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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into the embryo?
6 weeks 10 weeks
Metastatic calcification
Eisenmenger syndrome - which can also occur with any left - to - right shunt
A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication - and the jaw deviates to the right.

2. What type of hypersensitivity is a T cell - mediated response to Ags that are not activated by Ab or complement?
A high - resistance system is formed when resistors are added in a series.
Streptomycin
Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL have abnormal karyotypes.)
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 48-96 hour latency)

3. Heinz bodies
The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus - inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). The needle is part of the blood - drawing procedure and is the conditioned stimulus (unconditioned and conditioned stimuli are paired) resulting in th
Rate of absorption
Hypospadia
G-6- PD deficiency

4. What sphingolipid cannot be produced without sialic acid and amino sugars?
All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and Proteus.
Ganglioside
Risk factors for cervical cancer
FSH and testosterone

5. What four CN carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
Nitroprusside
Pneumococcus
CN III - VII - IX - and X
Southern blot

6. What two drugs block dopa - decarboxylase in the periphery to decrease the conversion of L- dopa to dopamine?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Production of oxygen free radicals
Carbidopa and benserazide
GP IIb and IIIa receptors

7. In what disease is there a genetic absence of UDP- glucuronate transferase - resulting in an increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?
Eosinophilic exudates
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Suppression
Crigler - Najjar syndrome

8. From What aortic arch are the following structures derived?
Preoperational (2-6 years)
Common and internal carotid arteries
Oxytocin
Filtration; if hydrostatic pressure is less than oncotic pressure - reabsorption is promoted.

9. Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? - Bronchial smooth muscle activity
Introjection (a sports fan is a good example)
Hematoxylin
H 1
Anterior wall of the first part of the duodenum

10. Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics - apo A-1 - apo E - apo C- II
HDL
Giant cell tumor of the bone
Chromosome 19
Microcytotoxic assay

11. Which calcium channel blocker is used to treat subarachnoid hemorrhages by preventing posthemorrhagic vasospasms?
Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time and increased PT - and vitamin C deficiency has increased bleeding time and normal PT.
Hypospadia
Hepatitis D
Nimodipine

12. Objective tests that base the result of the examination on a preset standard use what form of reference?
Necrotizing enterocolitis
Criterion - referenced tests. You need a certain number correct to pass (e.g. - the USMLE).
1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater
naked viruses

13. What is the most common primary diagnosis resulting in an office visit for males? For females?
Order of attachment is site 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - and for release is 4 - 3 - 2 - 1.
Pro - opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH and Beta- lipotropin.
Minor
For males - HTN; for females - pregnancy.

14. During what stage of B- cell development is IgM first seen on the surface?
Yes - by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners - being overweight - and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused females.
The fastigial nucleus
Immature B cells
Testicular tumors

15. Name the end product or products: x Fatty acid oxidation
Outside the cell
Substantia nigra
Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids)
Wilms tumor

16. Outburst to cover up true feelings (emotion is covered - not redirected).
G2 phase
Chromosome 11 - 22
Acting out
H 1

17. What test is used to screen for HIV?
Increase in erythropoietin and increase in 2 - 3- BPG - also called 2 - 3- diphosphoglycerate (2 - 3- P2Gri) (increase in glycolysis)
ELISA. It detects anti - p24 IgG.
Cervical neoplasia
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell - mediated)

18. What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project to?
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus
Shifts it to the right
They block the midcycle surge of LH.
Extinction

19. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - Rotenone
Duodenal ulcers (4 times as common as gastric)
FSH and testosterone
Acebutolol and Pindolol
Complex I

20. What is the most common one? - Renal cell cancer type
Clear cell
Middle cerebral artery
>5 mm
Major

21. What Vi - encapsulated gram - negative motile anaerobic rod that produces H2S is associated with enteric fever - gastroenteritis - and septicemia?
excites the neuron
Salmonella typhi
In bone; nearly 99% of Ca2+ is stored in the bone as hydroxyapatite.
Transtentorial (uncal)

22. What are the rules of 2 for Meckel diverticulum?
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.
CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite.
Follicular phase
2% of population - 2 cm long - 2 feet from ileocecal valve - 2 years old - and 2% of carcinoid tumors

23. What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?
Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.
Eosin
Euchromatin - the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
Middle

24. What type of erythema do you see in x Stevens - Johnson syndrome?
Agents that decrease ACh function reduce tremors and rigidity - not bradykinesias.
Class II
Erythema multiforme
No - you never refuse to treat a patient simply because he or she can't pay. You are a patient advocate.

25. How many base pairs upstream is the prokaryotic TATA box promoter?
Mild (50-70)
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream - and the -35 promoter site is self - explanatory.
Superior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
Caseous necrosis

26. What Ig is responsible for Antibody- Dependent Cell - mediated Cytotoxicity of parasites - has a high - affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils - and is responsible for the allergic response?
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
IgE
Hyperkalemia
At least 5 lobes

27. What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the TCA cycle?
Transverse abdominis
CN IV
Lactulose
Succinyl CoA

28. At What age do children begin to understand the irreversibility of death?
Pernicious anemia
The systemic veins have the largest blood volume - and the pulmonary veins have the second largest blood volume in the cardiovascular system. They represent the reservoirs of circulation.
At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view death as a form of punishment.
Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular capillaries (promotes filtration)

29. What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? - Vertebral artery or anterior spinal artery occlusion - resulting in contralateral corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII lesion
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA - UGA - UAG) code for the termination of translation.
Medial medullary syndrome
Sulfonamides
1. Increased amino acid uptake by muscles 2. Decreased protein breakdown 3. Increased protein synthesis

30. What nematode is known as hookworms? What is the treatment?
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Superior and middle
Lispro insulin

31. What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell size and function usually associated with disuse?
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization - ischemia - aging - and a host of other causes.
Transcription (C comes before L in the alphabet - and transCription comes before transLation)
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
Mitral valve prolapse

32. Name the reaction that appears in babies who are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age - peaks around 8 months - and decreases at 12 months.)
Multiple myeloma
Arterioles have the largest drop - whereas the vena cava has the smallest pressure drop in systemic circulation.
Separation anxiety
Basal cell carcinoma

33. What two factors result in the base of the lung being hyperperfused?
CN XI and X
Retinoblastoma
Cryptococcus
Increased pulmonary arterial pressure (high perfusion) and more distensible vessels (low resistance) result in increased blood flow at the base.

34. What condition results in a strawberry gallbladder?
Agents that decrease ACh function reduce tremors and rigidity - not bradykinesias.
Plasmodium vivax
Sensitivity (it deals with the sick)
Cholesterolosis

35. What two post - transcriptional enzymes in collagen synthesis require ascorbic acid to function properly?
Stable
Cholera toxin
Humor
Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases

36. What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? - Muscle phosphorylase

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37. What is the key issue surrounding teenagers' maturation?
Herpes virus
HHV 8
Mitochondria - linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.
Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are.

38. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x Ki - ras and erb -2
Epispadia
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Rheumatic fever
Lung cancer

39. What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Steroid synthesis - drug detoxification - triglyceride resynthesis - and Ca2+handling
Flurazepam
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve - Artery - Vein - Empty space - and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament
Osteoclasts

40. What is the term for the total percentage of correct answers selected on a screening test?
Cilia
Accuracy (think of it as all the trues - because they are the ones correctly identified)
Elevated ASO titers and serum complement levels
1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam

41. What virus is associated with both nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt lymphoma?
EBV
Streptococcus agalactiae and Escherichia coli
Production of HCO3- - shifting the reaction to the left and thereby decreasing H+
M12 strains

42. What hypothalamic hormone is synthesized in the preoptic nucleus?
Medial pontine syndrome
GnRH
Peutz - Jeghers syndrome
Gangrenous necrosis

43. What vector is associated with malaria?
Water - soluble hormones are considered fast - acting hormones.
Beta- Hydroxybutyrate
Ions diffuse in the direction to bring the membrane potential toward the equilibrium potential.
Anopheles mosquito

44. What is the most common lethal AR disorder affecting white Americans?
Filiform papillae
Cystic fibrosis
Disorganized schizophrenia
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam ( OTL - Outside The Liver)

45. What mast cell mediator is a chemotactic agent?
Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA - are fragmented - and contain all sequences found in the particular genome copied.
Eosinophil chemotactic factor A
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.
Permanent

46. Regarding the viral growth curve - is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period?
After the eclipse period
Conversion disorder
Antimicrobial agents
Monosodium urate crystals

47. What are the two opsonizing factors?
Lipoprotein lipase
The Fc region of IgG and C3b
Erythema nodosum
Stage 2 - which accounts for approximately 45% of total sleep time - with REM occupying 20%.

48. Name the most common one - Chromosomal disorder
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Breast cancer
Neisseria gonorrhea (history of STD in patient with monoarticular infectious arthritis: think gonococcus)
Stranger anxiety

49. What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the upper limbs in the spinal cord?
Major
The fasciculus cuneatus
Laminin
PICA

50. What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?
Candida albicans
Pubis - ilium - and ischium
Achondroplasia
Methylene blue