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Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
CD56
Goodpastures
DiGeorge
Il -4
2. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
IgA
Ceilac disase
3. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Hereditary angioedema
4. What does the thoracic duct drain?
CD40 and CD40L
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Mesenchyme
III
5. Defect in CD40L on helper T
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
Hyper IgM
IFN gamma
Autoimmune hepatitis
6. HLA- B27
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7. Anticentromere
Scleroderma CREST
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Ceilac disase
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
8. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
IgG
CD40 and CD40L
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
9. ANA
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Fc and Fab
SLE - nonspecific
Secondary
10. HLA- DR5
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
IgA
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
11. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
Scleroderma diffuse
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
12. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Mesenchyme
Scleroderma CREST
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
13. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Scleroderma diffuse
Regulates the humoral response
14. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
Innate
CD21
SCID
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
15. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
IL-12 def
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
CD56
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
16. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation
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17. Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?
SLE - nonspecific
Chediak Higashi
IgG
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
18. What do superantigens do?
II
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
DM type 1
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
19. Antimitochondrial
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
SLE - nonspecific
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
20. decreased Th1 response
IL-12 def
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Graves' dz
I
21. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
IgM
Ataxia telangectasia
Other vasculitidies
Hyper IgM
22. Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
IgG
2
III
23. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Upper limb and breast
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Paracortex
Ataxia telangectasia
24. What is the main function of IgA
IgG
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
MHC I
25. What does the Th2 response do?
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Regulates the humoral response
CD21
Fc and Fab
26. What is the role of CD4 cels
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Fc
27. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
CD14
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
28. antimicrosomal - antithyroglobulin
IgG
Fc
Fc and Fab
Hashimotos
29. What are the classic example of bacterial antigen variation and the unique mechanims
SCID
Innate
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Bruton's agamma
30. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
III
DM type 1
Secondary
31. c - ANCA
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Wegeners granulomatosis
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
CD56
32. Antihistone
Drug induced lupus
Hemochromocytosis
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
33. which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?
Neisseria bacteremia
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Stomach
34. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
Pemphigus vulgaris
Scleroderma diffuse
Hyper IgM
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
35. HLA- DR3
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
DM type 1
36. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
C5b -9
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
III
IL-4 - 5 - 10
37. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
MHC II 4 x 2=8
IL-12
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Hyper IgM
38. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
RA - DM type 1
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
39. HLA- A3
Secondary
Scleroderma CREST
Hemochromocytosis
MHC II 4 x 2=8
40. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
RA - DM type 1
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
41. Cell surface receptors on B cels
B cell localization and proliferation
IgM
Hyper IgM
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
42. Anti ds DNA - anti Smith
Secondary
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
SLE
43. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
I
DM type 1
Fab
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
44. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
DiGeorge
Bruton's agamma
Hashimotos
45. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
III
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Corticomedullary junction
Goodpastures
46. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Bruton's agamma
CD14
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
47. anti U1 RNP
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Mixed connective tissue disease
48. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Mixed connective tissue disease
49. HLA- B8
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50. Anti - IgG (RF)
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Major shift minor drift
RA