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Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
IL-2 and IFN gamma
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
RA - DM type 1
CD56
2. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
IgA
Hashimotos
IL-10
Autoimmune hepatitis
3. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
DiGeorge
Hyper IgM
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
4. Anti ds DNA - anti Smith
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
DM type 1
SLE
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
5. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
IgE
IgG
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Mesenchyme
6. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
IL-10
7. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
8. What does the Th2 response do?
Mixed connective tissue disease
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Regulates the humoral response
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
9. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Graves' dz
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
10. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
MHC I
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
11. Defectin in isotype switching
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Fc
Right arm and right half of head
12. T cell dysfunction
Hereditary angioedema
III
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Right arm and right half of head
13. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
2
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
14. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
IL-2 and IFN gamma
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
15. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
DiGeorge
Goodpastures
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
16. What do superantigens do?
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Upper limb and breast
17. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation
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18. antigliadin - antiendomysial
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Ceilac disase
B cell localization and proliferation
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
19. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Fab
IL-4 - 5 - 10
20. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
Scleroderma diffuse
Goodpastures
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
IgM
21. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
IgA
DM type 1
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
22. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
IgM
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Il -4
23. HLA- DR4
IL-10
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
RA - DM type 1
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
24. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response
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25. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Upper limb and breast
Bruton's agamma
26. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Chronic granulomatous disease
27. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
Sjorgen's syndrome
Fc and Fab
Fc
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
28. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Upper limb and breast
Chediak Higashi
29. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La
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30. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Wegeners granulomatosis
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
IL-12
Chronic granulomatous disease
31. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Regulates the humoral response
C5b -9
Right arm and right half of head
32. What is the role of CD4 cels
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Other vasculitidies
Bruton's agamma
33. Antimitochondrial
MHC II 4 x 2=8
Hyper IgM
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Primary biliary cirrohosis
34. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
IgE
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Scleroderma diffuse
35. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Ataxia telangectasia
Adaptive
Mixed connective tissue disease
36. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
Secondary
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
CD8 cells
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
37. HLA- DR7
Goodpastures
Regulates the humoral response
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
38. anti - Jo 1
Poly/dermato myositis
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
IFN gamma
IV
39. Cell surface receptors on B cels
CD40 and CD40L
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
III
40. What do mature B lymphos express on their surface?
Other vasculitidies
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
RA
IgM and IgD
41. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
II
Fc and Fab
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
42. Antihistone
SCID
Fab
Ataxia telangectasia
Drug induced lupus
43. anti U1 RNP
Mesenchyme
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Mixed connective tissue disease
IL-12
44. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
45. How do NK cells kill?
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
46. HLA- DR5
SLE
Upper limb and breast
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
47. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
DM type 1
Fc and Fab
I
48. p - ANCA
CD21
DM type 1
I
Other vasculitidies
49. HLA- D2
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50. antimicrosomal - antithyroglobulin
I
Hashimotos
IL-10
IgA