Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the most common one? - Cardiac anomaly in Turner syndrome
Coarctation of the aorta
Cardiac muscle
RSV
Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs most often in the first third of sleep.

2. What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with 90% of syringomyelia?
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. GTP
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
From the wall of the yolk sac

3. What drug of choice for ascaris causes neuromuscular blockade of the worm?
Pituitary adenoma
Shaping (successive approximation)
Pyrantel pamoate
Ankylosing spondylitis

4. What cells of the kidney are extravascular chemoreceptors for decreased Na+ - Cl - - and NaCl?
GnRH pulsatile infusion
Graves disease
Hypertrophy
Macula densa

5. What disease is diagnosed by findings of ANAs and anti - SCL-70 antibodies?
Familial hypercholesterolemia
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.
Scleroderma
Melanoma - cancer of the stomach and bladder

6. What ocular muscle x Elevates and adducts the eyeball?
Superior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
Folic acid
Carbamazepine
Parvovirus B-19

7. In what rare AR disorder do you see neutropenia - defective degranulation - and delayed microbial killing due to a problem in chemotaxis and migration?
Seminoma
Ch
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
EF-1 and GTP

8. Name the ocular lesion; be specific - Optic chiasm lesion
Major
Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.
Quaternary structure

9. Inhibits glucose uptake in skeletal muscle.
Cortisol
Beta2- integrins
Transcortical aphasia
T3

10. Signet ring cells
VPL nucleus sends its fibers to synapse in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.
Strongyloides stercoralis is treated with thiabendazole.
Gastric carcinoma
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

11. What cell converts androgens to estrogens?
Granulosa cell
Gastrin - releasing peptide (GRP) stimulates G cells to release Gastrin. (All G's)
Amiloride
Contralateral muscle weakness when above the decussation - whereas an UMN injury below the pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral muscle weakness.

12. Early menses - late menopause - history of breast cancer - obesity - and multiparity.
Risk factors for breast cancer
Moderate (35-49)
Uric acid
Neisseria meningitidis

13. What 11- amino acid peptide is the neurotransmitter of sensory neurons that conveys pain from the periphery to the spinal cord?
Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.)
Boutonni
Thymine (B1)
Glossopharyngeal nerve

14. What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?
Clostridium tetani
With an increased rate of breathing the total ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation. Rapid - shallow breathing increases dead space ventilation with little change in alveolar ventilation. (This is hypoventilation).
Euchromatin - the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid

15. Name the type of mutation: New codon specifies a different AA
CN III - VII - IX - and X
Missense
Middle meningeal artery
Methanol (wood alcohol)

16. In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary infarcts seen?
Increases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Cortisol - a 21- carbon steroid - has a - OH group at position 17.
Confidence interval. It is a way of admitting estimation for the population.
Lower lobe

17. Name the type of regeneration (i.e. - labile - stable - or permanent) based on the following examples - Osteoblasts
Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent cells as the name states - do not proliferate.)
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase - lipase - and proteases for digestion.
Flumazenil
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

18. Name the Hgb - O2 binding site based on the following information: x Remains attached under most physiologic conditions
Site 1
Enterokinase
Clindamycin
Areas 41 and 42

19. What enzyme is deficient in patients with CGD?
Posterior compartment of the leg - tibial nerve
Deferoxamine - penicillamine
Cytochrome a/a3
NADPH oxidase is deficient - resulting in an inability to produce toxic metabolites.

20. What part of the heart forms x Posterior wall?
High volume - watery solution; sympathetic stimulation results in thick - mucoid saliva.
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
Gastrin - releasing peptide (GRP) stimulates G cells to release Gastrin. (All G's)
Left atrium

21. What is the term for days 1 to 7 of the female cycle?
2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
Menses
They are in ganglia in the PNS.
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis

22. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Reinforcing successive attempts that lead to the desired goal (gradual improvement)?
Variable ratio If it is based on time - it is an interval - and if it is based on the number of responses - it is a ratio.
Shaping (successive approximation)
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett esophagus)
Rigors - leukopenia - decrease in blood pressure - and increase in temperature

23. What dementia is associated with dilated ventricles with diffuse cortical atrophy - decreased parietal lobe blood flow - and a decrease in choline acetyl transferase activity?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

24. What is the MCC of the following meningitides? - In military recruits
after abortion
Proximal to distal progression
Neisseria meningitides
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)

25. What three muscles constitute the pes anserinus?
The fastigial nucleus
Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and polydipsia.
Respiratory depression
1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous

26. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Alkylating agents
The surface of the medulla
G0 phase
Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus)
Pulmonary embolism due to a DVT; this is not absolute but a classic description.

27. What paraphilia is defined as x Deriving sexual pleasure from other peoples' pain?
Sadism
Sexual aversion disorder
PRPP aminotransferase
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.

28. Is the bound form or free form of a lipid - soluble hormone responsible for the negative feedback activity?
Free form determines hormone activity and is responsible for the negative feedback loop.
Prevalence increases.
Diverticulosis
Validity (remember - reliability is necessary but not the only thing needed for validity)

29. What acid form of H+ in the urine cannot be titrated?
Foramen of Monro
NH4+(ammonium)
Emphysematous bleb
Heterochromatin - the light stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.

30. What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? - Long thoracic nerve
1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of the procedure 3. Risks of the procedure 4. The nature of the procedure (what you are doing) 5. The alternative to this procedure and its availability (Don't forget the last one; this is where physicians get
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Serratus anterior
Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.

31. What is the term for the rate measured for a subgroup of a population?
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP- SMX)
Specific rate (e.g. - men aged 55-60)
False - positive rate
Superior

32. When the ECF osmolarity increases - what happens to cell size?
Propionibacterium acnes
Increase in ECF osmolarity means a in decrease in ICF osmolarity - so cells shrink.
Nitrofurantoin
IgM

33. What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Cytochrome b/c1
Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated with a major stressor being introduced into the home.
Stanford - Binet Scale - developed in 1905 - is useful in the very bright - the impaired - and children less than 6 years old.
Median nerve

34. What is the most common precipitin test used in clinical medicine?
Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig levels.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 48-96 hour latency)
Medial medullary syndrome
Dihydrofolate reductase

35. What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?
Placental alkaline phosphatase
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
Helicase (requires ATP for energy)
Round and ovarian ligaments

36. How many mature sperm are produced by one type B spermatogonium?
Mentally disabled
Amyloidosis
Y - W-135 - and C and A capsular polysaccharides
Four

37. What are the three mechanisms of action for atrial natriuretic peptide's diuretic and natriuretic affects?
Skin - liver - and kidneys
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in gingival hyperplasia)
1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole 2. Constriction of the efferent arteriole 3. Inhibition of reabsorption of sodium and water in the collecting ducts
Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic acid

38. What is the most common one? - Valve abnormality associated with rheumatic fever
Proteus
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2 - high H+ - slightly high HCO3-)
Fibroadenoma
Mitral valve stenosis

39. What complement factor deficiency leads to x Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?
Lysosomal a -1 - 4- glucosidase
Free form determines hormone activity and is responsible for the negative feedback loop.
C3 deficiency
HDL

40. What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into the urea cycle?
Breast
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein
Efficacy
Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4

41. What substance do the JG cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
Ethyl alcohol
Renin
CN VII - IX - and X; taste and general sensation for the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus.

42. Name the associated chromosome - Albinism
Amiloride
Chromosome 5q21
T4 - as long as T4 levels remain constant - TSH will be minimally effected by T3.
Chromosome 11p

43. What two drugs inhibit the release of neurotransmitters from storage granules?
Guanethidine and bretylium
Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent cells as the name states - do not proliferate.)
C3b
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.

44. Name the most common type or cause - Cyanotic heart disease
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
Tetralogy of Fallot
Autograft
Pheochromocytoma

45. Which PG maintains patency of the ductus arteriosus and is used in the treatment of primary pulmonary HTN?
Pituitary hypogonadism
Clonorchis sinensis
Peyer's patch
PGI 2

46. What is the most common one? - Benign tumor of the ovary
The left gastric - splenic - and common hepatic arteries
Serocystadenoma
Minocycline
Interval scale (a ruler - for example)

47. When does most REM sleep occur - in the first or second half of sleep?
Cricothyroid muscles
REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of sleep. The amount of REM sleep increases as the night goes on.
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive - compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.
Primary hypogonadism (postmenopausal women)

48. Name these mature defense mechanisms: x Forgetting on purpose (so you can actually remember it)
Fanconi - like syndrome
Leydig cell tumor
Suppression
impermeable to water

49. At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
Meningioma
IgE
T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis).
Labioscrotal swelling

50. What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?
Nucleus ambiguus - resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.
GP120
Total and NREM sleep decrease considerably as we age - but REM sleep remains relatively constant (20%) up to age 80 - then begins to decline.
Ulcerative colitis