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Immunology

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Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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1. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
IV
CD21
Chediak Higashi

2. Which cytokine induces Th2 cell profile in CD4 cells
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Il -4
CD8 cells
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles

3. What happens in the follicle of the lymph node
Goodpastures
B cell localization and proliferation
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Hemochromocytosis

4. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
Hemochromocytosis
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Secondary
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell

5. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Primary biliary cirrohosis
SLE - nonspecific
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Paracortex

6. decreased Th1 response
II
Fab
Chronic granulomatous disease
IL-12 def

7. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
IgM and IgD
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
CD40 and CD40L
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

8. How do CD8 cells kill?
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Bruton's agamma

9. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
CD40 and CD40L
Hereditary angioedema
IgM
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly

10. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
DM type 1
SCID
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
IL-12 def

11. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
SCID
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7

12. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
Scleroderma diffuse
Hashimotos
IgG
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis

13. antimicrosomal - antithyroglobulin
Fc
Poly/dermato myositis
Hashimotos
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

14. Antimitochondrial
Primary biliary cirrohosis
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
SCID

15. Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?
IgG
IL-12 def
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha

16. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Hashimotos
Mesenchyme
Paracortex
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin

17. antismooth muscle
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Autoimmune hepatitis
Hashimotos
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns

18. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
MHC I
Graves' dz
Adaptive

19. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Ceilac disase
CD14

20. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Upper limb and breast
III
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

21. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
IL-10
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Fc
MHC I

22. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
IL-12
RA
IgG
B cell localization and proliferation

23. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

24. HLA- B8

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25. What is the main function of IgA
CD14
IgG
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Secondary

26. Cell surface receptors on B cels
IgE
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Fc and Fab
Hyper IgM

27. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
Upper limb and breast
Corticomedullary junction
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Secondary

28. Anticentromere
2
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
IgG
Scleroderma CREST

29. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
RA
Hyper IgM
I
IL-10

30. HLA- A3
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Hemochromocytosis
SLE - nonspecific
IL-10

31. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Scleroderma diffuse
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
CD14

32. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
IgG
Corticomedullary junction
Fc
III

33. c - ANCA
Wegeners granulomatosis
CD14
Innate
Chronic granulomatous disease

34. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
Chronic granulomatous disease
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
IV
B cell localization and proliferation

35. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
IL-12
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Secondary
Paracortex

36. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
Major shift minor drift
IgM and IgD
IgE
Mesenchyme

37. Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation
MHC II 4 x 2=8
SLE - nonspecific
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

38. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Major shift minor drift
Hereditary angioedema

39. What is the role of CD4 cels
Regulates the humoral response
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Chediak Higashi
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs

40. HLA- DR7
Goodpastures
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Drug induced lupus
Upper limb and breast

41. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
IgE
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
MHC II 4 x 2=8

42. antidesmoglein
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
Pemphigus vulgaris
IgE

43. What interferes with viruses?
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
IL-10
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Upper limb and breast

44. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
Graves' dz
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Mixed connective tissue disease
Goodpastures

45. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
CD21
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
SLE

46. What are the three APCs
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
C3b
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA

47. anti U1 RNP
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Mixed connective tissue disease
CD40 and CD40L
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II

48. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
IFN gamma
SCID
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C

49. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Hemochromocytosis
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

50. How do NK cells kill?
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis