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Immunology

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Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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1. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
IgA
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
SLE

2. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
Pemphigus vulgaris
SCID
Ceilac disase
Goodpastures

3. HLA- D2

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4. What is the difference in antigenic variation in viruses
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Major shift minor drift
Fab

5. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
Fc
Bruton's agamma
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
SCID

6. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
SLE
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
IL-10

7. antidesmoglein
Secondary
C5b -9
Goodpastures
Pemphigus vulgaris

8. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Drug induced lupus
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Mesenchyme

9. What do mature B lymphos express on their surface?
Wegeners granulomatosis
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Fc
IgM and IgD

10. Anticentromere
Upper limb and breast
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Scleroderma CREST

11. Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?
IgG
B cell localization and proliferation
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Hemochromocytosis

12. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
CD56
Chronic granulomatous disease
III

13. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
IgG
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Graves' dz
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells

14. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
SLE - nonspecific
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Right arm and right half of head
IgG

15. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Il -4
IL-12
Autoimmune hepatitis
CD21

16. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
CD40 and CD40L
CD21
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Fc and Fab

17. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
IgG
Fab
MHC II 4 x 2=8

18. What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Hereditary angioedema

19. Antimitochondrial
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Mixed connective tissue disease

20. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
II
IV
Fab
Fc

21. anti basement membrane
Goodpastures
SCID
Hemochromocytosis
Graves' dz

22. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Other vasculitidies

23. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
IL-2 and IFN gamma
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

24. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
Fc and Fab
I
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Hereditary angioedema

25. What do you find in the medulla of the thymus?
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin

26. HLA- DR4
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
RA - DM type 1
IL-12
CD40 and CD40L

27. What is the main function of IgA
Chediak Higashi
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Il -4

28. HLA- DR3
RA - DM type 1
C5b -9
DM type 1
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)

29. Which complement protein opsonizes bacteria?
Mixed connective tissue disease
Sjorgen's syndrome
SLE
C3b

30. c - ANCA
III
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Wegeners granulomatosis
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement

31. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Paracortex
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn

32. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
SLE
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
IgM and IgD

33. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
C3b
Neisseria bacteremia
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars

34. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
C3b
Scleroderma diffuse
CD8 cells
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

35. What are the two signals in helper T activation?
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Goodpastures
Bruton's agamma

36. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
MHC I
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
Hyper IgM

37. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
Pemphigus vulgaris
Ataxia telangectasia
CD21
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

38. Th cells don't produce IFN gamma - no PMN response

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39. Defectin in isotype switching
Sjorgen's syndrome
SLE - nonspecific
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Paracortex

40. What do superantigens do?
Scleroderma diffuse
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
III
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II

41. decreased Th1 response
Stomach
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
IgM
IL-12 def

42. anti - Jo 1
DM type 1
Poly/dermato myositis
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Scleroderma diffuse

43. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
Chediak Higashi
2
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Fc

44. X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation

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45. Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
III
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
IgM

46. p - ANCA
2
Major shift minor drift
Other vasculitidies
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

47. How do CD8 cells kill?
Hyper IgM
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
CD14

48. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Chronic granulomatous disease
Hemochromocytosis

49. How do NK cells kill?
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells

50. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
Neisseria bacteremia
Bruton's agamma
RA
Fab

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