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Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
Poly/dermato myositis
Hyper IgM
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Adaptive
2. What are the three APCs
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
MHC I
IV
IgG
3. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
IgG
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Secondary
4. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
MHC II 4 x 2=8
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
5. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
6. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
7. What inhibits Th2 cells
IL-12 def
IFN gamma
Regulates the humoral response
Chediak Higashi
8. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
III
SLE - nonspecific
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
9. What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Adaptive
IgM
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
10. p - ANCA
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Other vasculitidies
Graves' dz
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
11. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
12. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Wegeners granulomatosis
Fc
Paracortex
I
13. What does the Th2 response do?
Regulates the humoral response
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Innate
Autoimmune hepatitis
14. What do mature B lymphos express on their surface?
IgM and IgD
Corticomedullary junction
C5b -9
IL-10
15. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
IL-2 and IFN gamma
SLE
16. How do CD8 cells kill?
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Hemochromocytosis
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
17. How do NK cells kill?
CD40 and CD40L
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
III
Major shift minor drift
18. Which is the receptors for EBV?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
CD21
DM type 1
19. Antimitochondrial
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Ataxia telangectasia
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
20. anti basement membrane
IL-10
C3b
Goodpastures
Scleroderma CREST
21. Deficiency in DAF
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Scleroderma diffuse
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
22. What interferes with viruses?
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
CD14
23. c - ANCA
Wegeners granulomatosis
CD56
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Other vasculitidies
24. What do superantigens do?
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Goodpastures
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
25. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
Chronic granulomatous disease
Fc and Fab
Ataxia telangectasia
DiGeorge
26. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Corticomedullary junction
Fab
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
27. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Pemphigus vulgaris
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Bruton's agamma
Ceilac disase
28. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
CD8 cells
Chediak Higashi
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
29. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Scleroderma CREST
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Drug induced lupus
30. Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
IgG
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
31. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
IgE
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
2
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
32. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
Mesenchyme
IgA
Fab
IFN gamma
33. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
IgG
Upper limb and breast
Fab
II
34. Antihistone
IgG
IgG
Drug induced lupus
B cell localization and proliferation
35. ANA
Adaptive
Ceilac disase
C3b
SLE - nonspecific
36. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
CD40 and CD40L
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
37. HLA- DR3
DM type 1
Primary biliary cirrohosis
SLE - nonspecific
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
38. anti glutamate decarboxylase
Hashimotos
DiGeorge
DM type 1
C5b -9
39. What happens in the follicle of the lymph node
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
B cell localization and proliferation
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Autoimmune hepatitis
40. X- linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Pemphigus vulgaris
Chediak Higashi
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
41. Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate
III
Mixed connective tissue disease
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
42. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Chediak Higashi
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
43. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
MHC I
Scleroderma CREST
CD56
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
44. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
CD40 and CD40L
CD21
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
SCID
45. How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?
Secondary
2
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
46. What do you find in the medulla of the thymus?
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Hashimotos
IL-12 def
47. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Scleroderma diffuse
Ataxia telangectasia
48. What are the classic example of bacterial antigen variation and the unique mechanims
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Regulates the humoral response
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
49. Defect in B cell maturation
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
CD21
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
50. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
III
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
S. aureus and S. pyogenes