Test your basic knowledge |

USMLE Step 1 Prep

Subjects : health-sciences, usmle-step-1

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. HIV's capsid - core nucleocapsid - and matrix proteins are products of what structural gene?
gag gene
Osteoblasts - which in turn stimulate osteoclasts to break down bone - releasing Ca2+ into the interstitium. (Remember - blasts make - clasts take.)
Mesonephric duct
Rochalimaea quintana (now called Bartonella quintana)

2. What receptors are the best markers for NK cells?
Helicobacter pylori - Which is also associated with an increased risk of gastric carcinoma
Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome
CD16 and CD56
CN VII and VIII

3. What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent sinopulmonary infections - uncoordinated muscle movements - and dilation of the blood vessels?
Unconjugated free bilirubin
Ataxia - telangiectasia
NE - via its vasoconstrictive action on blood vessels
Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff's syndrome.

4. What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial system?
Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries through a patent septal defect in the heart.
produce bile
Phallus - urogenital folds - and labioscrotal swellings
Order of attachment is site 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - and for release is 4 - 3 - 2 - 1.

5. What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?
3 years old
eEF-2 is the site where Pseudomonas and Diphtheria toxins work.
Microvillus
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia

6. In biostatistics - What are the three criteria required to increase power?
1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater
Vagus nerve
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)

7. What vessels have the largest total cross - sectional area in systemic circulation?
Turcot syndrome
Capillaries
GP Ib
Leydig cell tumor

8. What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon xanthomas?
Metronidazole
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these slow channels - and if they are prevented from opening - it will slow down the repolarization phase.
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Succinylcholine and halothane (Treatment is with dantrolene.)

9. Name the most common type or cause - Nephrotic syndrome
Permanent
When the pH is more acidic than the pI - it has a net positive charge - and when the pH is more basic than the pI - it has a net negative charge.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MGN)
Osteoma

10. What is the second leading cause of death in children aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
competency
Cancer
Valence
Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)

11. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: x Cells cease replicating (i.e. - nerve cell)
Hydralazine - isoniazid - and procainamide (HIP)
Tensor tympani
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of suspicion)
G0 phase

12. What equals the total tension on a muscle minus the preload?
Spermatogonia (type B)
Afterload
Herpes virus I and II
Fluconazole

13. What stage of sleep is associated with somnambulism?
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane
Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs most often in the first third of sleep.
Lithium
CD4

14. What drug blocks intragranular uptake of NE?
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)
Reserpine
LCO - an index of lung surface area and membrane thickness - is decreased in fibrosis because of increased membrane thickness and decreased in emphysema because of increased surface area without increase in capillary recruitment; in exercise there is

15. Name the antidote - Nitrates
Methylene blue
A patent processus vaginalis
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle - delaying the closure of the pulmonic valve.
Microsporum

16. What is the MCC of death in the United States?
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Heart disease
Tertiary hypothyroidism/hypothalamic (Low TRH causes all the rest to be decreased because of decreased stimulation.)
Muscle spindles

17. What syndrome has elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased testosterone levels and 47XXY karyotype?
In bone; nearly 99% of Ca2+ is stored in the bone as hydroxyapatite.
Aspartate transcarbamylase
Klinefelter syndrome
Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy persons have them - but schizophrenics do not.

18. In a ventricular pacemaker cell - what phase of the action potential is affected by ACh?
Zanamivir and oseltamivir
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Pimozide
Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via increasing potassium conductance - taking longer to reach threshold and slowing the rate of firing.

19. What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? - Zona reticularis
Squamous cell carcinoma
Unstable (crescendo) angina
Sensory
DHEA (androgens) Remember - from the outer cortex to the inner layer - Salt - Sugar - Sex. The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.

20. What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors and is associated with HIV- positive patients?
T lymphocyte
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)
Variable ratio If it is based on time - it is an interval - and if it is based on the number of responses - it is a ratio.
Molluscum contagiosum

21. What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by presence of Hassall's corpuscles - and absence of germinal centers and B cells?
Selection bias
Masochism
Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell maturation.)
Oxygen

22. What vascular pathology is associated with HTN in the upper extremities - hypotension in the lower extremities - and a radial - femoral delay?
Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)
Substituted judgment. It is made by the person who best knows the patient - not the closest relative.
S1 nuclease
Uricosuric

23. What three cephalosporins have good penetration against Bacteroides fragilis?
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
Reverse transcriptase
Decreases
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose -1 - 6- bisphosphatase 8. Glucose -6- phosphatase

24. What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA- B27- positive young men - involves the sacroiliac joints - has no subcutaneous nodules - and has a bamboo spine appearance on radiograph?
Sleep latency
Ankylosing spondylitis
Zileuton
Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal

25. What pancreatic islet cell secretes somatostatin?
Acanthosis nigricans
Schizoid
delta - Cells; somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on alpha - and Beta - islet cells.
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)

26. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with x Sacral vertebrae?
Catatonic schizophrenia
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Voyeurism
Ependymal cells

27. What has proved to be the best way to extinguish enuresis?
Renin secretion
Permanent
Bell pad
Degenerates

28. What are the four muscles of mastication?
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
Staphylococcus aureus
Acting out
Arterioles

29. What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? - The contraction of the right atrium
wave
A positive PPD skin test
Desipramine
Inhibin - m

30. What hormone can be affected by dopamine release in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
Dihydrotestosterone
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway - dopamine release will decrease prolactin release - Which is why dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.
VLDLs
Tamoxifen

31. What are the five penicillinase - resistant penicillins?
Triazolam
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked - acetaldehyde builds up - and its presence in excess results in nausea and hypotension.

32. What is the name of the program that deals with codependency and enabling behaviors for family members of alcohol abusers?
Chlamydia
Streptococcus viridans
Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Al - Anon

33. What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of drug - induced Parkinson's disease?
Rho-immunoglobin
Neutrophils - eosinophils - and basophils
Chief cells
Amantadine

34. Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: x Vasodilation
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Liver - kidney - and GI epithelium
PGD2 - PGE2 - and PGF 2
The fasciculus cuneatus

35. What is the term for ejaculation before or immediately after vaginal penetration on a regular basis?
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Premature ejaculation
Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue pointing to the left (points at the affected side).
CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve

36. Are contraindicated in patients with SCID.
Blocking
Live vaccines
Onion skinning
Probenecid

37. What X- linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by recurrent infections - severe thrombocytopenia - and eczema?
Excess lead
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea - athetoid movements - progressive dementia - and behavioral problems.
Metastatic
Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome

38. Lack platelets.
Adult polycystic kidney disease
Calicivirus
Hexosaminidase A
Blood clots

39. What is the term for the unidirectional attraction of cells toward a chemical mediator released during inflammation?
Glycogen phosphorylase
Group A Beta- hemolytic streptococci
Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis
Chemotaxis

40. What two factors influence low oral bioavailability?
Gonads
Idiotypes
Third week
First - pass metabolism and acid lability

41. In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in hyperactive cortex with hyperkinetic - chorea - athetosis - tics - and dystonia?
The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.
Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)
HBeAb
ATP/ADP Translocase

42. What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?
9.3 L - 15% of body weight
Foramen of Winslow
Leydig cell tumor
The dose of glipizide must be decreased in hepatic dysfunction. Glyburide's dose must be decreased in renal dysfunction.

43. What is the most common one? - Form of arthritis
Hemorrhagic exudates
Osteoarthritis
Wegener granulomatosis
Type II hypersensitivity reaction

44. What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface of the midbrain?
Palms - up before palms - down maneuvers
CO
CN IV
T wave

45. What ocular muscle x Abducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
5' deiodinase
X- linked recessive
Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Ceftriaxone

46. What three PGs are potent platelet aggregators?
MGN
Nucleus pulposus
PGE 1 - PGI 2 (most potent) - and TXA 2
Aldosterone

47. Which tetracycline is used in the treatment of SIADH?
Demeclocycline
Ego
Fixed ratio (rewards set behaviors)
Mitral valve stenosis

48. What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly - ascites - and abdominal pain due to hepatic vein thrombosis?
Budd - Chiari syndrome
Chemotaxis
RES(Reticular endothelial system)
MI

49. What vitamin is an important component of rhodopsin?
Parafollicular C cells
Misoprostol
Vitamin A
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide and dorzolamide)

50. Heinz bodies
Isograft
When showing two pictures in rapid succession - you split the pictures half a second apart - resulting in the second picture masking the first (indicating poor short - term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of schizophrenic patients.
Rhombencephalon
G-6- PD deficiency