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Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Which is the receptors for EBV?
CD21
IL-12
Adaptive
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
2. HLA- DR4
Ceilac disase
Hemochromocytosis
RA - DM type 1
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
3. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
I
B cell localization and proliferation
4. What do you find in the medulla of the thymus?
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
DM type 1
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
5. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
Scleroderma CREST
Fc and Fab
Fc
2
6. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Scleroderma CREST
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Paracortex
7. How do CD8 cells kill?
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
I
8. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
II
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
I
IgM and IgD
9. Anticentromere
IgG
Scleroderma CREST
MHC I
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
10. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
IL-4 - 5 - 10
SLE - nonspecific
Mesenchyme
IL-2 and IFN gamma
11. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
III
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Hemochromocytosis
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
12. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
SCID
Corticomedullary junction
Neisseria bacteremia
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
13. ANA
Innate
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
SLE - nonspecific
MHC I
14. What are the classic example of bacterial antigen variation and the unique mechanims
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
15. Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?
CD8 cells
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Secondary
16. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
IgM
17. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
18. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
SLE - nonspecific
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Chronic granulomatous disease
Right arm and right half of head
19. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
Adaptive
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
IgM
20. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La
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21. HLA- B8
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22. X- linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
II
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
23. Cell surface receptors on T cells
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Bruton's agamma
SLE - nonspecific
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
24. How do NK cells kill?
Hyper IgM
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Ataxia telangectasia
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
25. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
CD40 and CD40L
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Secondary
26. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
Right arm and right half of head
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Scleroderma diffuse
27. Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Poly/dermato myositis
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
III
28. HLA- D2
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29. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
IgG
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Pemphigus vulgaris
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
30. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
IL-4 - 5 - 10
IgA
Goodpastures
31. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Mesenchyme
IL-12
Stomach
32. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Chediak Higashi
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
33. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
C3b
CD14
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
MHC II 4 x 2=8
34. How are NK cells stimulated?
IFN gamma
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Neisseria bacteremia
35. anti U1 RNP
Pemphigus vulgaris
Mixed connective tissue disease
RA
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
36. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
IL-10
Goodpastures
DM type 1
Stomach
37. c - ANCA
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Wegeners granulomatosis
II
Major shift minor drift
38. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
CD56
Stomach
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
39. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response
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40. p - ANCA
Adaptive
Other vasculitidies
IFN gamma
Wegeners granulomatosis
41. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
MHC I
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Hereditary angioedema
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
42. What interferes with viruses?
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
C5b -9
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
43. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
DM type 1
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Corticomedullary junction
Fc and Fab
44. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Goodpastures
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Wegeners granulomatosis
Upper limb and breast
45. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
IgM
Hyper IgM
46. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
Graves' dz
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
47. anti glutamate decarboxylase
IgA
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
DM type 1
48. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
C3b
Chronic granulomatous disease
I
SLE
49. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Ataxia telangectasia
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Ceilac disase
CD40 and CD40L
50. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Primary biliary cirrohosis
III
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
SCID