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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. What is the role of CD4 cels
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
Secondary
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs

2. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Fc

3. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
IgG
IL-4 - 5 - 10
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
III

4. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
CD56
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

5. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
II
Ataxia telangectasia
Scleroderma diffuse

6. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
Chediak Higashi
CD21
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
IgM

7. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
CD8 cells
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
CD14
Wegeners granulomatosis

8. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
CD56
IgG
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis

9. c - ANCA
CD56
Wegeners granulomatosis
IL-12
DM type 1

10. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
Hyper IgM
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
CD21
IgM

11. HLA- DR4
Innate
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
SCID
RA - DM type 1

12. Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?
III
Fab
MHC II 4 x 2=8
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

13. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
SCID
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
IgA

14. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response

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15. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
DM type 1
III
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Fab

16. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Adaptive
Graves' dz

17. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La

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18. Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation
Bruton's agamma
CD21
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement

19. Antihistone
Sjorgen's syndrome
Drug induced lupus
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
2

20. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation

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21. antismooth muscle
Autoimmune hepatitis
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
CD56
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

22. Antimitochondrial
IgM
Primary biliary cirrohosis
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Ataxia telangectasia

23. What are the three APCs
Mesenchyme
IL-12
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8

24. What does the thoracic duct drain?
Pemphigus vulgaris
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Mixed connective tissue disease
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

25. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Ceilac disase
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Fab

26. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
Chronic granulomatous disease
Regulates the humoral response
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

27. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
Hemochromocytosis
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
MHC I

28. What is the arthus rxn?
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome

29. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
IgM and IgD
Fc and Fab
IL-2 and IFN gamma
C3b

30. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
Neisseria bacteremia
Graves' dz
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
C5b -9

31. p - ANCA
Chediak Higashi
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Other vasculitidies

32. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Hereditary angioedema
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM

33. ANA
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
SLE - nonspecific
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
IgG

34. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
IgM
Mesenchyme
Corticomedullary junction

35. How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?
Regulates the humoral response
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
2
Stomach

36. anti - Jo 1
Neisseria bacteremia
IgE
SCID
Poly/dermato myositis

37. Defectin in isotype switching
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Pemphigus vulgaris
Corticomedullary junction

38. Anticentromere
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
MHC I
Scleroderma CREST

39. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Goodpastures

40. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
IL-12 def
Chediak Higashi
Secondary
Drug induced lupus

41. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
IV
Adaptive
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
Il -4

42. T cell dysfunction
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
IL-10
Major shift minor drift
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis

43. Cell surface receptors on B cels
III
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
II
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7

44. decreased Th1 response
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Chediak Higashi
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
IL-12 def

45. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
Fc
Hereditary angioedema
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Upper limb and breast

46. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Paracortex
IgG
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

47. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
MHC I
Wegeners granulomatosis
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis

48. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Neisseria bacteremia
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Hyper IgM
Autoimmune hepatitis

49. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
Fab
IgA
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns

50. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
CD40 and CD40L