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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Adaptive
DiGeorge
IgG

2. Defect in B cell maturation
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Autoimmune hepatitis
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Graves' dz

3. HLA- DR3
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
I
SCID
DM type 1

4. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Mixed connective tissue disease
CD14
IV

5. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
Drug induced lupus
Right arm and right half of head
Chediak Higashi
IFN gamma

6. X- linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells
I
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
CD56
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM

7. Which is the receptors for EBV?
CD21
Fc
Major shift minor drift
IL-4 - 5 - 10

8. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Scleroderma diffuse
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
IV

9. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
Stomach
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28

10. anti - Jo 1
Poly/dermato myositis
Il -4
Fc
III

11. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
Corticomedullary junction
Upper limb and breast
SCID
B cell localization and proliferation

12. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
Mesenchyme
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
I

13. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
CD56
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Secondary

14. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
Chediak Higashi
IL-10
IgG
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)

15. Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?
CD8 cells
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
IL-4 - 5 - 10

16. What do superantigens do?
IgG
Wegeners granulomatosis
SCID
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II

17. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
IFN gamma
Goodpastures
Secondary
MHC I

18. HLA- DR4
RA - DM type 1
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Scleroderma CREST

19. HLA- B8

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20. Cell surface receptors on T cells
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
MHC II 4 x 2=8
IL-12 def
Fab

21. What is the clinical picture for serum sickness?
IL-12 def
Corticomedullary junction
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant

22. How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?
CD21
2
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Pemphigus vulgaris

23. Deficiency in DAF
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Regulates the humoral response
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

24. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
SLE
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Upper limb and breast
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement

25. Defectin in isotype switching
2
Drug induced lupus
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Selective Ig def - IgA most common

26. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
CD8 cells
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Adaptive
DM type 1

27. How are NK cells stimulated?
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
CD56
Drug induced lupus
Chediak Higashi

28. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
II
DM type 1
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate

29. HLA- DR7
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Bruton's agamma
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's

30. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
IgM and IgD
Sjorgen's syndrome

31. Anti ds DNA - anti Smith
SLE
DM type 1
Mixed connective tissue disease
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars

32. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Ceilac disase
I
B cell localization and proliferation
Hyper IgM

33. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Right arm and right half of head
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
CD21

34. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
Pemphigus vulgaris
CD21
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
IL-2 and IFN gamma

35. anti U1 RNP
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Mixed connective tissue disease
Sjorgen's syndrome
RA

36. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
DiGeorge
Bruton's agamma
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Fc and Fab

37. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Chronic granulomatous disease
IgG
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
IL-12

38. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
Hyper IgM
IgM and IgD
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Ataxia telangectasia

39. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
RA
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b

40. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La

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41. Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?
Corticomedullary junction
III
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Hashimotos

42. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
Upper limb and breast
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Scleroderma diffuse

43. Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?
Il -4
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Innate
Mesenchyme

44. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
IL-10
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Stomach
Adaptive

45. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
Paracortex
RA
IL-4 - 5 - 10
DM type 1

46. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
SLE - nonspecific
IgE
IFN gamma
Hemochromocytosis

47. Anticentromere
Scleroderma CREST
Chronic granulomatous disease
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Pemphigus vulgaris

48. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Hyper IgM
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
DM type 1

49. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
I
Adaptive
DM type 1
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II

50. What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction
Other vasculitidies
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Hereditary angioedema