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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Corticomedullary junction
SLE
Fc

2. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Primary biliary cirrohosis

3. Deficiency in DAF
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C

4. Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
CD21
Chediak Higashi
Innate

5. What does the Th2 response do?
II
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Regulates the humoral response
IFN gamma

6. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Sjorgen's syndrome
IL-12
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Paracortex

7. HLA- DR5
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Hemochromocytosis
I
Right arm and right half of head

8. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
B cell localization and proliferation

9. anti - Jo 1
Pemphigus vulgaris
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Poly/dermato myositis

10. anti basement membrane
DM type 1
Goodpastures
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
IgM

11. How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?
I
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
2
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate

12. Antimitochondrial
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Bruton's agamma
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
I

13. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
DiGeorge
III
Fc and Fab
Scleroderma CREST

14. antismooth muscle
Corticomedullary junction
Innate
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Autoimmune hepatitis

15. What are the three APCs
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Regulates the humoral response

16. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
B cell localization and proliferation
III
Adaptive
Pemphigus vulgaris

17. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
Pemphigus vulgaris
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b

18. What happens in the follicle of the lymph node
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
B cell localization and proliferation
IgG

19. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
Il -4
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Superficial inguinal pectinate line

20. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Mixed connective tissue disease
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
MHC I

21. Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?
DM type 1
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
CD8 cells
S. aureus and S. pyogenes

22. How do CD8 cells kill?
Il -4
RA
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha

23. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
Hashimotos
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
CD14
Other vasculitidies

24. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
Chronic granulomatous disease
2
Fab
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis

25. How do NK cells kill?
DM type 1
Hereditary angioedema
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
IgG

26. HLA- DR4
RA - DM type 1
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
CD14
Paracortex

27. Anti - IgG (RF)
RA
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Scleroderma diffuse
Major shift minor drift

28. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
Scleroderma diffuse
Drug induced lupus
Autoimmune hepatitis
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles

29. thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?
IV
Goodpastures
Right arm and right half of head
III

30. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
II
CD14
III
Wegeners granulomatosis

31. HLA- D2

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32. What is the main function of IgA
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
B cell localization and proliferation
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein

33. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
Neisseria bacteremia
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Ataxia telangectasia

34. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Major shift minor drift
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein

35. Which is the receptors for EBV?
Upper limb and breast
IgG
CD21
RA - DM type 1

36. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
IgG
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
SLE - nonspecific
Goodpastures

37. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La

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38. What are the classic example of bacterial antigen variation and the unique mechanims
IgM
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha

39. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
Neisseria bacteremia
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
DiGeorge
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome

40. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
Chronic granulomatous disease
DM type 1
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Fc

41. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

42. Defect in B cell maturation
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Autoimmune hepatitis
DM type 1
IgE

43. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
Secondary
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Fc and Fab

44. Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation
IgG
Fc and Fab
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Il -4

45. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
III
C3b
Secondary

46. Antihistone
DM type 1
Drug induced lupus
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
MHC II 4 x 2=8

47. HLA- B8

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48. What do you find in the medulla of the thymus?
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Secondary
IgM and IgD

49. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Chediak Higashi
Pemphigus vulgaris
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

50. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
II
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7