Instructions:

• Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
• If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
• Match each statement with the correct term.
• Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What type of GN occurs most commonly in children after a pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune complex- mediated; and is seen as lumpy- bumpy subepithelial deposits?
Postinfectious GN
Pro - opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH and Beta- lipotropin.
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2 - reducing the carrying capacity and shifting the curve to the left - making it difficult to remove the CO molecule from Hgb.
Insulinoma


2. What are the four types of signaling mechanisms?
Varicocele
Superior and posterior
Hemangioblastoma
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors


3. What test is done to diagnose CGD?
In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
reflexes
Streptococcus pneumoniae


4. What diseases are associated with the HLA- DR3 allele

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5. Name the most common type or cause - Sinusitis and otitis media in children
Cryptococcus
Pneumococcus
Sjogren's syndrome - active hepatitis - systemic lupus erythematosus (with HLA- DR2) and type 1 diabetes (with HLA- DR4)
Elongation factor - G and GTP


6. What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in x The intermediate hemispheres?
Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA - are fragmented - and contain all sequences found in the particular genome copied.
The dentate nucleus
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
Decreases


7. What is the most common one? - Malignant tumor in the bone of teenagers
An elevated serum osteocalcin level
IgD; IgM is also correct.
Osteosarcoma
Hepatitis A (infectious)


8. What type of bias is it when the information is distorted because of the way it is gathered?
Measurement bias
Between the renal arteries and at the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
Reticulocyte
Areas 18 and 19


9. What Brodmann area is associated with x Visual association cortex?
Areas 18 and 19
Estrogens are 18- carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.)
90% as HCO3- - 5% as carbamino compounds - and 5% as dissolved CO2
Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterial vessels - small changes in pressure result in large changes in blood volume.


10. What mineral is an important component of glutathione peroxidase?
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.
No CHO - AA - ketones - or peptides are left in the tubular lumen.
Selenium (Se)
Glioblastoma multiforme


11. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meio
Fungi
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam ( OTL - Outside The Liver)
A patent processus vaginalis
Allotypes


12. Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
tRNA
Endometriosis
Depression


13. What determines the rate of reaction?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Shaping (successive approximation)
The energy of activation
Leucine and lysine


14. What type of correlation compares two ordinal variables?
Opposite the second upper molar tooth
HBeAg
Yolk sac tumor
Spearman correlation


15. What Ig is associated with mucosal surfaces and external secretions?
Down syndrome
Metronidazole
ATP production
IgA


16. Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? - Inotropic action and automaticity
H 2
Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig levels.
Propionic acid
Hypotonia (rag doll appearance)


17. What complement factor or factors are associated with x Chemotaxis?
Chromosome 20q (deficiency in adenosine deaminase)
NADPH and molecular O 2
C5a
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)


18. What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each other through the use of fibrinogen?
Fibrinoid necrosis
Cleft palate
GP IIb/IIIa - Which is why GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors are used in the treatment of acute coronary syndromes
Thymidylate synthetase


19. In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic - slow - or absent spontaneous movement?

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20. Why is the clearance of creatinine always slightly greater than the clearance of inulin and GFR?
Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver - it results in hepatomegaly.
Progestin
Type 2


21. Where are the tonsillar tissues?

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22. How many carbons do estrogens have?
Estrogens are 18- carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.)
Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT P - (hyper) Parathyroid/ Paget disease A - Addison's disease M - Milk - alkali syndrome/metastatic cancer S - Sarcoidosis M - Multiple myeloma I - Immobilization/idiopathic D - Vitamin D intoxication T - Tumors
Diphyllobothrium latum
Short - chain fatty acids


23. What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences because of an inability to retrieve them?

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24. Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48- hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide
Mantle cell lymphoma
Plasmodium vivax
Puborectalis
Up to 72 hours; the ovum losses its ability to be fertilized 8 to 25 hours after release.


25. What test is used to screen for HIV?
Decreasing potassium conductance - which results in increased excitability
Labioscrotal swelling
ELISA. It detects anti - p24 IgG.
HBeAg


26. Name the type of necrosis - Soft - friable - cottage - cheese appearing; characteristically seen in TB
Hepatitis C
Job syndrome
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
Caseous necrosis


27. What generate anterograde transport of information in a neuron?
Class II
Corticospinal tract
Truncus arteriosus
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.


28. Which organism causes trench mouth?
Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn - crosses over - and ascends contralateral in the spinal cord - brainstem - thalamus - and postcentral gyrus.
Fusobacterium
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.
Myeloperoxidase


29. The blood stored in the systemic veins and the pulmonary circuit are considered part of the...
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis
At the end of the PCT 25% of the original volume is left
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Cardiac output


30. Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation found?
Corticosteroid
Nominal scale (categorical - e.g. - male or female)
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)
The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)


31. Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: x Lesion in Brodmann area 22; impaired comprehension; incoherent rapid - fluent speech; verbal paraphrasias; trouble repeating statements

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32. What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by poor wound healing - loose teeth - bleeding gums - petechiae - and ecchymosis?
Xenograft
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)
Renin
12 days after ovulation


33. What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial system?
Valine
Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries through a patent septal defect in the heart.
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors
Viral meningitis


34. What portion of the pericardium adheres to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels?
Fibrous pericardium
HMP shunt
Operon
Yes


35. What is the relationship between ventilation and PCO2 levels?
alpha - Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on - cells and inhibitory effects on - cells.
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases - there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.
Cocaine - induced coronary ischemia
Neutropenia - splenomegaly - and rheumatoid arthritis


36. Where does the synthesis of ACh occur?
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase.
Ampicillin and amoxicillin
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.


37. Aschoff bodies
80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)
Poxvirus
Rheumatic fever
AT II


38. What is the first human disease successfully treated with gene therapy?
MGN
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
Silicosis - Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is synonymous with black lung disease - an upper lobe occupational disorder
Deferoxamine - penicillamine


39. What determines the effective osmolarity of the ICF and the ECF compartments?
Deficiency in surfactant
Subatmospheric pressure acts to expand the lung; positive pressure acts to collapse the lung.
The concentration of plasma proteins determines effective osmolarity because capillary membranes are freely permeable to all substances except proteins.
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.


40. Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties - IgG or IgM Abs against a specific target cell or tissue; complement - dependent or ADCC.
Cortisol Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Papule
Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)


41. What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral body due to TB?
Urophilia
Ego dystonic
Pott disease
Chromosome 20q (deficiency in adenosine deaminase)


42. What cell surface marker is found on activated helper T cells?
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is a net gain in total body water and decreases when there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is named in terms of the ECF compartment.
CD40
Spinal trigeminal nucleus
Central. Remember - there is a deficiency in ADH production in the central form.


43. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: x Period of DNA replication (preparing for mitosis)
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases
Atropine with pralidoxime
S phase
Hypertension


44. Which form of emphysema is associated with an alpha1- antitrypsin deficiency?
5- hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5- HIAA)
Panacinar
Enkephalins
3 to 4 days


45. How are resistance and viscosity related regarding flow?
Chi - square.
Pulse pressure
The rate of infusion
Viscosity and resistance are proportionally related. The greater the viscosity - the greater the resistance is on the vessel.


46. What artery supplies the left ventricle - left atrium - and interventricular septum?
Left coronary artery
1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making the threat. 3. Notify the threatened victim.
1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency
Ptosis (eyelid drooping) - miosis (pupillary constriction) - and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1- to T4 are obstructed.


47. What three cephalosporins have good penetration against Bacteroides fragilis?
14 days
Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies.
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
Broca's aphasia


48. What catecholamine - hypersecreting tumor - a secondary cause of HTN - results in headache - diaphoresis - anxiety - tachycardia - and palpitations?
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increase in cardiac output - resulting in a minimal change in BP.
Pheochromocytoma
IgG
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)


49. Patients with _______________ have B cells in the peripheral blood.
Dissociation
Biotin (only if eaten in large quantities)
Cryptococcus neoformans
common variable hypogammaglobinemia


50. Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? - Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid - pheochromocytoma - and mucocutaneous neuromas
HHV 8
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together
MEN III (or IIb)
Enterococcus faecalis