Test your basic knowledge |

Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can study here.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.

This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Chediak Higashi
IV

2. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
IL-12 def
Hashimotos
Fc
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

3. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
DM type 1
CD56
Fc
Pemphigus vulgaris

4. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
IgE
CD14
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs

5. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
Mesenchyme
I
IL-12

6. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Chronic granulomatous disease
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
CD40 and CD40L
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell

7. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells

8. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
IgG
Mesenchyme
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28

9. thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?
RA
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Right arm and right half of head
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome

10. antismooth muscle
Autoimmune hepatitis
Corticomedullary junction
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Sjorgen's syndrome

11. Defectin in isotype switching
IL-10
Chediak Higashi
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

12. What inhibits Th2 cells
CD21
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Corticomedullary junction
IFN gamma

13. How are NK cells stimulated?
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
SCID
IgE
Fab

14. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
SCID
CD14
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis

15. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Right arm and right half of head

16. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Mixed connective tissue disease
IL-12
Bruton's agamma
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7

17. anti - Jo 1
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Poly/dermato myositis
CD40 and CD40L
Selective Ig def - IgA most common

18. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
IV
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
IgM and IgD

19. How do NK cells kill?
Corticomedullary junction
IgG
Paracortex
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells

20. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
IgG
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Corticomedullary junction

21. HLA- B8

Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php on line 183

22. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
III
SCID
RA - DM type 1
MHC I

23. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
I
IL-12
CD21
DiGeorge

24. Which is the receptors for EBV?
Mixed connective tissue disease
CD21
Sjorgen's syndrome
Ceilac disase

25. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
IL-12
Ataxia telangectasia
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
IgG

26. Anti ds DNA - anti Smith
Adaptive
SLE
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Autoimmune hepatitis

27. decreased Th1 response
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
CD56
IL-12 def
IL-10

28. Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?
Paracortex
Innate
IgG
Fab

29. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
IL-10
Fc and Fab
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Ataxia telangectasia

30. Anticentromere
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Scleroderma CREST
Secondary
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis

31. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
III
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
MHC I
IgG

32. HLA- DR3
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
SLE - nonspecific
DM type 1
IgG

33. What does the thoracic duct drain?
Wegeners granulomatosis
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Chronic granulomatous disease
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

34. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
IgG
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Hereditary angioedema
Neisseria bacteremia

35. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
Chediak Higashi
DM type 1
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Scleroderma diffuse

36. Anti - IgG (RF)
RA
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
CD8 cells
2

37. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Fab
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
2
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation

38. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
Goodpastures
IgG
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Ataxia telangectasia

39. Cell surface receptors on B cels
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
IgM and IgD
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin

40. HLA- DR4
Hyper IgM
RA - DM type 1
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Wegeners granulomatosis

41. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
Primary biliary cirrohosis
IgA
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
II

42. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
Stomach
SLE - nonspecific
Hereditary angioedema

43. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
Upper limb and breast
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Drug induced lupus
Ceilac disase

44. Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?
III
Chediak Higashi
B cell localization and proliferation
Graves' dz

45. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
CD40 and CD40L
Corticomedullary junction
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin

46. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
IgM
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
IgE

47. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
III
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Graves' dz

48. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
IV
Fc and Fab
DM type 1
Right arm and right half of head

49. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
IL-4 - 5 - 10
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Wegeners granulomatosis
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM

50. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
Stomach
IV
MHC II 4 x 2=8
CD40 and CD40L