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Test your basic knowledge |
USMLE Step 1 Prep
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Study First
Subjects
:
health-sciences
,
usmle-step-1
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: x Found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissues
GLUT 4
Oligodendroglioma
Priapism
Catechol - O- methyl transferase (COMT)
2. In skeletal muscle ________ is an active event.
relaxation
T3
prognostic predictors
Ribonucleotide reductase
3. Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) x erb -1
The left is a branch of the aortic arch - while the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk.
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.
Turner syndrome
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
4. What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?
Stratum corneum (keratinized)
Small cell cancer of the lung
Chief cell adenoma (80%)
Gonococcus
5. What are the four ways to increase TPR?
1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the length of the vessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4. Decrease the number of parallel channels
When the intra - alveolar pressure equals zero - there is no airflow.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Posterior chamber
6. Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects - symptoms - and results of the lesion - Apathy - aggression - inability to learn new material - and memory problems
Limbic system
Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic bipolar). Patients are ego syntonic.
Blood clots
Dilation of efferent arteriole
7. Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?
O2 has a higher driving force but is only one - twenty- fourth as soluble as CO2. CO 2 has a very small partial pressure difference across the alveolar membrane (47-40 = 7 mmHg) - but it is extremely soluble and therefore diffuses readily across the
Rifampin
Selective erectile disorder
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
8. Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: x Always open
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)
Ungated potassium channel
Shifts it to the right
Menses
9. What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
Proencephalon
Anterior tibial artery
Permanent
10. Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
Arginine
Sheehan syndrome
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.
11. What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be characterized by Kayser - Fleischer rings - decreased ceruloplasmin levels - and increased urinary copper excretion and tissue copper levels?
Wilson disease. (Remember - patients commonly present with psychiatric manifestations and movement disorders but may be asymptomatic.)
Proencephalon
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and the lunate is the most commonly dislocated.
12. What is the most common one? - Renal cell cancer type
Clear cell
Zileuton
CN IX - X - and XII
Serum 25- hydroxy- vitamin D (25- OH- D)
13. What is the major pulmonary side effect of
GLUT 2
IgG3
Respiratory depression
Tetracyclines
14. What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
Tetracyclines
Gaucher disease
Glucose
Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight
15. What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? - Azide
2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
Cytochrome a/a3
pK (think of it as where half is base and half is acid)
N- formyl - methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8
16. What large - spore - forming - gram - positive anaerobic rod is associated with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma?
Creutzfeldt - Jakob's disease. Patients first develop vague somatic complaints and anxiety - rapidly followed by dysarthria - myoclonus - ataxia - and choreoathetosis.
Water
Clostridium tetani
gamma and delta chains
17. What is the DOC for trigeminal neuralgia?
Gubernaculum
Actually - yes. You should encourage your patient to try other forms of medicine as long as they are not contraindicated with the patient's preexisting illness. You must be able to accept the health beliefs of your patients - even if you don't agree.
Carbamazepine
Mitosis
18. What form of renal tubular reabsorption is characterized by high back leak - low affinity for substance - and absence of saturation and is surmised to be a constant percentage of a reabsorbed filtered substance?
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together
Methanol (wood alcohol)
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Gradient - time system
19. What virus is associated with body cavity large B- cell lymphomas?
The pH of CSF is 7.33 - acidotic.
HHV-8
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
M12 strains
20. Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: x The maximal volume inspired from FRC
Inspiratory capacity
Area 6
Deltoid
IDL
21. How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?
Marfan syndrome
Epidural hematoma
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2 - reducing the carrying capacity and shifting the curve to the left - making it difficult to remove the CO molecule from Hgb.
31 pairs
22. Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? - SA nodal activity
Posterior
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein - mediated transport
Mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma
H 2
23. Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only inside HBV- infected cells?
Chromosome 7
Musculocutaneous nerve
Hepatitis D
Head of the pancreas
24. What is the term for the total percentage of correct answers selected on a screening test?
Proportionate mortality rate
M- cells
Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes insipidus.
Accuracy (think of it as all the trues - because they are the ones correctly identified)
25. What hormone excess brings about abnormal glucose tolerance testing - impaired cardiac function - decreased body fat - increased body protein - prognathism - coarse facial features - and enlargements of the hands and feet?
Depolarization is from apex to base and from endocardium to epicardium.
Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X
Sideroblastic anemia
Increased secretion of GH postpuberty leading to acromegaly.
26. What is the DOC for coccidioidomycosis?
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g. - cheese - dried fish - sauerkraut - chocolate - avocados - and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
Naloxone - naltrexone
Medial collateral ligament
Fluconazole
27. What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as x Having a stimulus take over the control of the behavior (unintentionally)?
Between the renal arteries and at the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
Stimulus control
secondary immune response
IgG
28. What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? - Femoral nerve
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4 - thigh; L4 to S3 - leg)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Autograft
Hydroxyproline
29. Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: Phrenic nerve
Aldolase B deficiencies are treated by eliminating fructose from the diet.
catalase - negative
Superior and middle
Minocycline
30. What three chemical agents are associated with angiosarcomas of the liver?
Mees lines
Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex) - but with CN VII the LMN of the upper face receives bilateral input but the lower facial LMNs receive only c
Epinephrine
Arsenic - thorotrast - and vinyl chloride
31. What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with elevated cold agglutinin titers?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery
Hepatitis A (infectious)
Benign nevus (mole)
32. Increases the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the penis.
HPV infection
HBsAg as its envelope
Hairy cell leukemia
Constipation and miosis
33. What two veins form the portal vein?
Fatty acids cannot cross the blood - brain barrier; therefore - they cannot be used as an energy source.
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore - they are not used if a patient has hypertriglyceridemia.
The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.
The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.
34. What is the term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue?
Streptococcus viridans
Vaginismus; it is the female counterpart of premature ejaculation.
Vancomycin
Hyperplasia
35. Name the most common type or cause - Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Streptococcus viridans
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest acting.
36. Name the associated chromosome - Niemann - Pick disease
PCR
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
Decrease (5- HT and dopamine levels do the same)
Chromosome 11p
37. Charcot - Leyden crystals
When the pH is more acidic than the pI - it has a net positive charge - and when the pH is more basic than the pI - it has a net negative charge.
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
Type IV collagen
Early distal tubule
38. What three cells are essential for T- cell maturation?
The sandfly
Sideroblastic anemia
NH4+(ammonium)
Thymic epithelial cells - dendritic cells - and macrophages
39. What is the rate - limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis?
Wernicke's aphasia
Glycogen synthase
Roth spots
Escherichia coli
40. In What area of the brain can an excess of dopamine lead to psychotic symptoms?
Methylation of bacterial DNA
Mesocortical area
The interposed nucleus
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
41. What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?
Fluconazole
Adult T- cell leukemia
Increased erection and libido
Ependymal cells
42. What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) x Recent immigrant from India
Fibroadenoma
>10 mm
Cirrhosis and hemolytic anemia - which are risk factors for pigmented gallstones.
Intermediate part of the hemispheres
43. Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca 2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
MEN II and III syndromes
Dantrolene
Tamoxifen
Coxiella burnetii
44. What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm?
Obsessive - compulsive
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)
Huntington disease
Coronavirus
45. What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing an increase in body temperature and mediates the response to dissipate heat?
Nodular sclerosis
Physostigmine
Erythema nodosum
Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in hyperthermia.
46. What are the two actions of calcitonin?
N-5- methyl THF
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.
It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and increases bone mineralization.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
47. Name the most common type or cause - Pulmonary HTN in children
VSD
1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma
IgM
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
48. What is the triad of Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome?
FSH
Thrombocytopenia - eczema - and immunodeficiency is the triad of this X- linked recessive disorder.
Parvovirus B 19
1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
49. Name the macrophage based on its location: x Epidermal macrophages
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
Moving objects - along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs.
Langerhans cells
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
50. What molecule that is needed to trigger T cell activation is noncovalently linked to TCR?
Phenytoin
Astrocytoma
Cardiac muscle
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation
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