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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. Defectin in isotype switching
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis

2. What is the main function of IgA
IgG
CD56
Adaptive
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

3. which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?
Secondary
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Adaptive
Fc

4. What interferes with viruses?
Innate
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly

5. antimicrosomal - antithyroglobulin
Hashimotos
Other vasculitidies
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly

6. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
IV
Bruton's agamma
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
IgG

7. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
Graves' dz
Wegeners granulomatosis
I
DiGeorge

8. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Mesenchyme
Hemochromocytosis
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
Fab

9. HLA- A3
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Poly/dermato myositis
Hemochromocytosis
CD40 and CD40L

10. AR - defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis
Chediak Higashi
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Sjorgen's syndrome
IgG

11. Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it
Mixed connective tissue disease
Graves' dz
CD21
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ

12. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
Corticomedullary junction
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
IgG

13. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
III
Sjorgen's syndrome
MHC I
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis

14. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
IFN gamma

15. HLA- B27

16. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
IL-12 def
Autoimmune hepatitis
Goodpastures
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin

17. What happens in the follicle of the lymph node
III
IgM and IgD
C3b
B cell localization and proliferation

18. Antimitochondrial
B cell localization and proliferation
Regulates the humoral response
Primary biliary cirrohosis
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho

19. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
MHC I
Corticomedullary junction
CD14
S. aureus and S. pyogenes

20. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
IgG
Major shift minor drift
Scleroderma CREST
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7

21. Which infections require administering passive immunity?
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
B cell localization and proliferation
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Chronic granulomatous disease

22. Deficiency in DAF
Drug induced lupus
Sjorgen's syndrome
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

23. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein

24. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Fc and Fab
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA

25. anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La

26. Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells
Hereditary angioedema
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
IL-10
DM type 1

27. c - ANCA
Corticomedullary junction
Wegeners granulomatosis
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
CD40 and CD40L

28. What do you find in the medulla of the thymus?
Goodpastures
SCID
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles

29. How do CD8 cells kill?
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Sjorgen's syndrome
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
SCID

30. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
IgG
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Fc

31. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
Upper limb and breast
Superficial inguinal pectinate line

32. Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation
B cell localization and proliferation
Stomach
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Adaptive

33. anti glutamate decarboxylase
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
DM type 1
IgM
Fab

34. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
IV
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

35. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
DiGeorge
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
IL-4 - 5 - 10
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement

36. Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?
CD8 cells
Adaptive
CD40 and CD40L
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2

37. Antihistone
IFN gamma
DiGeorge
Drug induced lupus
Autoimmune hepatitis

38. p - ANCA
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
IV
Other vasculitidies
2

39. which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?
Secondary
SLE
Wegeners granulomatosis
Regulates the humoral response

40. What inhibits Th2 cells
Paracortex
RA - DM type 1
Pemphigus vulgaris
IFN gamma

41. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
III
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
CD56

42. T cell dysfunction
Primary biliary cirrohosis
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis

43. HLA- DR7
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Hashimotos
RA
Pemphigus vulgaris

44. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
SCID
Neisseria bacteremia
MHC II 4 x 2=8
CD14

45. HLA- B8

46. Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response
Regulates the humoral response
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
Paracortex
SLE - nonspecific

47. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
Hereditary angioedema
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
III

48. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome
IV
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Stomach

49. Defect in B cell maturation
Scleroderma diffuse
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement
Stomach

50. What does the Th2 response do?
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Interfereon alpha - beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis - gamma upregulate MHC I and II - all three activate NK cells
Regulates the humoral response