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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Deficiency in DAF
Neisseria bacteremia
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
SCID
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin

2. What does the thoracic duct drain?
Paracortex
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head

3. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
IL-10
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
C3b
IgM

4. Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate
III
Bruton's agamma
IgG
CD21

5. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
IgG
II
CD56
MHC II 4 x 2=8

6. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
IL-12
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
MHC II 4 x 2=8

7. HLA- B27

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8. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
Ataxia telangectasia
Neisseria bacteremia
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Major shift minor drift

9. What do you find in the medulla of the thymus?
Stomach
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
IgA
CD14

10. HLA- DR5
Scleroderma CREST
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Il -4
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis

11. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
CD56
Goodpastures
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant

12. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
Scleroderma CREST
CD8 cells
DiGeorge
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

13. anti - Jo 1
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Poly/dermato myositis
IgM
Wegeners granulomatosis

14. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
IV
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
CD40 and CD40L

15. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
Right arm and right half of head
Fc
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Hemochromocytosis

16. Anticentromere
IgA
SLE
Scleroderma CREST
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns

17. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
Chronic granulomatous disease
C5b -9
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
II

18. Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation
DM type 1
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8

19. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8

20. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Scleroderma diffuse
IL-2 and IFN gamma
III

21. Defect in CD40L on helper T
IgG
IL-2 and IFN gamma
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Hyper IgM

22. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
I
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
DM type 1
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin

23. HLA- DR4
Right arm and right half of head
RA - DM type 1
2
Scleroderma diffuse

24. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Stomach
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's

25. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
DiGeorge
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Mesenchyme
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

26. antidesmoglein
II
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Pemphigus vulgaris

27. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation

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28. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C

29. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
MHC I
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

30. decreased Th1 response
IL-12 def
Major shift minor drift
Fc and Fab
Regulates the humoral response

31. What inhibits Th2 cells
Hashimotos
Wegeners granulomatosis
IFN gamma
Fab

32. What is the main function of IgA
SLE - nonspecific
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
IgG
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

33. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
MHC I
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Superficial inguinal pectinate line

34. Defectin in isotype switching
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
CD56
IFN gamma
MHC II 4 x 2=8

35. T cell dysfunction
Corticomedullary junction
Innate
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles

36. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Mesenchyme
Other vasculitidies
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha

37. HLA- DR3
CD14
IgM and IgD
DM type 1
RA - DM type 1

38. c - ANCA
Wegeners granulomatosis
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
I
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant

39. Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?
CD8 cells
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Hashimotos
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome

40. How do NK cells kill?
CD21
C3b
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
CD8 cells

41. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
Fc and Fab
IgG
MHC I
Chediak Higashi

42. What does the Th2 response do?
Regulates the humoral response
MHC I
CD21
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

43. What is the clinical picture for serum sickness?
SCID
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
IgG

44. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
RA - DM type 1
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Hemochromocytosis
Upper limb and breast

45. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
Mesenchyme
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

46. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
Fc
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Hereditary angioedema
Right arm and right half of head

47. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
CD14
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein

48. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La

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49. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
IL-2 and IFN gamma
CD56

50. anti U1 RNP
Mesenchyme
IgM
Right arm and right half of head
Mixed connective tissue disease