rejection

41. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Smooth muscle
Ampicillin and amoxicillin
Stable
In the JG cells of the kidney
Occipital lobe (Anton's syndrome if it is due to bilateral posterior cerebral artery occlusions)

42. What are the two essential fatty acids?
Procainamide
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
Type II pneumocytes
Linoleic acid and linolenic acid

43. What disorder is described as having x Conscious symptoms with conscious motivation?
Tetracycline
Malingering
Medial collateral ligament
Short - chain fatty acids

44. What is the most common one? - Form of vasculitis
MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This allows the body to eliminate tumor cells - virus - infected cells
Increased CO2 - H+ - temperature - and 2 - 3- BPG levels all shift the curve to the right - thereby making the O2 easier to remove (decreased affinity) from the Hgb molecule.
Temporal arteritis
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)

45. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - DNA
Constriction of afferent arteriole
Aspartame
Southern blot
Pertussis toxin

46. When does most REM sleep occur - in the first or second half of sleep?
REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of sleep. The amount of REM sleep increases as the night goes on.
No - it is used in chronic treatment of gout to decrease the uric acid pools in the body.
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases - there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.
Gluteus maximus

47. What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
Mast cells
PTH
Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Gaucher disease

48. What type of potential is characterized as graded - decremental - and exhibiting summation?
Kayser - Fleischer ring
The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.
Subthreshold potential
Fat necrosis

49. What drug that penetrates the blood - brain barrier is found in asthma preparations and used as a nasal decongestant?
Arginine
Ephedrine
Superior vena cava
Fusobacterium

50. Name the T- cell CD marker: x Essential for Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis
Left abducens nerve
Oxytocin
CD40 ligand