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USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map - What area or lobe x Is involved in motor planning?
Macula densa
Lateral part of the hemispheres
Flucytosine
Mikulicz syndrome

2. What two forms of insulin - if mixed together - precipitate zinc?
Lente insulin and either NPH or protamine zinc insulin (PZI)
IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is for Lymphoid)
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Sulfonamides

3. A mother takes her 2- week - old infant to the ER because the baby regurgitates and vomits after eating and has peristaltic waves visible on the abdomen and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is your diagnosis?
IgG
Pyloric stenosis
Asbestosis
Wilms tumor

4. What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?

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5. What is the only valve in the heart with two cusps?
Mitral (bicuspid) valve
Posterior
Insulin increases total body stores of protein - fat - and CHOs. When you think insulin - you think storage.
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three Es)

6. What is the rate - limiting step in the synthetic pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve terminal?
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T
IL-8. It not only is chemotactic - it also acts as an adhesive for neutrophils.
60%

7. What two cell lines of the immune system do not belong to the innate branch?
T and B- cells belong to the adaptive branch - whereas PMNs - NK cells - eosinophils - macrophages - and monocytes belong to the innate branch.
Histidine - because of the imidazole ring found in the R group - is basic.
Chromosome 15
IgM

8. What is the term of the viral growth period when no viruses can be found intracellularly?
1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency
Eclipse period
31 pairs
GABA and glutamic acid

9. What two AAs require vitamin C for hydroxylation?
Fluconazole
Omega -3; linoleic is omega -6
Proline and lysine
Penicillin V

10. What female pathology is associated with endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?
Metronidazole
Lateral part of the hemispheres
Endometriosis
Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.

11. How many bases upstream is the eukaryotic TATA box promoter?
Right brachiocephalic artery
There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The TATA box is -25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box is -75 bases upstream.
Auspitz sign
C3a - C4a - and C5a

12. Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi - bacteria - viruses - or parasites? - Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meio
Neuroblastoma
Fungi
Chromosome 7
Beta- Galactosidase

13. What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm
12 days after ovulation
Escherichia coli
Bacterial meningitis

14. Which antihistamine is one of the DOCs for treatment of vertigo?
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)
16S subunit
Meclizine

15. Name the most common type or cause - Spontaneous pneumothorax
N- formyl - methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8
Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by increasing the number of Beta - receptors and their sensitivity to catecholamines.
Emphysematous bleb

16. What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical spinal cord?
Aedes mosquito
Isoniazid
Nystagmus and ataxia
Accessory nucleus

17. Fixing impulses by acting out the opposite of an unacceptable behavior
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
Mitral valve stenosis
Undoing

18. What is the formula to calculate IQ?
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score - where MA = mental age and CA = chronological age
Hypochondriasis (they will begin with 'I think I have...')
Leydig cell tumor
Elongation factor - G and GTP

19. What are the longest - acting and shortest - acting benzodiazepines?
Sphingomyelin
presence of PMNs
Serocystadenoma
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest acting.

20. What parasitic infection is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Macula densa
Clonorchis sinensis
No - it is never acceptable to lie.
Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca cells form from the theca interna.

21. What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant - but the size - placement - erasures - and distortions are relevant.
Accidents
Fentanyl
Ligamentum arteriosum

22. Why is there a minimal change in BP during exercise if there is a large drop in TPR?
S phase
Sulfonamides
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increase in cardiac output - resulting in a minimal change in BP.
Entamoeba histolytica

23. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Trachea
Propionic acid
Superior
Chromosome 18
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient - greater diffusion rate) 2. Surface area (greater surface area - greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility (greater solubility - greater diffusion rate) 4. Membrane thickness (thicker the membrane - slowe

24. Name the Hgb - O2 binding site based on the following information: x Remains attached under most physiologic conditions
Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
Site 1
Negative
Placental alkaline phosphatase

25. Have catalase.
Histrionic
Streptococci
Swan - neck deformities
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

26. What phase of Interphase is haploid (N)?
Areas 41 and 42
Agglutination test
G1 phase; G2 and S phase are diploid (2N).
Sporothrix schenckii

27. In a skeletal muscle fiber - the interior of the T- tubule is...
The negative charge inhibits the filtration of protein anions.
Extracellular
Trazodone
Xanthine - hypoxanthine - theophylline - theobromine - caffeine - and uric acid are all purines.

28. Orphan Annie cells
Hyperkalemia
Humor
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
antiemetic

29. What ganglion supplies the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the eye?
Ciliary ganglion
Complex I
Projection
Common peroneal nerve

30. What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: x GTP
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)
Succinyl CoA synthetase
Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules)

31. Can incidence - prevalence - and cause and effect be assessed in x Case control studies?
Mantle cell lymphoma
Anterior wall of the first part of the duodenum
Case control studies cannot assess incidence or prevalence - but they can determine causal relationships.
HMG CoA synthase

32. What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
HBsAg and HBeAg
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell - mediated)
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)

33. Which bacteriostatic drug whose major side effect is the lepra reaction inhibits folic acid synthesis?
No - but it does interfere with performing complex tasks and decreases attention to detail. (Be careful post call!)
1 day prior to ovulation
Vitamin D
Dapsone

34. What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvis and the hindgut?
CN XI - vertebral arteries
Lumbar splanchnics
Vesicle (e.g. - poison ivy)
It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and increases bone mineralization.

35. What is the term for the day after the LH surge in the female cycle?
1. Low pressure in the afferent renal arteriole 2. Low sodium sensed by the macula densa 3. Increased Beta-1- sympathetic stimulation of the JG cells
Brucella
Hapten (not immunogenic)
Ovulation

36. What pyrimidine base is found x In both DNA and RNA?
Cytosine
Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger - to - nose test.
GH- producing adenoma
Puberty

37. What staphylococcal species is positive for Beta - hemolysis and coagulase?
Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)
Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels and therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP and CAP.
Staphylococcus aureus
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis

38. What type of correlation is defined as x Two variables with no linear relation to one another?
Aspartame
Fossa ovale
Excess lead
Zero correlation

39. What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate of T lymphocytes seen in males more than 40 years old and presents as scaly red patches or plaques?
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T- cell lymphoma)
Pregnancy
Yes - because they both activate the BZ1- receptors - which can be reversed by flumazenil.
Henoch - Sch

40. What happens to cortisol levels in sleep - deprived individuals?
Cystic fibrosis
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
Melatonin. It is a light - sensitive hormone that is associated with sleepiness.
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep - deprived individuals.

41. What is the term for RBC remnants of nuclear chromatin in asplenic patients?
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore - they are not used if a patient has hypertriglyceridemia.
Outside the cell
Howell - Jolly bodies
Leiomyoma

42. What is the term for the summation of mechanical stimuli due to the skeletal muscle contractile unit becoming saturated with calcium?
eEF-1
The sensory limb is via CN IX - and the motor limb is from CN X.
Mesonephric duct
Tetany

43. What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze the substrate - level phosphorylations?
Chi - square (when you are in doubt and have nominal data - use chi - square)
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.
3- Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)
Yes - by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners - being overweight - and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused females.

44. What is the most common one? - Solid tumor in children
Rhombencephalon
Neuroblastoma
Tylosis
Dihydrofolate reductase

45. What hormone - stimulated by epinephrine - results in an increase in lipolysis?
Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud)
Hormone - sensitive lipase - Which breaks down triglyceride into glycerol and free fatty acid
Mode
1:1. Remember - the flow through the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit are equal.

46. What hormone is required for 1 - 25- dihydroxy- vitamin D (1 - 25- diOH- D) to have bone resorbing effects?
Malignant mesothelioma
PTH
Bacillus cereus
Hypoxia

47. Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
The sensory limb is via CN IX - and the motor limb is from CN X.
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver - it results in hepatomegaly.
The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.
Papule

48. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Dacarbazine
ELISA is used as a screening test because it is very sensitive; Western blot is used as a confirmatory test because it detects antibodies (protein) to the HIV virus.
G0 phase
2 days prior to ovulation
Dantrolene

49. What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps - most commonly affects the colorectal area - and is associated with chromosome 5q21?
Wilms tumor
Polycystic ovaries
HIV and poxvirus
Familial polyposis coli

50. What is the most common primary diagnosis resulting in an office visit for males? For females?
Pyridoxine (B6)
For males - HTN; for females - pregnancy.
TCR
Heart - esophagus - and colon. Remember - you get megas: cardiomegaly - megaesophagus - and megacolon.