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Immunology

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Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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1. Antimitochondrial
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
IL-12
Primary biliary cirrohosis

2. Which antibodies activate the classic pathway
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate

3. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
SLE - nonspecific
IL-4 - 5 - 10

4. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
Ataxia telangectasia
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
IgG
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b

5. Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
CD8 cells
Scleroderma diffuse

6. HLA- B8

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7. antimicrosomal - antithyroglobulin
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Autoimmune hepatitis
Hashimotos
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

8. Cell surface receptors on T cells
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Hashimotos
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8

9. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
SLE
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels

10. HLA- D2

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11. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
CD40 and CD40L
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation

12. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Drug induced lupus
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Ceilac disase

13. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
RA
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

14. What are the classic example of bacterial antigen variation and the unique mechanims
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
I
RA - DM type 1

15. Which cytokine induces Th2 cell profile in CD4 cells
Il -4
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
IgE
Hemochromocytosis

16. antismooth muscle
Ceilac disase
Autoimmune hepatitis
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
IgG

17. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
IgG
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
I

18. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
IgG
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant

19. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response

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20. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
Il -4
Drug induced lupus
Stomach
Chronic granulomatous disease

21. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation

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22. How are NK cells stimulated?
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Stomach

23. HLA- DR5
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Autoimmune hepatitis

24. Anticentromere
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Scleroderma CREST
Graves' dz
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8

25. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Paracortex
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7

26. How do NK cells kill?
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

27. What is the arthus rxn?
RA
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
IFN gamma
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein

28. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
I
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

29. Defectin in isotype switching
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
IgG
CD8 cells
Fc and Fab

30. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns

31. HLA- DR3
Hashimotos
DM type 1
Ceilac disase
IgM and IgD

32. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
IL-10
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Other vasculitidies

33. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
Ceilac disase
Hereditary angioedema
IgE
Neisseria bacteremia

34. What interferes with viruses?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Goodpastures
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
MHC I

35. Which complement protein opsonizes bacteria?
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
C3b
IgG
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

36. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
III
CD40 and CD40L
Autoimmune hepatitis
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement

37. What is the main function of IgA
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Sjorgen's syndrome
Chronic granulomatous disease
IgG

38. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Poly/dermato myositis

39. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
IgA
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
IL-4 - 5 - 10

40. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
C5b -9
I
Ataxia telangectasia
MHC I

41. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
Secondary
IgE
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Regulates the humoral response

42. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Fc
C3b

43. What do superantigens do?
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
II
DiGeorge
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II

44. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
IL-12
Autoimmune hepatitis
MHC I

45. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
III
Scleroderma diffuse
Ataxia telangectasia
B cell localization and proliferation

46. Which is the receptors for EBV?
IgG
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
IL-10
CD21

47. c - ANCA
Drug induced lupus
Wegeners granulomatosis
CD8 cells
IgM

48. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
IgM and IgD
III
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

49. Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate
Pemphigus vulgaris
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
III
Selective Ig def - IgA most common

50. Deficiency in DAF
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Scleroderma diffuse
IL-10
DM type 1

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