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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
Paracortex
IgM and IgD
IV
CD56

2. ANA
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Pemphigus vulgaris
SLE - nonspecific
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

3. Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?
Poly/dermato myositis
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement
Innate

4. Antimitochondrial
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Hashimotos
Primary biliary cirrohosis

5. What interferes with viruses?
CD56
Secondary
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

6. anti glutamate decarboxylase
CD21
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Innate
DM type 1

7. Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?
IV
IgG
SLE
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn

8. Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?
MHC I
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
CD8 cells
Neisseria bacteremia

9. What does the Th2 response do?
SLE
Regulates the humoral response
Secondary
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis

10. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome

11. HLA- A3
Hemochromocytosis
SLE
Primary biliary cirrohosis
IV

12. T cell dysfunction
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
DM type 1
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
SCID

13. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
IFN gamma
Graves' dz
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell

14. p - ANCA
IL-10
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Other vasculitidies
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

15. Which complement protein opsonizes bacteria?
CD40 and CD40L
Stomach
Secondary
C3b

16. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Wegeners granulomatosis
IL-12
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

17. Lack of NADPH oxidase - decreased in ROS - absetn respiratory burst in PMNs
Chronic granulomatous disease
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
IL-10

18. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
RA
Regulates the humoral response
Il -4
Ataxia telangectasia

19. antimicrosomal - antithyroglobulin
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Hereditary angioedema
Hashimotos
Drug induced lupus

20. Anti - IgG (RF)
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
RA
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Right arm and right half of head

21. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
Chediak Higashi
I
MHC I
Paracortex

22. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
Scleroderma diffuse
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
CD21
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement

23. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
2
Corticomedullary junction
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
C3b

24. HLA- B27

25. Cell surface receptors on T cells
Primary biliary cirrohosis
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Sjorgen's syndrome
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8

26. anti - Jo 1
Poly/dermato myositis
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis

27. Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
III
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation

28. Which is the receptors for EBV?
CD21
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
IgG

29. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
C5b -9
Ceilac disase
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
IgE

30. What do mature B lymphos express on their surface?
IL-12
IL-10
IgM and IgD
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns

31. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
Secondary
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C

32. Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute
Goodpastures
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Fab

33. How do NK cells kill?
Innate
Hashimotos
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Mixed connective tissue disease

34. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
III
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome

35. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
RA - DM type 1
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

36. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
IL-10
III

37. What is the clinical picture for serum sickness?
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
DM type 1
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head

38. HLA- D2

39. Defectin in isotype switching
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Bruton's agamma
IL-10
DM type 1

40. Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
II
Stomach

41. Defect in B cell maturation
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
CD40 and CD40L
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

42. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
Hyper IgM
Neisseria bacteremia
Scleroderma diffuse
III

43. What does a deficiency in C3 lead to...
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell

44. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
CD21
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Secondary

45. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
IgG
Goodpastures
IgE

46. What do superantigens do?
RA
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Wegeners granulomatosis
II

47. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
SCID
III
Fab

48. Defect in CD40L on helper T
IgA
Hereditary angioedema
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Hyper IgM

49. What happens in the follicle of the lymph node
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Scleroderma diffuse
IgM
B cell localization and proliferation

50. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
IL-12 def
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha