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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
Start Test
Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What paraphilia is defined as x Having sex with cadavers?
Efficacy
Necrophilia
Aminoacyl - tRNA synthetase - which uses 2 ATPs for this reaction.
P24
2. All streptococci are...
Without children (but don't think about this one for too long)
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.
catalase - negative
Massive influx of calcium
3. What hormone acts on Granulosa cells?
FSH
Lead
Osteoblasts (Remember - they modulate the function of osteoclasts.)
Increases
4. Name the DNA virus: x Partially dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion - associated polymerases; has RNA intermediate; replicates in the nucleus
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
Antimicrobial agents
LTB4
Hepadnavirus
5. What enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is inhibited by the statins?
Nystagmus and ataxia
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)
Craniopharyngioma
HMG- CoA reductase
6. During What embryonic week does the intraembryonic coelom form?
Third week
transcription
Ligamentum venosum
Type I pneumocytes
7. What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis of the Okazaki fragments - 3' exonuclease activity - and 5' exonuclease activity?
Glucose -6- phosphatase
These are the gross pathologic changes associated with Alzheimer's disease.
DNA polymerase I
Filovirus
8. What component of the trigeminal nuclei x Receives sensory input (all but pain and temperature) from the face - scalp - dura - and the oral and nasal cavities?
Type II hypersensitivity reaction
1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin
Spinal trigeminal nucleus
Global aphasia
9. What is the effect of LH on the production of adrenal androgens?
Progestins
There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the right and 8 on the left.
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen production.
Muscle spindles
10. What bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis?
G0 phase
Clostridium botulinum
Vibrio vulnificus
Central. Remember - there is a deficiency in ADH production in the central form.
11. What Brodmann area is associated with x Primary motor cortex?
Area 4
Positive
Superior and middle
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the number of functioning carriers.
12. What agent - in combination with a MAOI inhibitor - can cause hypertensive crisis?
a - and Beta- chains are on most T cells.
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation
Tyramine
Ependymoma
13. What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors can present with thymic abnormalities - red cell aplasia - and muscle weakness?
Myasthenia gravis
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
Silent
HBcAb IgM - HBV- DNA - HBeAg - HBsAg
14. What are the four reasons for hypochromic microcytic anemia with a low MCV?
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG - IgA - or IgE on its surface.
Amantadine
1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e. - porphyrin and heme synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency 4. Lead poisoning
Blastoconidia
15. What gram - positive anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the normal flora of the mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates?
IgA
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase.
Actinomyces israelii
Allopurinol
16. What Staphylococcus aureus protein inhibits phagocytosis?
Protein A
Thioridazine
Eaton - Lambert syndrome
Cestodes
17. Patients with ___________ have no Barr bodies.
Turner syndrome
Gastric cancer
Borderline
Urophilia
18. What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by presence of Hassall's corpuscles - and absence of germinal centers and B cells?
Ag - Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus.
Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell maturation.)
Osteosarcoma
Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)
19. What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into?
Lead
Concentration force and electrical force
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases - there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly - and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.
20. What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Ethambutol
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
S2 - S3 - S4
21. What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in x Pontomedullary junction?
Agglutination test
CN IX - X - and XI; sigmoid sinus
CN VI - VII - and VIII
Flumazenil
22. From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? - Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus
Adenosine deaminase
A decrease in cutaneous blood flow results from constriction of the arterioles - and decreased cutaneous blood volume results from constriction of the venous plexus.
Autism. Head - banging - rocking - and self - injurious behaviors are also common in autism.
Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
23. What primary acid - base disturbance is caused by an increase in alveolar ventilation (decreasing CO2 levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the left and decreasing both H+ and HCO3- levels?
Respiratory alkalosis (summary: low CO2 - low H+ - slightly low HCO3-)
Wernicke's encephalopathy
Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.
P1 protein
24. What muscle laterally rotates the femur to unlock the knee?
Fovea
N-5- methyl THF
Popliteus
Epinephrine
25. Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon - mesencephalon - or rhombencephalon) - Eye
Helicase (requires ATP for energy)
Proencephalon diencephalon derivative
Streptococcus agalactiae
secondary immune response
26. What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend spoken language and speaking in a word salad?
Gametocytes
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
Cilia
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22 - 39 - and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.
27. What happens to REM - REM latency - and stage 4 sleep during major depression?
Ampicillin and amoxicillin
Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver because they receive their blood supply from the left hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part of the right lobe of the liver.
Distal convoluted tubules
Increased REM sleep - decreased REM latency - and decreased stage 4 sleep - leading to early morning awakening
28. What is the most common one? - Bone disorder in the United States
Osteoporosis
Bunyavirus
mRNA
Rickets prior to fusion - osteomalacia if the deficiency occurs after epiphyseal fusion.
29. What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by x Decreased total body sodium - ECF volume - plasma volume - BP - and pH; increased potassium - renin - and AT II activity; no edema?
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30. Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: x Use of explanations to justify unacceptable behaviors.
Proencephalon
Rationalization
Fat necrosis
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen production.
31. What is the only site in the body that uses M1 receptors?
Factitious disorder
The stomach
Escherichia coli
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)
32. Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with CN III palsy?
Transtentorial (uncal)
NE
Cirrhosis and hemolytic anemia - which are risk factors for pigmented gallstones.
Tensor tympani
33. What judgment states that the decision - by rights of autonomy and privacy - belongs to the patient - but if the patient is incompetent to decide - the medical decision is based on subjective wishes?
IgA nephropathy
VLDLs
Stapes artery
Substituted judgment. It is made by the person who best knows the patient - not the closest relative.
34. What is the effect of hypoventilation on cerebral blood flow?
Bacillus anthracis
Negative
NH4+(ammonium)
Hypoventilation results in an increase in PCO2 levels and therefore an increase in blood flow.
35. How many attacks are needed over how much time before panic disorder is diagnosed?
Ventral posterolateral nucleus
NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are unable to recall.
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember - they come out of the blue.)
50% - with 50% of them having the child
36. What form of angina is characterized by x Coronary artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence with increasing frequency - duration - intensity - and decreasing activity - frequently at rest?
Parasympathetic
Turner syndrome
Unstable (crescendo) angina
IgG
37. What is an elevated - fluid - filled cavity between skin layers up to 0.5 cm?
Coombs test
Repolarization is from base to apex and from epicardium to endocardium.
Vesicle (e.g. - poison ivy)
Bainbridge reflex
38. What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project to?
Postinfectious GN
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus
Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling motility)
Linoleic acid and linolenic acid
39. What case is known as 'let nature take its course'?
It normally does not play a role in filtration but becomes important when there is an obstruction downstream.
Infant Doe. Generally - parents cannot forego lifesaving treatment - but this case states that there are exceptions to the rule.
The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it harms the fetus.
Hydrolysis
40. What drug is used to differentiate a cholinergic crisis from myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium
Obsessive - compulsive
Isoniazid treatment
Intussusception
41. The duodenal - jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?
Third week
Autograft
Ligament of Treitz
Non - Hodgkin lymphoma
42. What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? - Cortisol decreased - ACTH increased
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43. What apoprotein is required for the release of chylomicrons from the epithelial cells into the lymphatics?
apo B-48
LH
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
44. How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG assays in the blood? In urine?
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.
Medial compartment of the thigh - obturator nerve
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
45. In what form are triglycerides sent to adipose tissue from the liver?
VLDLs
Polycythemia vera (Remember - polycythemia vera is a risk factor for acute leukemias.)
Normal thyroid hormones levels in the plasma are necessary for proper secretion of GH. Hypothyroid patients have decreased GH secretions.
Acarbose
46. What are the three main components of amyloid?
In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.
Granulosa cell
Hematoxylin
Fibrillary protein - amyloid protein - and glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate mainly)
47. In What area of the brain can an excess of dopamine lead to psychotic symptoms?
Central/neurogenic diabetes insipidus; in the nephrogenic form there is sufficient ADH available - but the renal collecting ducts are impermeable to its actions.
excites the neuron
Mesocortical area
Cell - mediated immunity
48. What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH - Ca2+ - and inorganic phosphate (Pi)? - PTH decreased - Ca2+ increased - Pi increased
Large intestine. Water is passively removed from the lumen.
Negative
Marrow failure - cancer - and leukemia
Secondary hypoparathyroidism (vitamin D toxicity)
49. Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed - Auditory toxicity
Hereditary spherocytosis
Cervical neoplasia
a1- Receptors
Vancomycin
50. Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics - apo E
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
IDL
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a problem with alcohol.
1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI mucosa
Can you answer 50 questions in 15 minutes?
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