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Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. decreased Th1 response
IL-12 def
Il -4
Fc
RA - DM type 1
2. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
IgE
IgA
Il -4
3. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
III
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
4. How do CD8 cells kill?
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
2
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
5. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Hemochromocytosis
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
6. Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
IgG
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
7. Which is the receptors for EBV?
Adaptive
Wegeners granulomatosis
CD21
Autoimmune hepatitis
8. Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
IV
Other vasculitidies
9. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Paracortex
Scleroderma CREST
Mesenchyme
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
10. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
Fab
Wegeners granulomatosis
II
CD14
11. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
IL-12 def
12. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Right arm and right half of head
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
13. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Other vasculitidies
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
14. HLA- DR4
RA - DM type 1
Graves' dz
Poly/dermato myositis
Bruton's agamma
15. Anti - IgG (RF)
IgM and IgD
Poly/dermato myositis
RA
RA - DM type 1
16. anti basement membrane
Goodpastures
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Adaptive
Hyper IgM
17. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Paracortex
18. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation
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19. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
IV
Hyper IgM
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
20. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
IgE
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
21. p - ANCA
Other vasculitidies
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
I
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
22. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
IgM and IgD
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
23. HLA- B27
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24. HLA- A3
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Hemochromocytosis
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
25. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
II
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Scleroderma CREST
26. anti glutamate decarboxylase
Innate
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
DM type 1
Graves' dz
27. HLA- DR7
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
CD40 and CD40L
Sjorgen's syndrome
Chediak Higashi
28. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
29. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
IL-2 and IFN gamma
30. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
RA - DM type 1
MHC I
CD56
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
31. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Ataxia telangectasia
SLE
32. What interferes with viruses?
III
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
III
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
33. What is the role of CD4 cels
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Stomach
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
34. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
IgG
Hereditary angioedema
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Paracortex
35. HLA- DR3
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
DM type 1
III
36. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Il -4
37. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Chediak Higashi
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
38. Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Innate
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
39. Cell surface receptors on T cells
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
CD21
IgG
40. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Ataxia telangectasia
Scleroderma diffuse
IgE
41. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
IV
Chediak Higashi
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
42. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Corticomedullary junction
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
43. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
Regulates the humoral response
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
44. Anticentromere
Scleroderma CREST
Paracortex
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
45. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
II
Major shift minor drift
46. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Fab
47. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
Fc and Fab
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
48. Defectin in isotype switching
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
IgG
CD40 and CD40L
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
49. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Drug induced lupus
Ataxia telangectasia
Corticomedullary junction
50. thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?
Right arm and right half of head
Bruton's agamma
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Hemochromocytosis