Test your basic knowledge |

Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Defectin in isotype switching
IgM and IgD
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
SCID

2. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Hyper IgM
Right arm and right half of head
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns

3. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

4. p - ANCA
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
DM type 1
Other vasculitidies

5. What happens in the follicle of the lymph node
Ataxia telangectasia
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
B cell localization and proliferation

6. Antihistone
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
IgA
Drug induced lupus

7. HLA- D2

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

8. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
Graves' dz
Bruton's agamma
Fc
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars

9. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
Poly/dermato myositis
Neisseria bacteremia
Chronic granulomatous disease
Superficial inguinal pectinate line

10. What inhibits Th2 cells
C3b
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
IFN gamma
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's

11. Anticentromere
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Autoimmune hepatitis
Scleroderma CREST
IgE

12. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
DiGeorge
Pemphigus vulgaris
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome

13. Which is the receptors for EBV?
CD56
Wegeners granulomatosis
IgM
CD21

14. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
IgA
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Scleroderma diffuse

15. HLA- B27

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

16. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Other vasculitidies
Mesenchyme

17. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
Chediak Higashi
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
RA - DM type 1
IL-12

18. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
Chronic granulomatous disease
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Major shift minor drift

19. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
2
DiGeorge
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28

20. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Ataxia telangectasia
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
DM type 1

21. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
C5b -9
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

22. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
II
Other vasculitidies
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
SLE

23. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
Mixed connective tissue disease
Chronic granulomatous disease
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
CD40 and CD40L

24. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Scleroderma CREST
Hashimotos
Hyper IgM

25. anti glutamate decarboxylase
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Neisseria bacteremia
DM type 1

26. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Fc
III
CD40 and CD40L
Ceilac disase

27. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
CD40 and CD40L
Innate
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Autoimmune hepatitis

28. HLA- DR7
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
RA - DM type 1
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM

29. What is the difference in antigenic variation in viruses
Major shift minor drift
Fab
IgE
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis

30. What is the role of CD4 cels
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
IgG

31. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
Neisseria bacteremia
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
II

32. antismooth muscle
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Autoimmune hepatitis
I

33. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
IgG
Graves' dz
Adaptive

34. How do CD8 cells kill?
CD14
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Graves' dz

35. Deficiency in DAF
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
CD14
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Drug induced lupus

36. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
RA - DM type 1
IgA
Regulates the humoral response
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7

37. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
CD14
Other vasculitidies

38. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
IL-10
IgE
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
CD14

39. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Poly/dermato myositis
Fc and Fab
Regulates the humoral response

40. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
IV
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
CD14

41. X- linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells
Hereditary angioedema
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
SLE

42. c - ANCA
Wegeners granulomatosis
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
SLE
Mixed connective tissue disease

43. thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?
Right arm and right half of head
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Other vasculitidies

44. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Ceilac disase

45. anti U1 RNP
C3b
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Mixed connective tissue disease
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels

46. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Stomach
Primary biliary cirrohosis

47. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
Hereditary angioedema
MHC II 4 x 2=8
SLE
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C

48. antidesmoglein
III
CD21
Pemphigus vulgaris
IV

49. What do mature B lymphos express on their surface?
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Mesenchyme
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
IgM and IgD

50. Which complement protein opsonizes bacteria?
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
C3b
Secondary
Wegeners granulomatosis