Immunology

Instructions:

• Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
• If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
• Match each statement with the correct term.
• Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Chediak Higashi
Hashimotos
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria


2. Antimitochondrial
C5b -9
Goodpastures
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Primary biliary cirrohosis


3. HLA- DR5
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
C3b
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ


4. Anticentromere
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
IgA
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Scleroderma CREST


5. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Chronic granulomatous disease
SCID
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell


6. Defect in B cell maturation
Poly/dermato myositis
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Drug induced lupus
Scleroderma CREST


7. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Chronic granulomatous disease
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Major shift minor drift


8. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
Stomach
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
CD40 and CD40L
RA


9. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Innate
I
SCID


10. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
IgG
Stomach
Corticomedullary junction


11. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
IgG
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Upper limb and breast


12. HLA- A3
I
Mesenchyme
Hemochromocytosis
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8


13. How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?
Bruton's agamma
2
IgM
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho


14. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation

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15. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response

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16. HLA- B8

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17. antidesmoglein
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Pemphigus vulgaris
Fab
SCID


18. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
CD40 and CD40L
Hashimotos
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate


19. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Hereditary angioedema
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA


20. Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?
IgG
Fc
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
CD14


21. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis


22. Which is the receptors for EBV?
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
IFN gamma
CD21


23. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
CD40 and CD40L
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
I


24. HLA- DR4
IgA
DiGeorge
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
RA - DM type 1


25. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
MHC I
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
MHC II 4 x 2=8
IgM and IgD


26. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
Scleroderma diffuse
IgG
CD56
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant


27. What does the Th2 response do?
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
IgM and IgD
Regulates the humoral response


28. Anti ds DNA - anti Smith
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Innate
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
SLE


29. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
Fc and Fab
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
IgG
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell


30. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Scleroderma diffuse
MHC I
Hereditary angioedema


31. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
Secondary
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes


32. What are the classic example of bacterial antigen variation and the unique mechanims
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Scleroderma diffuse
Adaptive
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein


33. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
IgE
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
RA


34. What do superantigens do?
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Fc
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome


35. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
Fc
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
IL-10
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein


36. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Mesenchyme
Hereditary angioedema


37. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Scleroderma diffuse


38. T cell dysfunction
IV
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis


39. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La

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40. HLA- B27

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41. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome


42. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
IL-2 and IFN gamma
CD14
Wegeners granulomatosis
Pemphigus vulgaris


43. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Ceilac disase
Corticomedullary junction


44. anti U1 RNP
Mixed connective tissue disease
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
DM type 1
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II


45. Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?
CD8 cells
IgG
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
C5b -9


46. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Drug induced lupus
S. aureus and S. pyogenes


47. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
IV
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells


48. What are the three APCs
Mesenchyme
SCID
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation


49. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Hereditary angioedema
Chronic granulomatous disease
Regulates the humoral response


50. How do NK cells kill?
Fab
Innate
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
CD40 and CD40L