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Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
RA - DM type 1
Paracortex
IFN gamma
2. What is the main function of IgA
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Other vasculitidies
2
3. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
Scleroderma CREST
Mixed connective tissue disease
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
4. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Paracortex
I
5. Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Innate
DM type 1
Autoimmune hepatitis
6. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La
7. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Sjorgen's syndrome
SCID
Graves' dz
8. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
MHC I
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Chediak Higashi
Scleroderma diffuse
9. anti U1 RNP
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Sjorgen's syndrome
Mixed connective tissue disease
II
10. c - ANCA
CD40 and CD40L
Poly/dermato myositis
Wegeners granulomatosis
RA
11. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
IgG
Fc and Fab
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
12. Cell surface receptors on T cells
C5b -9
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Primary biliary cirrohosis
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
13. What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Hyper IgM
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
14. Cell surface receptors on B cels
DM type 1
CD8 cells
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
15. Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
III
Scleroderma diffuse
Fc
16. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
Graves' dz
IgM
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Hyper IgM
17. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
Wegeners granulomatosis
IgA
IgG
Secondary
18. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
Secondary
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
MHC I
19. decreased Th1 response
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Neisseria bacteremia
IL-12 def
20. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
Fc
Neisseria bacteremia
Bruton's agamma
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
21. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
I
II
IL-10
22. anti glutamate decarboxylase
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
III
DM type 1
Hemochromocytosis
23. Anti ds DNA - anti Smith
Poly/dermato myositis
SLE - nonspecific
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
SLE
24. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
Neisseria bacteremia
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
IL-10
Innate
25. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
C3b
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
26. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
Ceilac disase
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
IL-12 def
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
27. Which is the receptors for EBV?
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Wegeners granulomatosis
Hemochromocytosis
CD21
28. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
SCID
Fc
IL-12 def
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
29. How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
2
III
Other vasculitidies
30. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response
31. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
IgA
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
C5b -9
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
32. Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Innate
33. antismooth muscle
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Autoimmune hepatitis
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
IFN gamma
34. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Graves' dz
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
CD40 and CD40L
35. Antihistone
Hemochromocytosis
Drug induced lupus
CD40 and CD40L
Fab
36. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
IL-4 - 5 - 10
IgE
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Ceilac disase
37. Which complement protein opsonizes bacteria?
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
C3b
Right arm and right half of head
Regulates the humoral response
38. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
RA - DM type 1
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Hereditary angioedema
39. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Hyper IgM
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Mesenchyme
40. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Mesenchyme
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Corticomedullary junction
41. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Goodpastures
Secondary
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Ceilac disase
42. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
III
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
IgG
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
43. HLA- A3
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Hemochromocytosis
Graves' dz
II
44. What are the three APCs
Scleroderma CREST
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
III
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
45. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
I
DM type 1
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Right arm and right half of head
46. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
C5b -9
CD56
47. Defect in B cell maturation
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Drug induced lupus
IgG
48. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Ataxia telangectasia
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
CD56
49. Which antibodies activate the classic pathway
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
50. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
CD21
IV
Primary biliary cirrohosis
II