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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What does the thoracic duct drain?
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
SCID
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)

2. What does the Th2 response do?
Hyper IgM
Regulates the humoral response
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate

3. HLA- B8

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4. How are NK cells stimulated?
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell

5. Deficiency in DAF
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Goodpastures
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation

6. anti basement membrane
Pemphigus vulgaris
Goodpastures
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

7. What happens in the follicle of the lymph node
Regulates the humoral response
CD14
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
B cell localization and proliferation

8. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Chediak Higashi
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7

9. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
RA - DM type 1
Pemphigus vulgaris
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis

10. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head

11. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles

12. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
III
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM

13. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
IgM and IgD
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
IgG

14. What do you find in the medulla of the thymus?
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
RA
Pemphigus vulgaris

15. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Paracortex
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
SLE

16. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
Stomach
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Adaptive
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell

17. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
Primary biliary cirrohosis
C5b -9
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
IL-2 and IFN gamma

18. Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate
III
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
IL-12 def
Bruton's agamma

19. HLA- DR4
RA - DM type 1
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
III
Hemochromocytosis

20. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
III
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Ataxia telangectasia
II

21. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
DM type 1
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

22. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Autoimmune hepatitis
Sjorgen's syndrome

23. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
Hemochromocytosis
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
IgG
IgM

24. HLA- DR5
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Major shift minor drift
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
CD14

25. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
Mesenchyme
DM type 1
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA

26. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
IFN gamma

27. Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?
Innate
I
IL-12
Chediak Higashi

28. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
CD14

29. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
IgM
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
DiGeorge
Graves' dz

30. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
CD21

31. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
MHC I
Goodpastures
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin

32. HLA- B27

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33. What is the arthus rxn?
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM

34. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
CD14
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Scleroderma diffuse

35. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
Secondary
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Hyper IgM
Primary biliary cirrohosis

36. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
DiGeorge
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
II
IV

37. c - ANCA
MHC I
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Hyper IgM
Wegeners granulomatosis

38. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
IgG
Major shift minor drift
Hereditary angioedema
Fab

39. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Ataxia telangectasia
Hyper IgM
Wegeners granulomatosis

40. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Graves' dz
IL-12
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Il -4

41. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
Hereditary angioedema
IgG
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
SCID

42. thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Wegeners granulomatosis
Right arm and right half of head
CD56

43. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
B cell localization and proliferation
Adaptive

44. anti U1 RNP
Mixed connective tissue disease
Upper limb and breast
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA

45. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
C5b -9
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Scleroderma diffuse
Poly/dermato myositis

46. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Scleroderma diffuse
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Hashimotos

47. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
III
Hyper IgM
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Adaptive

48. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response

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49. HLA- DR7
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho

50. HLA- D2

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