Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What encephalitis is associated with the JC virus?
HBeAg
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
Meningioma

2. What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon?
This is the triad of renal cell carcinoma
Levator palpebrae superioris
Mantle cell lymphoma
Saltatory conduction

3. From What embryonic structure are the following structures derived? - The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus
Bulbus cordis
Free hormone levels remain constant - and the bound hormone level changes with a decrease in binding hormones.
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung - esophagus - ureter - and kidney - just to Name a few.
The venae recta maintain the gradient via countercurrent flow.

4. What embryonic structure - around day 19 - tells the ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue?
Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
ACh receptor
Proton pump inhibitors
The notochord

5. Can parents withhold treatment from their children?
S1 nuclease
Yes - as long the illness does not threaten limb or life. If illness is critical or an emergency - treat the child.
Secondary hyperparathyroidism (vitamin D deficiency - renal disease)
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a substance is equal - the substance is freely filtered by the kidney.

6. What is the only pharyngeal muscle not innervated by CN X?
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X.
Hepatitis E (enteric)
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
Hydatidiform mole

7. What is the bone marrow maturation time for a phagocytic cell?
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
Breast and lung cancer - respectively.
14 days
Toxic or viral hepatitis

8. Avidin decreases the absorption of what vitamin?
Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty withdrawal!)
Thermogenic
Subarachnoid hemorrhage

9. What vitamin deficiency can result in high - output cardiac failure?
Thiamine
Cyanide
Temporal lobe
MGB (think EARS)

10. Name the associated chromosome - VON Hippel - Lindau disease
Cancer
Chromosome 3p
Marrow failure - cancer - and leukemia
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

11. What paraphilia is defined as x Sexual urges toward children?
Haemophilus ducreyi
REM
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
Pedophilia

12. What is the most energy- demanding phase of the cardiac cycle?
after abortion
28 L - 40% of body weight
Epinephrine
Isovolumetric contraction

13. Name the most common type or cause - Sudden cardiac death
Western blot
GnRH pulsatile infusion
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)
Thiogalactoside transacetylase

14. What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response in the mucosal barriers?
Tertiary hypothyroidism/hypothalamic (Low TRH causes all the rest to be decreased because of decreased stimulation.)
Proton pump inhibitors
IgA
Yes. (Remember - Jehovah's witnesses refuse blood transfusions.)

15. What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder?
Keratinocytes - the most numerous cells in the epidermis - carry melanin and produce keratin.
Gaucher disease
Blocking
Hemosiderin

16. Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean type of what deficiency?
Achondroplasia
Alcoholic cirrhosis
G-6- PD deficiency
HPV

17. What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone?
Adenovirus
The main drive shifts from central chemoreceptors (CSF H+) to peripheral chemoreceptors monitoring low PO2 levels.
>5 mm
Osteocyte

18. What component of the inner ear x Contains perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of the head?
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Semicircular canal
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)

19. Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? - Pericarditis
Major
Propofol
SLE; ANA - anti - dsDNA and anti - Sm (anti - Smith)
DNA polymerase I

20. What is the order of fuel use in a prolonged fast?
A patent processus vaginalis
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2 - high H+ - slightly high HCO3-)
Basal ganglia
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat

21. What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at x T12 level?
Phase I
Follicular lymphoma
Aorta - azygos vein - and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at T8 - 2 at T10 - and 3 at T12
Constriction of afferent arteriole

22. What Brodmann area is associated with x Somatosensory association cortex?
Enterokinase
Site 4
Areas 5 and 7
1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides

23. What is the most common one? - Cardiac tumor
Suppression
Left atrial myxoma
Histiocytosis X
Ceramide

24. Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties - Reaction - mediated by sensitized T- cells
Voltage - gated sodium channel
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell - mediated)
Iron deficiency anemia
Libman - Sacks endocarditis

25. What is the most common one? - Malignant thyroid tumor
Sciatic nerve
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
An increase in serum glucose levels
Rods

26. What is the name of the SER of striated muscle?
Epstein - cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve
MEN I (or Wermer syndrome)
Middle cerebral artery
Sarcoplasmic reticulum

27. Why should opioid analgesics be avoided for patients with head trauma?
T4 - as long as T4 levels remain constant - TSH will be minimally effected by T3.
Repression
Opioids cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in increased intracerebral pressure.
IgE. It attaches via receptor for the Fc region of the heavy epsilon chain

28. All of the hormones in the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are...
Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia)
Hepatitis B
They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.
Water soluble

29. What do the risk factors late menopause - early menarche - obesity - nulliparity - excessive estrogen - genetic factor p53 - and brc - abl characterize?
Breast cancer
Tyramine
Case fatality rate
Decreases Remember - the carotid sinus reflex attempts to compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

30. What is the most common one? - Route for infectious arthritis
Hematogenous
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII.
Zinc (Zn) deficiency

31. What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene - attempting to find out the individual's unconscious perceptions in his or her life?
Salpingitis
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant - but the size - placement - erasures - and distortions are relevant.
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
Subacute combined degeneration - Which is bilateral below the level of the lesion.

32. At What age does a child develop x Preferential smile?

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

33. Name the correct artery - The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 48-96 hour latency)
Neutropenia - splenomegaly - and rheumatoid arthritis
Arch of the aorta

34. What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? - Calcium reabsorption - phosphate excretion
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.
PTH
Convergence

35. What is the DOC for treating Entamoeba histolytica - Giardia - Trichomonas - Bacillus fragilis - and Clostridium difficile infections?
'Lady between two Majors': latissimus dorsi - pectoralis major - and teres major
Asparagine
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
Metronidazole

36. What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?
Pyruvate carboxylase
Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies.
Hepadnavirus
Truncus arteriosus

37. What motile - gram - negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase positive - urease positive - and associated with gastritis - peptic ulcer disease - and stomach cancer?
Ungated channels
HMG CoA synthase
Helicobacter pylori
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)

38. What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? - Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
Test - retest reliability
Catechol - O- methyl transferase (COMT)
Nitroprusside
NE

39. What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?
'Lady between two Majors': latissimus dorsi - pectoralis major - and teres major
Primitive atrium
Kupffer cells
Aedes (the same for yellow fever)

40. What enzyme found in a cholinergic synapse breaks down ACh? What are the byproducts?
Temporal arteritis
Quinolones
Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate and choline (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic nerve terminal).
There would be a Fab' region; thus - it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.

41. What is the term for air in the pleural space?
Stage 2 - which accounts for approximately 45% of total sleep time - with REM occupying 20%.
Enterobius vermicularis; the treatment is albendazole.
Pneumothorax
Scleroderma

42. What is the most common one? - Type of PUD
Diverticulosis
Duodenal ulcers (4 times as common as gastric)
GnRH constant infusion
Antisocial personality

43. How many months in How many years must a person cough with copious sputum production for the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?
Hepatitis E (enteric)
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
Leiomyoma
embranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)

44. Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? - Bacteria
Staphylococcus aureus
Crossover study
Hematoxylin
Alteplase

45. Name the associated chromosome - Familial hypercholesterolemia
Thyroid hormones are necessary for conversion of carotene to vitamin A.
Chromosome 19
Nicotinic acid - because its side effects include hyperuricemia and exacerbation of ulcers.
2 - 4- Dinitrophenol

46. If the family member of a patient asked you to withhold information - would you?
TB meningitis
For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no - but if the information would do more harm than good - withhold. This is very rare but it does occur.
Toxoplasma gondii
PTH increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT of the kidney and decreases PO4- reabsorption in the PCT.

47. What IV- only agent inhibits water reabsorption in the PCTs and is used to treat increased intracranial pressure - increased intraocular pressure - and acute renal failure?
Mannitol
Terminal bronchioles. (No gas exchange occurs here.)
Rhabdomyoma
Inspiratory capacity

48. What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin - Johnson syndrome?
True hermaphrodism
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia - a transport defect
Placental alkaline phosphatase
At least six

49. What two sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?
Protamine sulfate
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
Glucose and galactose
Viruses

50. What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with 90% of syringomyelia?
Arnold - Chiari malformation type 2
REM sleep. Remember - awake brain in a sleeping body.
Coxiella burnetii
PTH