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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the most common one? - Benign GI tumor
Streptococcus viridans
Stable
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)
Leiomyoma

2. What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? - Interstitial fluid
Ligament teres
9.3 L - 15% of body weight
High - frequency sound waves
1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam

3. Name the MCC - Pneumonia in a neutropenic burn patient
Pseudomonas sp.
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve
Shine - Dalgarno sequence
S phase

4. What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of x Laryngopharynx?
When the pH is more acidic than the pI - it has a net positive charge - and when the pH is more basic than the pI - it has a net negative charge.
Pro - opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH and Beta- lipotropin.
Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase
Vagus nerve

5. What embryonic structure - around day 19 - tells the ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue?
The notochord
Stable
Barbiturate overdose and benzodiazepine withdrawal carry the highest mortality rates.
Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and therefore needed for protein digestion.

6. Blue sclera
Esophagus - SVC - vagus nerve - azygos vein - thoracic duct - thymus - and phrenic nerve
Salmonella
Urachus
Osteogenesis imperfecta

7. What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?
pH of 2 and 9
Ag - Ab binding
HBsAg as its envelope
Goodpasture disease

8. Which class of antiarrhythmics are Beta- blockers?
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Type II
Yes. The only civil liberty they lose is the freedom to come and go as they please.
Class II

9. What water - soluble vitamin deficiency results in pellagra?
Female pseudohermaphrodite
Eisenmenger's syndrome
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle - delaying the closure of the pulmonic valve.
Niacin (B3)

10. What diagnosis ensues from finding well - demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the knees - elbows - and scalp along with nail bed pitting and discoloration?
Oxytocin
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Psoriasis
Severe (range 20-34)

11. What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum?
HBsAg (incubation period)
Disorganized schizophrenia
Right - sided
Round and ovarian ligaments

12. What tumor is seen in the 2- to 4-year - old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli - tubules - and stroma; and metastasizes late to the lungs?
The cat
Wilms tumor
Chylomicrons
Mast cells

13. What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett esophagus)
von Gierke's disease
Type IV collagen
Ependymal cells

14. What a1- agonist - not inactivated by catechol - O- methyl transferase (COMT) - is used as a decongestant and for treatment of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?
MI
Mural infarct
Preductal (infantile)
Phenylephrine

15. Name the form of spina bifida - Defect in the vertebral arch
Crigler - Najjar syndrome
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated - fetoprotein levels.
Reliability (think of it as 'nice grouping' or 'precise')
D- Penicillamine

16. Name the cluster B personality disorder: x Grandiose sense of self - importance; demands constant attention; fragile self - esteem; can be charismatic
The carotid body - which monitors arterial blood directly
Takayasu arteritis (medium - size to large vessels)
Parkinson disease
Narcissistic

17. What Ig is associated with mast cell and basophil binding?
Acetoacetate - acetone - and Beta- hydroxybutyrate
Are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States
Riboflavin (B2)
IgE. It attaches via receptor for the Fc region of the heavy epsilon chain

18. What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? - More than 35 years old
Integument (skin and its derivatives)
LH
Giant cell tumor of the bone
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.

19. What bedside test is used to differentiate a dorsal column lesion from a lesion in the vermis of the cerebral cortex?

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20. Name the most common type or cause - Subacute bacterial endocarditis
For males - HTN; for females - pregnancy.
Triazolam
Streptococcus viridans
Monosodium urate crystals

21. What is the most common chromosomal disorder?
Rate of absorption
Down syndrome
Cortisol
IgG3

22. What is the karyotype in Turner syndrome?
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
45XO
Femoral nerve
Histamine

23. What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the frontal and the parietal lobes?
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.
Akathisia
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
RSV

24. Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining - Granular deposits of IgG - IgM - and C3 throughout the glomerulus
Eosin
Postinfectious GN
Hexosaminidase A
Procainamide

25. What is the most common one? - Proliferative abnormality of an internal organ
BPH
5- hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5- HIAA)
Prevalence rate
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and the lunate is the most commonly dislocated.

26. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - Cyanide
Cytochrome a/a3
Stanford - Binet Scale - developed in 1905 - is useful in the very bright - the impaired - and children less than 6 years old.
Somatomedins
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive and secondary as active)

27. What are the three causes of transudate?
Subclavian vein
Follicular adenoma
Pneumocystis carinii
CHF - cirrhosis - and nephrosis

28. What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?
False - negative rate
Calcarine sulcus
Aldosterone Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.
Cytokine. If a cytokine affects another class of leukocytes - it is called an interleukin.

29. What complex of the ETC contains Cu2+?
Eosinophil
Melasma
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)
Complex 4

30. What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the respiratory epithelium?
LH
Budd - Chiari syndrome
Primary polydipsia; patients with diabetes insipidus will continue to produce large volumes of dilute urine.
P1 protein

31. What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?
Fungiform papillae
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)
Oxazepam - temazepam - and lorazepam (OTL) (mnemonic: Outside The Liver). They undergo glucuronide conjugation - not via the cytochrome p450 system.
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24- hour period is during stage 4 sleep.

32. What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?
Esophagus - SVC - vagus nerve - azygos vein - thoracic duct - thymus - and phrenic nerve
C1 inhibitor (C1- INH)
Hepatitis E
ASA (salicylate)

33. Name five causes for zero - order metabolism.
1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity
Familial polyposis coli
Secretin stimulates the pancreas to secrete a HCO3-- rich solution to neutralize the acidity of the chyme entering the duodenum.
Probenecid

34. Starry sky appearance of macrophages is pathognomonic of what lymphoma?
Burkitt lymphoma
Alveolar dead space
Medial meniscus
Wernicke's aphasia

35. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Nitrosoureas
Left heart failure
M:F 4:1 committing - but M:F ratio of attempts is 1:3 (males commit more but females try it more)
G0 phase
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.

36. How many covalent bonds per purine - pyrimidine base pairing are broken during denaturation of dsDNA?
Budd - Chiari syndrome
In men it is prostate cancer - and in women it is breast cancer.
Hypertrophy
None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks hydrogen bonds - not covalent bonds.

37. Which IL increases IgA synthesis?
Coagulative
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Parietal lobe
IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil proliferation.

38. What right - to - left shunt occurs when the aorta opens into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk opens into the left ventricle?
Cilia
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and the lunate is the most commonly dislocated.

39. Lack platelets.
Blood clots
Adrenarche
Finasteride
Increased erection and libido

40. Name the most common type or cause - Diarrhea in children
>5 mm
Rotavirus
Osteosarcoma
Biotin - ATP - and CO2

41. What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous - with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps - and is associated with HLA- B27?
<2
Ulcerative colitis
Hypospadia
1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment

42. What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?
Avidity. There is a positive correlation between valence numbers and avidity.
Depression
Reverse transcriptase
Cyproheptadine

43. A complete opposite expression of your inward feeling (e.g. - arguing all the time with someone you are attracted to when your feelings are not known)
Reaction formation
First - order elimination
Moving objects - along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs.
The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high venous PO2) difference in the body because of the overperfusion of the kidneys resulting from filtration.

44. What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in x The lateral cerebellar hemispheres?
The interposed nucleus
Inversely proportional: the higher the potency - the lower the anticholinergic side effects.
Dissociative fugue. (Patients are unaware of memory loss.)
Adenosine deaminase

45. What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
Hodgkin lymphoma
Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin B12 absorption)
gag gene

46. What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger - cleaning up cellular debris after injury?
Wernicke's aphasia
Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)
The vermis
Lung recoil - being a force to collapse the lung - increases as the lung enlarges during inspiration.

47. To differentiate central from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus - after an injection of ADH - which will show a decreased urine flow?
In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.
Bainbridge reflex
Central. Remember - there is a deficiency in ADH production in the central form.
NADPH - O2 - and cytochrome b5

48. Name the most common type or cause - Sudden cardiac death
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)
Glioblastoma multiforme
Case fatality rate

49. What component of the inner ear x Contains endolymph and responds to head turning and movement?
Affinity (one of each)
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the number of functioning carriers.
Streptococcus agalactiae and Escherichia coli
Semicircular duct

50. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Esophagus
Missense
Autosomal dominant
Superior and posterior
Chromosome 14 - 18