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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Russell bodies
Serotonin
Multiple myeloma
Mast cells
In the RBC; remember - you need carbonic anhydrase for the conversion - and plasma does not have this enzyme.

2. What are the three functions of surfactant?
First - pass metabolism and acid lability
1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation
Lateral compartment of the leg - superficial peroneal nerve
HBsAg (incubation period)

3. What gluconeogenic mitochondrial enzyme requires biotin?
Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light therapy)
Pyruvate carboxylase
almitate
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.

4. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: IVC
Middle
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
CML and All
Folate deficiency (very common in the elderly)

5. Would a G- C or an A- T rich dsDNA sequence have a higher melting point? Why?
Sj
G- C rich sequences - because they have 3 hydrogen bonds - where A- T has 2 hydrogen bonds - resulting in higher melting points.
HPV
Urinary trigone

6. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Hydroxyurea
Labile
Monosodium urate crystals
S phase
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases

7. Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of What embryonic disorder?
Misoprostol
Metabolic rate and alveolar ventilation (main factor)
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa - resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
Kawasaki disease

8. Renal epithelial casts in the urine
UMP
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.
The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.

9. What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is x 110 to 119
Gonorrhea
High average
Prolactinoma
Depression

10. What are the two most important features in the diagnosis of malaria?
Melanoma - cancer of the stomach and bladder
S phase
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of suspicion)
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse - hyperreflexia - spastic paralysis - increased muscle tone - and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.

11. What is the name of the exotoxin Shigella dysenteriae produces - which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition?
Coombs test
Two - way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time.
Anhedonia
Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli produces Vero toxin - Which is quite similar to shiga toxin)

12. How far below ideal body weight are patients with anorexia nervosa?
Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia
Dominant temporal lobe
MI
At least 15%

13. What parasite is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder?
Schistosoma haematobium
Reverse transcriptase
Parasites
The subclavian artery

14. What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis x In patients with sickle cell disease?
3 to 4 days
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)
50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most likely perpetrators - although stepfathers also have a high rate.
Somatoform pain disorder

15. What three drugs are associated with SLE- like syndrome in slow acetylators?
Hydralazine - isoniazid - and procainamide (HIP)
Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)
Stable
LTB4

16. What complex is needed for propionyl CoA carboxylase?
Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)
Dissociative fugue. (Patients are unaware of memory loss.)
Biotin - ATP - and CO2
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

17. What is the leading cause of school dropout?
The number of Ags that the Ab can bind
Humor
As flow increases - the urine becomes more dilute because of decreased time for H2O reabsorption.
Pregnancy

18. Name these cluster A personality disorders: x Socially withdrawn - seen as eccentric but happy to be alone
Fibrocystic change of the breast
EF- Tu or EF- ts and GTP
Schizoid
Choriocarcinoma

19. Name the three methods of vasodilation via the sympathetic nervous system.
1. Decrease alpha -1 activity 2. Increase Beta -2 activity 3. Increase ACh levels
Class IV
In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary afferent neurons
2 and 5HT3 receptors

20. What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?
Liver (hepatocytes)
Tensor tympani
Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal Abs
Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.

21. What cell in the heart has the highest rate of automaticity?
SA node; it is the reason it is the primary pacemaker of the heart.
Median (think of it as the halfway point)
At birth (reflex)
Shortens

22. What virus lies dormant in the x Trigeminal ganglia?
Herpes I
Low average
Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus

23. What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? - Cortisol decreased - ACTH decreased
C1 - C2 - or C4 deficiency
Secondary hypocortisolism (pituitary)
C2 deficiency
Breathing high - pressure nitrogen over a long time and sudden decompression result in the bends.

24. Name the RNA subtype based on the following: x Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are precursors of mRNA
hnRNA
Propofol
Ischemia
Mesolimbic system

25. What is the DOC for severe infections with Sporothrix - Mucor - Histoplasma - Cryptococcus - Candida - and Aspergillus?
Invasive ductal carcinoma
Amphotericin B
Melanosis coli
Right - sided valves

26. Where are the preganglionic neuron cell bodies - the CNS or the PNS?
Intention tremor; it is a sign of cerebellar lesions. A tremor at rest (i.e. - pill rolling) is seen in basal ganglia lesions.
Constipation and miosis
Bronchogenic carcinoma
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.

27. What component of an ECG is associated with the following? - Atrial depolarization
P wave
naked viruses
Rhabdomyoma
Type II

28. What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?
prior to birthThe foramen ovale closes just...
Inulin
Concentration force and electrical force
Heterochromatin - the light stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.

29. What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick - weak bones and is associated with high - output cardiac failure?
Paget disease (osteitis deformans)
Sensory
Vitamin A is responsible for vision and epithelial health.
Splenic flexure

30. Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) x Chromium and nickel
During stage 3 and 4 (remember - it is called deep sleep.)
Four
Bronchogenic carcinoma
PCT

31. What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at x T8 level?
Bacteria
Aromatase
Mycoplasma
IVC Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12

32. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Dacarbazine
G0 phase
HMG- CoA reductase
Pyruvate - acetyl CoA - and propionyl CoA carboxylase
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.

33. What is the pancreatic action of CCK?
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase - lipase - and proteases for digestion.
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is a net gain in total body water and decreases when there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is named in terms of the ECF compartment.
Bulbus cordis
RES(Reticular endothelial system)

34. Name the macrophage based on its location: x Lung macrophages
Pulmonary alveolar macrophages
Follicular phase
Areas 18 and 19
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)

35. What part of the heart forms x Diaphragmatic wall?
Propofol
TB meningitis
No enzymes are needed. When the stop codon reaches the A site - it results in termination.
Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle

36. What is the term for air in the pleural space?
Follicular phase
Pneumothorax
1. Epinephrine synthesis 2. Phosphatidyl choline 3. Creatine 4. Methylation of cytosine 5. N- methyl cap of mRNA
S phase

37. What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?
Poxvirus
Infection
Clearance
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)

38. What is the name of the 12- step program believed to be the most successful for the treatment of alcohol abuse?
Alcoholics Anonymous
Macula densa
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. GTP

39. Which antihyperlipidemic agent would you not prescribe for a patient with a history of gout or PUD?
Because they do not block D2A receptors - they are antagonists of 5HT2 receptors.
Ego syntonic
Serratus anterior
Nicotinic acid - because its side effects include hyperuricemia and exacerbation of ulcers.

40. What is the vector for Leishmania infections?
DiGeorge's syndrome
Live vaccines
The sandfly
The triad of respiratory depression - pinpoint pupils - and coma in an IV drug abuser suggests opioid overdose (e.g. - heroin) - and you should give naloxone.

41. What protein prevents ssDNA from reannealing during DNA replication?
Single - strand DNA binding protein
Finasteride
Inversely proportional: the higher the potency - the lower the anticholinergic side effects.
Ethyl alcohol

42. What two substances stimulate Sertoli cells?
Amiloride
FSH and testosterone
a - and Beta- chains are on most T cells.
Gradient - time system

43. What Freudian psyche component is described as x Reality - rationality - language basis?
Ego
Vitreous humor
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50 - making O2 more difficult to remove from the Hgb molecule.
Melanocytes

44. What is the term to describe the increase in organ size due to the increase in cell size and function?
Chlamydia psittaci
Hypertrophy
gp120
1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. Reovirus (Remember PCR)

45. Which CHO is independently absorbed from the small intestine?
Muscle glycogen phosphorylase
Generalized anxiety disorder
Borrelia burgdorferi
Fructose; both glucose and galactose are actively absorbed via secondary active transport.

46. Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: x Back - filling into the left atrium during systole; increased v - wave - preload - left atrial volume - and left ventricular filling
Thermogenic
Mitral insufficiency
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.
Mesonephric duct

47. What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? - DNA
Follicular phase is estrogen - dependent with increased FSH levels - while the luteal phase is progesterone - dependent.
Penicillin V
Southern blot
Wernicke's aphasia

48. What is the most common form of dementia?

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49. What renal side effect is commonly seen in patients taking lithium?
Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and polydipsia.
Aorta - azygos vein - and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
Alcohol consumption
Factitious disorder

50. A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis; What is the most likely offending organism?
6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates per glucose are produced - and 2 NADHs result from production of acetyl CoA - so 6 ATPs)
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
Mycobacterium marinum
Chromosome 7

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USMLE Step 1 Prep

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