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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? - Loss of abduction of the hip resulting in Trendelenburg gait
CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite.
Superior gluteal nerve
Denial
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA - UGA - UAG) code for the termination of translation.
2. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x Additional air that can be taken in after normal inspiration
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
Quaternary structure
Pancreatic insufficiency
3. What form of angina is characterized by x Coronary artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence with increasing frequency - duration - intensity - and decreasing activity - frequently at rest?
Metabolic alkalosis (summary: high pH - low H+ and high HCO3-)
Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex
Chromophobe adenoma
Unstable (crescendo) angina
4. What is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to?
PGI 2
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)
Spironolactone
The number of Ags that the Ab can bind
5. Name the RNA subtype based on the following: x Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are precursors of mRNA
IgA
hnRNA
Reticulocyte
Inhibited orgasm
6. What is the triad of Felty syndrome?
IgG4
Neutropenia - splenomegaly - and rheumatoid arthritis
Ipratropium
eEF-1
7. Is the coding or the template strand of DNA identical to mRNA (excluding the T/U difference)?
The coding strand is identical to mRNA - and the template strand is complementary and antiparallel.
Diffuse proliferative GN
Arsenic
Progestin
8. What syndrome occurs when pelvic inflammatory disease ascends to surround the liver capsule in violin string adhesions?
Axis V
Undoing
Fitz - Hugh - Curtis syndrome
Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)
9. What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival rates?
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10. Is there a difference between mathematical and clinical steady states? If so - What are their values (half - lives)?
There is a difference; it takes about 7 to 8 half - lives to reach mathematical steady state and 4 to 5 half - lives to reach clinical steady state.
Nucleus pulposus
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Azathioprine
11. What pH (acidotic or alkalotic) is needed for pepsinogen to pepsin conversion?
1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid
Wernicke's aphasia
Klatskin tumor
Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and therefore needed for protein digestion.
12. Which potassium - sparing drug is an aldosterone receptor antagonist ?
Helicobacter pylori
Spironolactone
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
Risperidone
13. What malignant bone tumor is characterized by Codman triangle (periosteal elevation) on radiograph?
Lead - time bias (remember - patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)
Achondroplasia
IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil proliferation.
Osteosarcoma
14. How many days after the LH surge is ovulation?
ASA
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the estrogen peak.
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.
15. Without ADH the collecting duct would be...
impermeable to water
Dilation of afferent arteriole
CMV; remember - EBV is associated with heterophile - positive mononucleosis.
Reverse transcriptase
16. What cerebral lobes are most commonly affected in herpes encephalitis?
Temporal lobes
Order of attachment is site 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - and for release is 4 - 3 - 2 - 1.
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
17. What term is described as the prestretch on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole?
Preload (the load on the muscle in the relaxed state)
Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.
Cystadenoma
rRNA
18. What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? - Common peroneal nerve
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier - it may become immunogenic.
Acetazolamide
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
Aspiration
19. What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?
Pro - opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH and Beta- lipotropin.
Iatrogenesis
Pneumocystis carinii
Terbinafine
20. How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone marrow suppressor?
Psoriasis
It causes a buildup of dATP - which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate - a precursor of DNA - resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.
The raphe nuclei
Obesity - DM - HTN - multiparity - early menarche - and late menopause
21. RBCs in the urine
In the JG cells of the kidney
Jejunum (upper)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Bladder carcinoma
22. What is the term for the strength of the association between Ags and Abs?
Turner syndrome
1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
Avidity. There is a positive correlation between valence numbers and avidity.
23. A 60-year - old man has back pain (compression spinal fracture) - hypercalcemia - increased serum protein - Bence - Jones proteinuria - and monoclonal M- spike on serum electrophoresis. What is your diagnosis?
Positive
Multiple myeloma
DNA polymerase - a
Coronary circulation
24. What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger - cleaning up cellular debris after injury?
Microcytotoxic assay
45XO
Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)
ATP production
25. What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?
Hypoventilation results in an increase in PCO2 levels and therefore an increase in blood flow.
Cytochrome c
Major
Virchow triad - associated with the formation of a thrombus.
26. In which syndrome does a person present with intentionally produced physical ailments with the intent to assume the sick role?
Right - sided valves
Dilation of afferent arteriole
Pertussis toxin
M
27. What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? - Bleomycin
G2 phase
The popliteal artery - the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa - risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.
The Halsted - Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation - speech sound perception - rhythm - tactual - and category testing.
Superego
28. What is the most common one? - Site of pancreatic cancer
Carbamazepine
Head of the pancreas
Postinfectious GN
C3 - C4 - and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!
29. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: x Language - memory - and emotion (Hint: herpesvirus infects here commonly)
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Temporal lobe
Increase in erythropoietin and increase in 2 - 3- BPG - also called 2 - 3- diphosphoglycerate (2 - 3- P2Gri) (increase in glycolysis)
Constriction of afferent arteriole
30. Aschoff bodies
GLUT 2
Alzheimer disease
IgG4
Rheumatic fever
31. Is the carotid sinus sensitive to pressure or oxygen?
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32. What is the most common genetic cause of mental retardation?
No - it is used in chronic treatment of gout to decrease the uric acid pools in the body.
The vermis
Cilia
Down syndrome (it is slightly more common than fragile X syndrome.)
33. Thin extremities - fat collection on the upper back and abdomen - hypertension - hypokalemic alkalosis - acne - hirsutism - wide purple striae - osteoporosis - hyperlipidemia - hyperglycemia with insulin resistance - and protein depletion are all cha
Birds
C1 inhibitor (C1- INH)
Volvulus
Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome)
34. What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?
Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
Hypervariable region
Type I (makes sense - since they have a predisposition for fractures and type I collagen is associated with bones and tendons)
Average
35. What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors can present with thymic abnormalities - red cell aplasia - and muscle weakness?
Myasthenia gravis
Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium.
Coombs test
Left heart failure
36. Name the MCC of death - In neonates
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
Anticipation
Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.
Macula densa
37. What law states that an enlarged - palpable gallbladder is more likely due to cancer than stone obstruction?
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38. Where is lithium metabolized and excreted?
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39. What is the site of action of the following? - Thiazide diuretics
Early distal tubule
Pinpoint pupils - decreased respiratory rate - and coma
Oligodendroglioma
Constriction of efferent arteriole
40. Describe What type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume - ICF volume - and body osmolarity - respectively: x ECF - increase; ICF - increase; body - decrease
Gain of hypotonic fluid (water intoxication or hypotonic saline)
Fo/F1 complex
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)
Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin B12 absorption)
41. What is the term for the total volume of air moved in and out of the respiratory system per minute?
Semipermeable membrane; a selectively permeable membrane allows both water and small solutes to pass through its membrane.
Vibrio cholera
Follicular phase
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)
42. Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium species?
1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the patient say? 3. What is in the patient's best interests?
Caisson disease
Clostridium perfrigens
Methylation of bacterial DNA
43. What somatoform disorder is described as x Preoccupied with illness or death - persisting despite reassurance - lasting longer than 6 months?
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44. What happens to cortisol levels in sleep - deprived individuals?
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep - deprived individuals.
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
Libman - Sacks endocarditis
Sympathetic chain ganglion
45. What axis I disorder is characterized by pronoun reversal - preference for inanimate objects - obliviousness to the external environment - lack of separation anxiety - and abnormalities in language development?
Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal with incidence.)
Osteoporosis
Autism. Head - banging - rocking - and self - injurious behaviors are also common in autism.
Crigler - Najjar syndrome
46. What is the most common cardiac tumor? In what chamber does it most commonly arise?
Under normal resting conditions no - but they are strongly stimulated when PO2 arterial levels decrease to 50 to 60 mm Hg - resulting in increased ventilatory drive.
Vagus nerve
90% of benign myxomas arise within the left atrium near the fossa ovalis.
Calicivirus
47. What is the term to describe a man who has x The ability to have an erection sometimes and other times not?
Superego
Blood clots
Selective erectile disorder
The cat
48. What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? - Streptomycin
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.
Streptococcus pyogenes
Early collecting duct
IF-2 of the 30S subunit
49. What phase of the menstrual cycle is dominated by estrogen? Progesterone?
V wave
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin - ACh - and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked - acetaldehyde builds up - and its presence in excess results in nausea and hypotension.
Follicular phase is estrogen - dependent with increased FSH levels - while the luteal phase is progesterone - dependent.
50. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Lateral ventricles
Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
Proencephalon
Head of the pancreas
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