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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Scleroderma CREST
Hyper IgM
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho

2. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
CD14

3. Which antibodies activate the classic pathway
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein

4. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
C3b
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Mesenchyme

5. HLA- B8

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6. antismooth muscle
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Poly/dermato myositis
Autoimmune hepatitis
CD14

7. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
Stomach
Major shift minor drift
IL-12
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA

8. HLA- DR4
IL-10
C3b
RA - DM type 1
Fab

9. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
Goodpastures
IL-10
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein

10. What does the thoracic duct drain?
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Stomach
Bruton's agamma
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

11. What interferes with viruses?
DM type 1
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Fab

12. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Hemochromocytosis
CD40 and CD40L
Chronic granulomatous disease

13. antidesmoglein
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Pemphigus vulgaris
II
Scleroderma CREST

14. c - ANCA
Wegeners granulomatosis
Major shift minor drift
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Chediak Higashi

15. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
IV
Il -4
IgM
II

16. HLA- DR3
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
IgG
IgM
DM type 1

17. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Primary biliary cirrohosis
IgE
DiGeorge

18. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
C3b
Scleroderma CREST
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
SLE

19. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
IFN gamma
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
III
Fc

20. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
IFN gamma
2
Paracortex
Adaptive

21. What happens in the follicle of the lymph node
CD40 and CD40L
Fc and Fab
Upper limb and breast
B cell localization and proliferation

22. Deficiency in DAF
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
IgA
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate

23. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
CD56

24. anti basement membrane
Scleroderma diffuse
Goodpastures
DM type 1
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

25. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Chronic granulomatous disease
C5b -9
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)

26. What inhibits Th2 cells
IFN gamma
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
RA
IL-4 - 5 - 10

27. Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
IgG
CD8 cells

28. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Sjorgen's syndrome
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

29. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
SLE
IgG
IgM and IgD

30. What are the classic example of bacterial antigen variation and the unique mechanims
DM type 1
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b

31. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
IgG
Chediak Higashi
S. aureus and S. pyogenes

32. HLA- D2

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33. anti glutamate decarboxylase
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
DM type 1
Mesenchyme
CD8 cells

34. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
IgM and IgD
Hashimotos
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome

35. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Neisseria bacteremia
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Pemphigus vulgaris
IgA

36. Which cytokine induces Th2 cell profile in CD4 cells
IgM
Il -4
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin

37. X- linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Ceilac disase
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM

38. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
IV
IgM
CD40 and CD40L
IL-10

39. How do NK cells kill?
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Graves' dz
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells

40. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Mesenchyme
Il -4
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
IL-12 def

41. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
CD56
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Stomach

42. ANA
III
SLE - nonspecific
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
IgG

43. What is the difference in antigenic variation in viruses
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Innate
Major shift minor drift

44. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Regulates the humoral response
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
IL-10

45. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
CD21
Chronic granulomatous disease
Major shift minor drift
Fab

46. Anti - IgG (RF)
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
RA
CD14

47. thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?
Right arm and right half of head
Corticomedullary junction
Graves' dz
Mixed connective tissue disease

48. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
IL-12 def
CD8 cells
Fab
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell

49. How do CD8 cells kill?
RA
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin

50. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response

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