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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
2
C5b -9
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
DiGeorge

2. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Bruton's agamma
Fc and Fab
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Ceilac disase

3. What is the clinical picture for serum sickness?
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Upper limb and breast
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Neisseria bacteremia

4. What is the difference in antigenic variation in viruses
Adaptive
Major shift minor drift
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Poly/dermato myositis

5. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Adaptive
IgE
I

6. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Hyper IgM
Il -4
Pemphigus vulgaris
Bruton's agamma

7. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Corticomedullary junction
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)

8. What do mature B lymphos express on their surface?
IgM and IgD
Neisseria bacteremia
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles

9. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Sjorgen's syndrome
Stomach
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

10. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
CD40 and CD40L
Fc
Fc and Fab
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha

11. What is the main function of IgA
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
IgG
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

12. What do superantigens do?
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b

13. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Hashimotos
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
IgG

14. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Mesenchyme
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
IL-2 and IFN gamma

15. HLA- B8

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16. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
II
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
IgM
III

17. What is the role of CD4 cels
Mixed connective tissue disease
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis

18. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns

19. Cell surface receptors on B cels
Adaptive
DM type 1
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Drug induced lupus

20. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
SLE - nonspecific
Hereditary angioedema
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha

21. Defect in B cell maturation
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Innate
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
IgM and IgD

22. X- linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells
Stomach
RA - DM type 1
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Wegeners granulomatosis

23. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
III
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
C3b
CD14

24. antidesmoglein
Corticomedullary junction
RA - DM type 1
Pemphigus vulgaris
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b

25. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
Upper limb and breast
C5b -9
IV
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7

26. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
B cell localization and proliferation
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

27. antismooth muscle
Secondary
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
C3b
Autoimmune hepatitis

28. anti - Jo 1
Upper limb and breast
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Poly/dermato myositis
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells

29. anti glutamate decarboxylase
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
SCID
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
DM type 1

30. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
DM type 1
Fab

31. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b

32. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
Pemphigus vulgaris
C3b
IgE
IgM

33. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Corticomedullary junction
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
CD21

34. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Hereditary angioedema
Graves' dz
Chediak Higashi

35. Which is the receptors for EBV?
Secondary
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
CD21
Regulates the humoral response

36. Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?
IgG
Major shift minor drift
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Ataxia telangectasia

37. Defectin in isotype switching
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
IFN gamma
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
2

38. anti U1 RNP
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
CD8 cells
Mixed connective tissue disease

39. Anti - IgG (RF)
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
RA
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
S. aureus and S. pyogenes

40. How are NK cells stimulated?
II
IgA
Hashimotos
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha

41. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation

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42. T cell dysfunction
Fc and Fab
IgE
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis

43. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
B cell localization and proliferation
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Upper limb and breast

44. HLA- A3
Hemochromocytosis
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
DiGeorge

45. Which cytokine induces Th2 cell profile in CD4 cells
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Il -4
Fab

46. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
Chediak Higashi
Mesenchyme
III
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis

47. What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction
Autoimmune hepatitis
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
IL-12

48. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
DiGeorge
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
IV
Bruton's agamma

49. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La

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50. Which antibodies activate the classic pathway
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
SCID
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
CD21