SUBJECTS
|
BROWSE
|
CAREER CENTER
|
POPULAR
|
JOIN
|
LOGIN
Business Skills
|
Soft Skills
|
Basic Literacy
|
Certifications
About
|
Help
|
Privacy
|
Terms
|
Email
Search
Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. Which complement protein opsonizes bacteria?
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
III
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
C3b
2. HLA- DR5
Stomach
RA - DM type 1
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
3. What is the difference in antigenic variation in viruses
DM type 1
Major shift minor drift
Hashimotos
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
4. What are the three APCs
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Graves' dz
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
5. How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
B cell localization and proliferation
2
SLE - nonspecific
6. What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
DiGeorge
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
7. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
DM type 1
Chediak Higashi
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
8. c - ANCA
Pemphigus vulgaris
Wegeners granulomatosis
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
9. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
Hereditary angioedema
Scleroderma CREST
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
III
10. Antihistone
Drug induced lupus
Fc
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
11. What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction
Mesenchyme
IgE
Major shift minor drift
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
12. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
Hashimotos
Mesenchyme
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Scleroderma CREST
13. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
IgM and IgD
Adaptive
CD56
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
14. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
IV
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Innate
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
15. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
C5b -9
16. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
DM type 1
MHC II 4 x 2=8
MHC I
CD8 cells
17. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
Paracortex
B cell localization and proliferation
IgM and IgD
Fab
18. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
Scleroderma CREST
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
IgG
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
19. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
IgM and IgD
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Mesenchyme
Paracortex
20. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Hyper IgM
Adaptive
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
SLE - nonspecific
21. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
CD56
Chediak Higashi
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Right arm and right half of head
22. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Upper limb and breast
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Il -4
Paracortex
23. thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?
Secondary
Right arm and right half of head
Poly/dermato myositis
Hashimotos
24. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
Upper limb and breast
CD56
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
25. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
26. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
CD40 and CD40L
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
CD8 cells
Bruton's agamma
27. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
Hemochromocytosis
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
28. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Corticomedullary junction
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Innate
29. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Neisseria bacteremia
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Hyper IgM
30. How are NK cells stimulated?
RA
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
II
Hashimotos
31. How do CD8 cells kill?
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Mixed connective tissue disease
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
32. X- linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
IgM
33. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response
Warning
: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in
/var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php
on line
183
34. transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells
Il -4
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Hereditary angioedema
35. What is the main function of IgA
II
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
IL-12
CD8 cells
36. anti - Jo 1
Poly/dermato myositis
Drug induced lupus
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
37. HLA- DR7
Right arm and right half of head
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
IL-12 def
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
38. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Hereditary angioedema
CD21
IgM
39. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Ataxia telangectasia
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
40. HLA- DR3
IgG
DM type 1
Other vasculitidies
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
41. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La
Warning
: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in
/var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php
on line
183
42. What does the Th2 response do?
Goodpastures
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
Regulates the humoral response
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
43. HLA- D2
Warning
: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in
/var/www/html/basicversity.com/show_quiz.php
on line
183
44. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Mixed connective tissue disease
Fc and Fab
45. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
IL-10
Secondary
IgE
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
46. Which cytokine induces Th2 cell profile in CD4 cells
Il -4
MHC I
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
47. Cell surface receptors on B cels
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Neisseria bacteremia
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
48. Which is the receptors for EBV?
II
Hyper IgM
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
CD21
49. p - ANCA
Other vasculitidies
Adaptive
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
50. Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
CD40 and CD40L
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7