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Test your basic knowledge |
Immunology
Start Test
Study First
Subject
:
health-sciences
Instructions:
Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
If you are not ready to take this test, you can
study here
.
Match each statement with the correct term.
Don't refresh. All questions and answers are randomly picked and ordered every time you load a test.
This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.
1. What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
Chediak Higashi
IV
2. Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype
IL-12 def
Hashimotos
Fc
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
3. What is the unique cell marker for NK cells
DM type 1
CD56
Fc
Pemphigus vulgaris
4. Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?
IgE
CD14
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
5. Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
Mesenchyme
I
IL-12
6. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
Chronic granulomatous disease
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
CD40 and CD40L
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
7. Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
Hyperacute : occlusion - ischemia - necrosis
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
8. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
IgG
Mesenchyme
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
9. thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?
RA
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Right arm and right half of head
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
10. antismooth muscle
Autoimmune hepatitis
Corticomedullary junction
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Sjorgen's syndrome
11. Defectin in isotype switching
IL-10
Chediak Higashi
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
12. What inhibits Th2 cells
CD21
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Corticomedullary junction
IFN gamma
13. How are NK cells stimulated?
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
SCID
IgE
Fab
14. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
SCID
CD14
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
15. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Right arm and right half of head
16. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Mixed connective tissue disease
IL-12
Bruton's agamma
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
17. anti - Jo 1
Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's)
Poly/dermato myositis
CD40 and CD40L
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
18. Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed
IV
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
IgM and IgD
19. How do NK cells kill?
Corticomedullary junction
IgG
Paracortex
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
20. What are the 4 T's of type IV hypersense
IgG
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Signal 1 = APC - signal 2 = B7 and CD28
Corticomedullary junction
21. HLA- B8
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22. Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn
III
SCID
RA - DM type 1
MHC I
23. 22q11 deletion - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
I
IL-12
CD21
DiGeorge
24. Which is the receptors for EBV?
Mixed connective tissue disease
CD21
Sjorgen's syndrome
Ceilac disase
25. Where is MHC I expressed - and which HLA molecules code for it
IL-12
Ataxia telangectasia
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C
IgG
26. Anti ds DNA - anti Smith
Adaptive
SLE
T- lymphos - Transplant - TB skin test - Touching (contact dermatitis)
Autoimmune hepatitis
27. decreased Th1 response
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
CD56
IL-12 def
IL-10
28. Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?
Paracortex
Innate
IgG
Fab
29. What are the three things you find post splenectomy
IL-10
Fc and Fab
Howell - Jolly bodies - Target cells - thrombocytosis
Ataxia telangectasia
30. Anticentromere
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Scleroderma CREST
Secondary
Pernicious anemia (to B12 def) - hashimotos thyroiditis
31. Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind
III
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
MHC I
IgG
32. HLA- DR3
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
SLE - nonspecific
DM type 1
IgG
33. What does the thoracic duct drain?
Wegeners granulomatosis
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
Chronic granulomatous disease
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
34. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
IgG
Steroid - responsive nephrotic syndrome
Hereditary angioedema
Neisseria bacteremia
35. Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I
Chediak Higashi
DM type 1
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Scleroderma diffuse
36. Anti - IgG (RF)
RA
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
CD8 cells
2
37. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Fab
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
2
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
38. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
Goodpastures
IgG
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Ataxia telangectasia
39. Cell surface receptors on B cels
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
IgM and IgD
Perforin - granzyme - granulysin
40. HLA- DR4
Hyper IgM
RA - DM type 1
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules
Wegeners granulomatosis
41. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
Primary biliary cirrohosis
IgA
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
II
42. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
MS - hay fever - SLE - goodpasture's
Stomach
SLE - nonspecific
Hereditary angioedema
43. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
Upper limb and breast
Selective Ig def - IgA most common
Drug induced lupus
Ceilac disase
44. Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?
III
Chediak Higashi
B cell localization and proliferation
Graves' dz
45. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8
CD40 and CD40L
Corticomedullary junction
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
46. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate
IgM
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
IgE
47. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
III
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Graves' dz
48. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
IV
Fc and Fab
DM type 1
Right arm and right half of head
49. What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?
IL-4 - 5 - 10
PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns
Wegeners granulomatosis
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
50. Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind
Stomach
IV
MHC II 4 x 2=8
CD40 and CD40L