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Immunology

Instructions:

Answer 50 questions in 15 minutes.
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Match each statement with the correct term.
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This is a study tool. The 3 wrong answers for each question are randomly chosen from answers to other questions. So, you might find at times the answers obvious, but you will see it re-enforces your understanding as you take the test each time.

1. anti basement membrane
Drug induced lupus
Goodpastures
C3b
DiGeorge

2. What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles
Right arm and right half of head
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Major shift minor drift

3. Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?
Poly/dermato myositis
Mesenchyme
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

4. transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
MHC I
Acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate

5. How do NK cells kill?
II
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head

6. Which lymph node drains the anal canal below
IFN gamma
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin
Superficial inguinal pectinate line
IL-2 and IFN gamma

7. Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?
MHC I
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Fc and Fab
Ceilac disase

8. p - ANCA
Salmonella - 2 flaggellar variants - Borrelia - relapsing fever - N. gono - pilus protein
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Other vasculitidies

9. What do superantigens do?
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
CD56
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II

10. What inhibits Th2 cells
IFN gamma
Fc
Mixed connective tissue disease
MHC I

11. Defect in DNA repair enzymes
Goodpastures
Chronic granulomatous disease
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Ataxia telangectasia

12. Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha
Upper limb and breast
IV
IgG

13. What does HOT- T- Bone stEAk stand for?
IL-12
B cell localization and proliferation
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA
Neisseria bacteremia

14. Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
IgG
SCID
Mature t cells - epithelial reticular cells - Hassalls corpuscles

15. anti glutamate decarboxylase
Hemochromocytosis
DM type 1
Ataxia telangectasia
IL-12 def

16. Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate
III
Innate
IFN gamma
C5b -9

17. What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?
Adaptive
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Hereditary angioedema
Type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen - antibodies in the skin causing edema - necrosis and activation of complement

18. What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?
Hemochromocytosis
Goodpastures
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Encapsulated - S SHiN (salmonella - S.pneumo - H. influ - N. menin

19. What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis
Graves' dz
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant
I
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

20. Cell surface receptors on T cells
Chronic granulomatous disease
Other vasculitidies
2
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8

21. Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
Corticomedullary junction
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ
Poly/dermato myositis
Secondary

22. Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
CD14
DiGeorge
Ceilac disase

23. Which is the receptors for EBV?
Chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis
Chediak Higashi
Mixed connective tissue disease
CD21

24. X- linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells
Ataxia telangectasia
IgM
Secondary
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM

25. Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
IL-12
CD3 - CD28 - helper t - CD4 - CD40L - cyto t CD8

26. Defect in CD40L on helper T
Right arm and right half of head
Hyper IgM
Secondary
Scleroderma diffuse

27. Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?
Secondary
IL-2 and IFN gamma
IgG
Graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction - maculopapular rash - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant

28. What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?
Signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I - signal 2 = Il -2
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Mesenchyme
CD21

29. What are the cell surface receptors on MACS
Paracortex
IL-4 - 5 - 10
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

30. What is the difference in antigenic variation in viruses
Major shift minor drift
SCID
Chediak Higashi
IL-1 = fever - IL-2 = T cells - IL-3 = bone marrow - IL-4 = IgE - IL-5 = IgA

31. What does the thoracic duct drain?
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
IgG
Neisseria bacteremia
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation

32. c - ANCA
Wegeners granulomatosis
Tetanus - Botulinum toxin - HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly
IFN gamma
RA

33. Which complement proteins make up the MAC
IL-10
Help B cells make antibody - secrete IFN gamma to activate macs
Poly/dermato myositis
C5b -9

34. Which antibodies activate the classic pathway
IgA
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Corticomedullary junction
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars

35. Antihistone
Scleroderma CREST
Drug induced lupus
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
PAIR - psoriasis - ankylosing spondylitis - inflammatory bowel dz - reiter's syndrome

36. decreased Th1 response
Chediak Higashi
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn
IL-12 def
Poly/dermato myositis

37. How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
2
B cell localization and proliferation
Severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections - inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn

38. What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from
Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia - infections - eczema) high IgE and IgA - low IgM
III
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Mesenchyme

39. X linked IL-2 receptor defect - adenosine deaminase deficiency - failure to synthesize MHC II
IgG - IgM GM makes classic cars
CD40 and CD40L
Mesenchyme
SCID

40. Which bacteria secrete superantigen
Hereditary angioedema
IgM and IgD
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
IL-12 - IFN- beta. IFN- alpha

41. Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?
IL-2 and IFN gamma
Signal 1 = IL-4 -5 -6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell
Hyper IgM
CD56

42. What does the Th2 response do?
IgA
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
Uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1 - IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS - via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II
Regulates the humoral response

43. HLA- A3
IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC - IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho
Hemochromocytosis
III
All nucleated cells (no RBCs) A - B - C

44. transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage
Upper limb and breast
MHC II - B7 - CD40 - CD14 - receptors for Fc and C3b
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Mixed connective tissue disease

45. Which complement protein opsonizes bacteria?
Fc
C3b
CD14
DM type 1

46. What does a deficiency in C5- C8 lead to?
Everything else - not right arm and right half of head
IgG
Neisseria bacteremia
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell

47. What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?
Drug induced lupus
Opsonization - neutralization and complement activation
Perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells
Goodpastures

48. Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk - tears - saliva - and mucous
IgA
IL-12 def
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
I

49. What are the three APCs
Chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels
Macs - dendritic cell - B cell
Ig - CD19 - 20 - 21 - CD40 - MHCII - B7
No - peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

50. What is the clinical picture for serum sickness?
Regulates the humoral response
Mesenchyme
Caused by drugs mostly - fever - urticaria - arthralgias - proteinuria - lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure
APCs - and DR - DP and DQ