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Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
Il -4
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Fab
2. HLA- DR4
Hashimotos
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Chediak Higashi
RA - DM type 1
3. What is the difference in antigenic variation in viruses
Major shift minor drift
MHC I
2
SCID
4. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
Stomach
Right arm and right half of head
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Regulates the humoral response
5. Antimitochondrial
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Primary biliary cirrohosis
DM type 1
6. anti - Jo 1
DM type 1
Mixed connective tissue disease
CD40 and CD40L
Poly/dermato myositis
7. Which is the receptors for EBV?
IV
CD21
Mixed connective tissue disease
2
8. What is the arthus rxn?
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Il -4
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Scleroderma CREST
9. HLA- D2
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10. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
MHC I
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Poly/dermato myositis
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
11. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Bruton's agamma
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Hyper IgM
12. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
IgG
13. Deficiency in DAF
Regulates the humoral response
Il -4
IFN gamma
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
14. anti glutamate decarboxylase
DM type 1
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Wegeners granulomatosis
Chronic granulomatous disease
15. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Paracortex
16. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
DM type 1
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
DM type 1
17. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
Goodpastures
III
IV
IL-4 - 5 - 10
18. antimicrosomal - antithyroglobulin
CD56
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Hashimotos
MHC I
19. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
IgG
Scleroderma CREST
Ataxia telangectasia
RA
20. Cell surface receptors on T cells
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
IL-10
Corticomedullary junction
IL-4 - 5 - 10
21. HLA- B8
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22. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
IV
III
SLE
Chronic granulomatous disease
23. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
DM type 1
MHC I
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Adaptive
24. Which cytokine induces Th2 cell profile in CD4 cells
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Il -4
DiGeorge
25. Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
III
IL-10
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
26. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
Regulates the humoral response
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
IgE
Major shift minor drift
27. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
CD40 and CD40L
III
DiGeorge
Fc and Fab
28. antidesmoglein
IgA
Ceilac disase
Pemphigus vulgaris
Bruton's agamma
29. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
CD14
30. Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate
III
IL-2 and IFN gamma
IL-12 def
Drug induced lupus
31. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
IgA
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Regulates the humoral response
IgM
32. What are the three APCs
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Major shift minor drift
IgM
DM type 1
33. Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Neisseria bacteremia
34. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
Hemochromocytosis
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
IgG
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
35. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
36. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
Primary biliary cirrohosis
DiGeorge
Scleroderma diffuse
Scleroderma CREST
37. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Upper limb and breast
38. Cell surface receptors on B cels
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
39. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Ataxia telangectasia
Neisseria bacteremia
40. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
CD21
Adaptive
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
41. What is the main function of IgA
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
III
Goodpastures
Hemochromocytosis
42. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
CD56
Scleroderma CREST
43. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
Scleroderma CREST
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Corticomedullary junction
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
44. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
CD56
Goodpastures
45. anti basement membrane
III
Goodpastures
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
46. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
Chronic granulomatous disease
IL-12
III
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
47. Antihistone
CD8 cells
Right arm and right half of head
IFN gamma
Drug induced lupus
48. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
CD40 and CD40L
Pemphigus vulgaris
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
49. What does the Th2 response do?
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
2
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Regulates the humoral response
50. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
SCID
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head